Human Physiology and Endocrine Control: Chapters 8, 9, 22, 23, 26 Review

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80 Terms

1
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What are the classes of hormones?

Peptides/proteins, steroids, amines.

2
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What hormones are classified as peptides/proteins?

Insulin, glucagon, GH, PTH, ACTH, TSH.

3
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What hormones are classified as steroids?

Cortisol, aldosterone, sex steroids, calcitriol.

4
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What is the pathway for cortisol release?

Stress and circadian rhythm → CRH → ACTH → zona fasciculata cortisol.

5
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What are the effects of cortisol?

Gluconeogenesis, protein breakdown, lipolysis, immune suppression.

6
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What is primary hypercortisolism?

High cortisol, low ACTH, low CRH.

7
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What is Cushing disease?

Secondary hypercortisolism due to a pituitary ACTH tumor.

8
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What is Addison disease?

Primary hypocortisolism with low cortisol and high ACTH.

9
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What is the role of thyroid hormones?

Regulate metabolism, increase BMR, and support growth.

10
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What is Graves disease?

An autoimmune disorder causing high T3/T4 and low TSH.

11
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What is the effect of somatostatin on growth hormone?

Somatostatin inhibits growth hormone secretion.

12
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What is the role of PTH?

Increases bone resorption and renal calcium reabsorption.

13
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What is calcitriol?

The main hormone increasing intestinal calcium absorption.

14
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What are the symptoms of hypocalcemia?

Cramps, tetany, seizures.

15
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What is the main hormone during the anabolic phase?

Insulin.

16
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What characterizes Type 1 diabetes?

Autoimmune destruction of β-cells leading to low insulin.

17
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What is the function of glucagon?

Stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

18
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What is the role of the SRY gene?

Determines male sex by promoting testis development.

19
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What is gametogenesis in males?

Spermatogonia produce sperm continuously after puberty.

20
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What happens to primary oocytes in females?

Arrest until puberty; one egg per primary oocyte.

21
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What does GnRH stimulate?

Release of FSH and LH from the pituitary.

22
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What is the function of inhibin?

Lowers FSH levels.

23
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What does the first polar body contain compared to the second?

The first polar body has twice the DNA of the second.

24
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When does Meiosis II finish?

Meiosis II finishes only if fertilized.

25
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What hormones are released by GnRH?

FSH and LH.

26
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What does inhibin do?

Inhibin lowers FSH.

27
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What happens to gonadotropins when steroid levels are low?

Low steroids raise gonadotropins.

28
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What triggers the LH surge?

Sustained high estrogen switches to positive feedback.

29
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What are the phases of the ovarian cycle?

Follicular phase, ovulation, luteal phase.

30
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What are the phases of the uterine cycle?

Menses, proliferative phase, secretory phase.

31
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What triggers ovulation?

The LH surge triggers ovulation and formation of the corpus luteum.

32
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What is the dominant hormone of the secretory/luteal phase?

Progesterone.

33
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What do the theca and granulosa cells do in estrogen production?

Theca cells make androgens; granulosa cells aromatize them to estrogen.

34
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What happens if there is no pregnancy?

The corpus luteum dies, steroids fall, and menses occurs.

35
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What primarily sets the resting membrane potential?

K+ leak channels.

36
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What is the Nernst equation used for?

To calculate the equilibrium potential for one ion.

37
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What does hyperkalemia do to the resting membrane potential?

Makes Vm less negative and closer to threshold.

38
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What effect does hypokalemia have on resting membrane potential?

Makes Vm more negative.

39
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What depolarizes the neuron?

Na+ or Ca2+ entry.

40
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What hyperpolarizes the neuron?

K+ exit or Cl− entry.

41
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What is the sequence of an action potential?

Threshold → Na+ activation gates open → Na+ inactivation gates close and K+ channels open → extra K+ efflux → reset.

42
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What stops the rising phase of an action potential?

Closing of Na+ inactivation gates.

43
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What is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

Glutamate.

44
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What is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

GABA.

45
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What is the function of the thalamus?

Relay for sensory information to the cortex, except olfaction.

46
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What is the role of the hypothalamus?

Homeostasis — temperature, thirst, hunger, reproduction, ANS, pituitary.

47
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What does the cerebellum coordinate?

Movement and balance.

48
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What does damage to Broca's area produce?

Expressive aphasia.

49
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What is the primary function of the spinal cord?

Integrates sensory and motor commands.

50
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What does secondary hypocortisolism produce?

Low cortisol, low ACTH, high CRH

51
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What does iodine-deficiency hypothyroidism produce?

Low T3/T4, high TSH, high TRH, and a goiter

52
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What is the difference between childhood GH excess and adult GH excess?

Gigantism versus acromegaly

53
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What happens to the endometrium during menses?

It sloughs its surface layer

54
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In males, what do FSH and LH mainly target?

Sertoli cells and Leydig cells, respectively

55
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How does a graded potential differ from an action potential?

A graded potential can vary in size, can summate, and decays with distance

56
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What occurs at the neuromuscular junction with ACh?

ACh is synthesized by choline acetyltransferase, binds nicotinic receptors, and is broken down by AChE

57
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What is the most likely effect of CN VII damage (Bell palsy)?

Facial droop and impaired facial expression, with possible loss of taste

58
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What is the hippocampus critical for?

Learning and memory

59
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What causes glycosuria and polyuria in untreated type 1 diabetes?

Filtered glucose exceeds the renal threshold and osmotically holds water in the tubule

60
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Why do both insulin and glucagon rise after a pure protein meal?

Glucagon prevents the hypoglycemia insulin would otherwise cause

61
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What is the role of calcitonin?

It is released when plasma Ca2+ is high and decreases bone resorption

62
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What is the metabolic pattern of fasted-state metabolism?

Catabolic, supports brain glucose, and can form ketones

63
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Why does the absolute refractory period exist?

Voltage-gated Na+ channels are inactivated

64
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What does damage to Wernicke area cause?

Receptive aphasia (cannot understand language)

65
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What is the lesion in a patient with moon face, truncal obesity, striae, and high cortisol?

Secondary (pituitary ACTH), Cushing disease

66
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What would a hypophysectomized animal show?

Low T3/T4 and low TSH, with high TRH and no TSH-driven goiter

67
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What explains heat intolerance in hyperthyroidism?

Increased oxidative metabolism, with energy released as heat

68
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What do AMH and DHT do in a male embryo?

Regress Müllerian ducts and masculinize external genitalia, respectively

69
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How much DNA does the first polar body have relative to the second polar body?

The same

70
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What is the difference between early and late follicular estrogen?

Moderate estrogen is negative feedback; sustained high estrogen becomes positive feedback

71
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What happens when a neuron has a net Vm of -58 mV?

It does not fire

72
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What effect does hypokalemia have on a neuron?

Makes it less likely to fire, because Vm is more negative

73
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Where is conduction fastest?

In a large myelinated axon

74
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What does a CN IX lesion most likely cause?

Difficulty swallowing and loss of posterior pharyngeal sensation

75
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What is the difference between sleepwalking and sleep-talking?

Sleepwalking is typical of N3; sleep-talking is typical of light NREM, not REM

76
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Which is NOT a main insulin target?

Renal glucose reabsorption

77
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What do osteoblasts and osteoclasts do?

Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix; osteoclasts resorb it

78
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What is cortisol's main metabolic pattern?

Gluconeogenesis, muscle protein breakdown, lipolysis, and immune suppression

79
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What is true about CSF compared with plasma?

CSF has a lower concentration of glucose

80
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Which statement about the blood-brain barrier is FALSE?

Endothelial cells are joined by gap junctions