P Post-test 2 (Aircraft Powerplant)

1. Why is a constant-speed counterweight propeller normally placed in full HIGH PITCH position before the engine is stopped?

A. To prevent exposure and corrosion of the pitch changing mechanism.

B. To prevent hydraulic lock of the piston when the oil cools.

C. To prevent overheating of the engine during the next start.

D. All of the above

A. To prevent exposure and corrosion of the pitch changing mechanism

2. After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition removed in aircraft equipped with a Systron-Donner fire detector, the detection system

A. must be manually reset.

B. automatically resets.

C. sensing component must be replaced.

D. All of the above

B. automatically resets

3. Propeller fluid anti-icing systems generally use which of the following?

A. Ethylene glycol.

B. Isopropyl alcohol.

C. Ethyl alcohol.

D. All of the above

B. Isopropyl alcohol

4. The primary concern in establishing the firing order for an opposed engine is to

A. provide for balance and eliminate vibration to the greatest extent possible.

B. keep power impulses on adjacent cylinders as far apart as possible in order to obtain the greatest mechanical efficiency.

C. keep the power impulses on adjacent cylinders as close as possible in order to obtain the greatest mechanical efficiency.

D. None of the above

A. provide for balance and eliminate vibration to the greatest extent possible

5. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (CFS) with a totalizer-indicator provides indication of how many of the following?

1. Fuel flow rate.

2. Fuel used since reset or initial start-up.

3. Fuel time remaining at current power setting.

4. Fuel temperature.

A. Two.

B. Three.

C. Four.

D. All of the above

B. Three

6. Aircraft magneto housings are usually ventilated in order to

A. prevent the entrance of outside air which may contain moisture.

B. allow heated air from the accessory compartment to keep the internal parts of the magneto dry.

C. provide cooling and remove corrosive gases produced by normal arcing.

D. None of the above

C. provide cooling and remove corrosive gases produced by normal arcing

7. The turbine section of a jet engine

A. increases air velocity to generate thrust forces.

B. utilizes heat energy to expand and accelerate the incoming gas flow.

C. drives the compressor section.

D. None of the above

C. drives the compressor section

8. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine operation?

A. Compressor inlet air temperature.

B. Turbine inlet temperature.

C. Burner-can pressure.

D. None of the above

B. Turbine inlet temperature

9. The constant current method of charging a ni-cad battery

A. will bring it up to fully charged in the shortest amount of time.

B. will lead to cell imbalance over a period of time.

C. is the method most effective in maintaining cell balance.

D. None of the above

C. is the method most effective in maintaining cell balance

10. In the dual axial-flow or twin spool compressor system, the first stage turbine drives the

A. N(1) and N(2) compressors.

B. N(2) compressor.

C. N(1) compressor.

D. None of the above

B. N(2) compressor

11. In order to relieve excessive pump pressure in an engine internal oil system, most engines are equipped with a

A. vent.

B. bypass valve.

C. relief valve.

D. None of the above

C. relief valve

12. The metered fuel pressure (chamber C) in an injection-type carburetor

A. is held constant throughout the entire engine operating range.

B. varies according to the position of the poppet valve located between chamber D (unmetered fuel) and chamber E (engine-driven fuel pump pressure).

C. will be approximately equal to the pressure in chamber A (impact pressure).

D. All of the above

A. is held constant throughout the entire engine operating range.

13. On turbojet powered airplanes, thrust reversers are capable of producing between

A. 35 and 50 percent of the rated thrust in the reverse direction.

B. 35 and 75 percent of the rated thrust in the reverse direction.

C. 35 and 65 percent of the rated thrust in the reverse direction.

D. None of the above

A. 35 and 50 percent of the rated thrust in the reverse direction

14. Why is a constant-speed drive used to control the speed of some aircraft engine-driven generators?

A. So that the voltage output of the generator will remain within limits.

B. To eliminate uncontrolled surges of current to the electrical system.

C. So that the frequency of the alternating current output will remain constant.

D. None of the above

C. So that the frequency of the alternating current output will remain constant

15. What is a result of 'flashover' in a distributor?

A. Intense voltage at the spark plug.

B. Reversal of current flow.

C. Conductive carbon trail.

D. None of the above

C. Conductive carbon trail

16. A ground incident that results in propeller sudden stoppage would require a crankshaft runout inspection. What publication would be used to obtain crankshaft runout tolerance?

A. Current manufacturer's maintenance instructions.

B. Type Certificate Data Sheet.

C. AC 43.13-1A, Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices -- Aircraft Inspection and Repair.

D. None of the above

A. Current manufacturer's maintenance instructions

17. What is the radial location of the two north poles of a four-pole rotating magnet in a high-tension magneto?

A. 180° apart.

B. 270° apart.

C. 90° apart.

D. None of the above

A. 180° apart

18. How is the speed of a constant-speed propeller changed in flight?

A. By varying the output of the governor booster pump.

B. By advancing or retarding the throttle.

C. By changing the load tension against the flyweights in the governor.

D. All of the above

C. By changing the load tension against the flyweights in the governor

19. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (CFS) with a totalizer-indicator provides indication of how many of the following?

1. Fuel flow rate.

2. Fuel used since reset or initial start-up.

3. Fuel time remaining at current power setting.

4. Fuel temperature.

A. Two.

B. Three.

C. Four.

D. All of the above

B. Three

20. What is the source of most of the heat that is absorbed by the lubricating oil in a reciprocating engine?

A. Crankshaft main bearings.

B. Exhaust valves.

C. Pistons and cylinder walls.

D. All of the above

C. Pistons and cylinder walls

21. Electrical switches are rated according to the

A. voltage and the current they can control.

B. resistance rating of the switch and the wiring.

C. resistance and the temperature rating.

D. None of the above

A. voltage and the current they can control

22. When using a timing light to time a magneto to an aircraft engine, the magneto switch should be placed in the

A. BOTH position.

B. OFF position.

C. LEFT or RIGHT position (either one).

D. None of the above

A. BOTH position.

23. How can a steel propeller hub be tested for cracks?

A. By anodizing.

B. By magnetic particle inspection.

C. By etching.

D. All of the above

B. By magnetic particle inspection

24. When installing an electrical switch, under which of the following conditions should the switch be derated from its nominal current rating?

A. Conductive circuits.

B. Capacitive circuits.

C. Direct-current motor circuits.

D. All of the above

C. Direct-current motor circuits

25. How may it be determined that a reciprocating engine with a dry sump is pre-oiled sufficiently?

A. The engine oil pressure gauge will indicate normal oil pressure.

B. Oil will flow from the engine return line or indicator port.

C. When the quantity of oil specified by the manufacturer has been pumped into the engine.

D. All of the above

B. Oil will flow from the engine return line or indicator port

26. Which of the following is identified as the cambered or curved side of a propeller blade, corresponding to the upper surface of a wing airfoil section?

A. Blade back.

B. Blade chord.

C. Blade face.

D. None of the above

A. Blade back

27. When timing a magneto internally, the alignment of the timing marks indicates that the

A. breaker points are just closing.

B. magnets are in the neutral position.

C. magnets are in the E-gap position.

D. All of the above

C. magnets are in the E-gap position

28. The component(s) in a turbine engine that operate(s) at the highest temperatures is/are the

A. first stage turbine nozzle guide vanes.

B. turbine disks.

C. exhaust cone.

D. None of the above

A. first stage turbine nozzle guide vanes

29. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?

A. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.

B. Turbine, combustion, and stator.

C. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.

D. None of the above

C. Turbine, compressor, and combustion

30. Fuel is discharged for idling speeds on a float-type carburetor

A. from the idle discharge nozzle.

B. in the venturi.

C. through the idle discharge air bleed.

D. None of the above

A. from the idle discharge nozzle

31. How does a dual axial-flow compressor improve the efficiency of a turbojet engine?

A. More turbine wheels can be used.

B. Higher compression ratios can be obtained.

C. The velocity of the air entering the combustion chamber is increased.

D. All of the above

B. Higher compression ratios can be obtained

32. Which of the following fire detection systems uses heat in the normal testing of the system?

A. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.

B. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.

C. The thermocouple system and the Fenwal system.

D. All of the above

A. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system

33. The pulling out (or down) of an illuminated fire handle in a typical large jet aircraft fire protection system commonly accomplishes what events?

A. Closes all firewall shutoff valves, disconnects the generator, and discharges a fire bottle.

B. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire-extinguishing system.

C. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, closes the oxygen shutoff, disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire-extinguishing system.

D. None of the above

B. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire-extinguishing system

34. When does valve overlap occur in the operation of an aircraft reciprocating engine?

A. At the end of the exhaust stroke and the beginning of the intake stroke.

B. At the end of the power stroke and the beginning of the exhaust stroke.

C. At the end of the compression stroke and the beginning of the power stroke.

D. All of the above

A. At the end of the exhaust stroke and the beginning of the intake stroke

35. Capacitance afterfiring of a spark plug is caused by

A. the stored energy in the ignition shielded lead unloading after normal timed ignition.

B. excessive center electrode erosion.

C. constant polarity firing.

D. None of the above

A. the stored energy in the ignition shielded lead unloading after normal timed ignition

36. Which of the following is the safest fire-extinguishing agent to use from a standpoint of toxicity and corrosion hazards?

A. Dibromodifluoromethane (Halon 1202).

B. Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211).

C. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).

D. None of the above

C. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301)

37. Which of the following are advantages of dual ignition in aircraft engines?

1. Gives a more complete and quick combustion of the fuel.

2. Provides a backup magneto system.

3. Increases the output power of the engine.

4. Permits the use of lower grade fuels.

5. Increases the intensity of the spark at the spark plugs.

A. 2, 3, 4.

B. 2, 3, 5.

C. 1, 2, 3.

D. None of the above

C. 1, 2, 3

38. The purpose of an under current relay in a starter-generator system is to

A. provide a backup for the starter relay.

B. disconnect power from the starter-generator and ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached.

C. keep current flow to the starter-generator under the circuit capacity maximum.

D. All of the above

B. disconnect power from the starter-generator and ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached

39. Which statement is correct regarding a four-stroke cycle aircraft engine?

A. The intake valve closes on the compression stroke.

B. The exhaust valve opens on the exhaust stroke.

C. The intake valve closes on the intake stroke.

D. All of the above

A. The intake valve closes on the compression stroke

40. A fuel or oil fire is defined as a

A. class B fire.

B. class A fire.

C. class C fire.

D. All of the above

A. class B fire

41. The fuel-flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller and turbine, and motorless type fuel flow transmitters is a measure of

A. fuel mass-flow.

B. fuel volume-flow.

C. engine burner pressure drop.

D. None of the above

A. fuel mass-flow

42. What should be done initially if a turbine engine catches fire when starting?

A. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation with the starter.

B. Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire extinguisher into the intake.

C. Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the fire.

D. All of the above

A. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation with the starter

43. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine engine is to

A. collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise suppressor.

B. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single exhaust jet.

C. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid exhaust jet.

D. None of the above

C. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid exhaust jet

44. The primary source of oil contamination in a normally operating reciprocating engine is

A. metallic deposits as a result of engine wear.

B. atmospheric dust and pollution.

C. combustion deposits due to combustion chamber blow-by and oil migration on the cylinder walls.

D. None of the above

C. combustion deposits due to combustion chamber blow-by and oil migration on the cylinder walls

45. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating damage than compressor blades because of

A. higher centrifugal loading.

B. exposure to high temperatures.

C. high pressure and high velocity gas flow.

D. All of the above

B. exposure to high temperatures

46. Idle cutoff is accomplished on a carburetor equipped with a back-suction mixture control by

A. introducing low pressure (intake manifold) air into the float chamber.

B. turning the fuel selector valve to OFF.

C. the positive closing of a needle and seat.

D. All of the above

A. introducing low pressure (intake manifold) air into the float chamber

47. What directly regulates the speed of a turbocharger?

A. Turbine.

B. Waste gate.

C. Throttle.

D. None of the above

B. Waste gate

48. During operational check of an aircraft using hydromatic full-feathering propellers, the following observations are made:

The feather button, after being pushed, remains depressed until the feather cycle is complete, then opens.

When unfeathering, it is necessary to manually hold the button down until unfeathering is accomplished.

A. Both feather cycle and unfeather cycle are functioning properly.

B. Both feather and unfeather cycles indicate malfunctions.

C. The feather cycle is correct. The unfeather cycle indicates a malfunction.

D. None of the above

A. Both feather cycle and unfeather cycle are functioning properly

49. A rotary-vane pump is best described as a

A. positive-displacement pump.

B. variable-displacement pump.

C. boost pump.

D. None of the above

A. positive-displacement pump

50. In order to relieve excessive pump pressure in an engine's internal oil system, most engines are equipped with a

A. vent.

B. bypass valve.

C. relief valve.

D. All of the above

C. relief valve