Bacteria TopHat

Which of one of following sentences is False?

a Bacterial have the cell wall, whereas animal cells lack cell wall, thus the cell wall is one of the primary targets of antibiotics.

b Bacteria have 70S ribosomes (consist of 30 and 50S subunits), whereas ribosomes in the cytoplasm of animal cells are 80S, thus the 70S ribosome is one of the primary target of antibiotics.

c Bacterial DNA structure (supercoiled) is one of the primary targets of antibiotics.

d Bacterial flagella is distinct from animal cell flagella (e.g,, sperm), thus the primary target of antibiotics.

d Bacterial flagella is distinct from animal cell flagella (e.g,, sperm), thus the primary target of antibiotics.

Bacterial strains and species that produce thick capsules are virulent because

A Capsules block phagocytosis.

B Capsules mask cell wall antigens.

C Capsules help colonization of bacteria.

D All of the above

D All of the above

Which of following sentences are correct for peptidoglycan? Select all

a Bacteria with thick peptidoglycan in the cell-wall is more resistant than bacteria with thin or no peptidoglycan.

b Peptidoglycan fragments activate macrophages and induce inflammation, therefore, it is called as endotoxin.

c Peptidoglycan biosynthesis pathway is the effective target of multiple antibiotics, as animal cells lack this.

d By Gram staining Gram-negative bacteria are stained dark purple and Gram-positive bacteria are stained pink due to thicker peptidoglycan layer in Gram-positive bacteria than in Gram-negative bacteria.

a Bacteria with thick peptidoglycan in the cell-wall is more resistant than bacteria with thin or no peptidoglycan.

c Peptidoglycan biosynthesis pathway is the effective target of multiple antibiotics, as animal cells lack this.

Which one of the following statements is false for lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?

a LPS has no role in Gram-positive bacteria infection or disease, as Gram-positive bacteria lack LPS.

b Lipid A of lipopolysaccharide induces inflammation, therefore, it is called endotoxin.

c O-specific chain of lipopolysaccharde is antigenic and used for serodiagnosis.

d Ingested LPS is as toxic as it enters the bloodstream to healthy animals.

d Ingested LPS is as toxic as it enters the bloodstream to healthy animals.

Based on your understanding of bacterial structure, what types of antibiotics are generally effective for gram-positive bacteria, gram-negative bacteria, acid-fast bacteria, and mycoplasma? Which one of following sentences is correct?

a Penicillin inhibits peptidoglycan biosynthesis, therefore, it is effective in inhibiting mycoplasma infection.

b To inhibit acid-fast bacteria, a specific antibiotics that block mycolic acid biosynthesis is required to allow another antibiotic to penetrate the cell wall.

c Antibiotics that inhibit peptidoglycan biosynthesis is generally more effective for Gram-negative bacteria than for Gram-positive bacteria.

d Antibiotics that act on the outer membrane of bacteria are effective for inhibiting Gram-positive bacteria

b To inhibit acid-fast bacteria, a specific antibiotics that block mycolic acid biosynthesis is required to allow another antibiotic to penetrate the cell wall.

What are roles of bacterial surface appendages in infection and disease? Which one of following sentences is correct?

a Flagella allow bacteria to seek after their favorable tissue environment to colonize animals.

b Sex pili allow bacteria to tenaciously adhere to the specific tissue surface to colonize.

c Common pili are used by bacteria to transfer genes encoding virulence factors and antibiotic resistance from one bacterium to another bacterium.

d Axial filaments are modified pili found in spirochetes to rapidly drill through viscous layers and tissues in cork-screw motion to spread.

a Flagella allow bacteria to seek after their favorable tissue environment to colonize animals.

What is the roles of endospores in disease and diagnosis? Which one of following sentences is correct?

a Endospore is highly resistant in the environment and in animals, as endospores are impervious to most of disinfectants, antibiotics, and antibodies, and not killed by macrophages.

b Only specific genera of bacteria such as Bacillus and Salmonella can produce endospores.

c Endospores are dormant, and not infectious to animals or humans.

d Endospores are not useful for diagnosis, as it is not stainable.

a Endospore is highly resistant in the environment and in animals, as endospores are impervious to most of disinfectants, antibiotics, and antibodies, and not killed by macrophages.

Which one of following sentences is false for anti-phagocytic factors of bacteria?

a All pathogenic bacteria have thick capsule to inhibit phagocytosis.

b M protein in the cell wall of Streptococci blocks phagocytosis.

c Protein A in the cell wall of Staphylococci blocks Fc receptor-mediated phagocytosis.

d Capsule biosynthesis is induced by the environmental stress.

a All pathogenic bacteria have thick capsule to inhibit phagocytosis.

How pathogenic bacteria adhere to the animal cell surface to colonize and cause disease? Which one of following sentences is correct?

a Some bacteria use LPS (lipopolysaccharide) in the cell wall to adhere to the animal cell surface .

b Mycoplasma species adhere animal cell surface by the specialized attachment organelle on the cell wall.

c Some bacteria use pili to bind the specific receptor on the animal cell surface to colonize specific body sites of specific animal hosts.

d Staphylococcus uses M protein, a filamentous protein in its cell wall to adhere and colonize animal cell surface.

c Some bacteria use pili to bind the specific receptor on the animal cell surface to colonize specific body sites of specific animal hosts.

How does genotypic vs phenotypic variation of bacterial cell surface antigens occur/contribute to the disease? Select all

a Some bacteria (Borrelia burgdorferi) can change their surface antigens by recombination of antigen genes to avoid humoral immune recognition by the host; thereby set up chronic infection and disease.

b Many bacteria transcribe a different sets of surface antigens in response to environmental stimuli (e.g. temperature or Ca2+) and different hosts (e.g. animals and ticks). This is called phenotypic variation.

c Bacterial genome encodes many surface proteins (antigens) Variation of antigens facilitates persistent infection of bacteria leading to chronic disease.

d Treating bacterial antigenic variation focuses on developing broad-spectrum vaccines that cover multiple variants or designing treatments that target the underlining mechanisms of variation itself.

A, B, C, D

Which one of following sentences is FALSE? Intracellular bacteria can avoid lysosomal destruction by:

a escaping from endosomes into the cytoplasm of animal cells before lysosomal fusion with endosomes takes place.

b blocking lysosomal fusion with endosomes where bacteria can replicate.

c becoming resistant to lysosomal enzymes and acidic pH.

d destroying lysosomal enzymes.

d destroying lysosomal enzymes.

How bacterial exotoxins cause damage and disease in animals? Which one of sentences is correct?

a Neurotoxins kill nerve cells of animals.

b Enterotoxins kill intestinal epithelial cells and cause bloody diarrhea.

c Cytotoxin kill animal cells by blocking eukaryotic cell protein synthesis.

d Hemolysins lyse only red blood cells.

c Cytotoxin kill animal cells by blocking eukaryotic cell protein synthesis.

Which one of following sentences is FALSE? Bacterial exotoxins

a that act from outside of animal cells are hemolysins and leukocidins.

b that act inside of animals cells are neurotoxins, enterotoxins, and protein synthesis inhibitors.

c that act from inside of animal cells generally have A-B, bipartite structure.

d All A-B toxins kill the target cells.

d All A-B toxins kill the target cells.

Some exotoxins exert their actions only after they are internalized into the cytoplasm of the target eukaryotic cells. To bind and enter into the cells, these toxins have a unique structure made of A and B subunits or fragments. The B subunit is the device to deliver the A subunit which usually has an enzymatic activity to alter the eukaryotic cell physiology. Which one of the following exotoxins does not have this A and B bipartite structure?

a hemolysins

b diphtheria toxin

c botulism toxin

d E. coli enterotoxin LT

e None of the above.

a hemolysins

How do bacterial secreted enzymes and superantigens cause disease? Which one of following sentences is FALSE?

a Some bacteria secrete hyaluronidase enzyme to spread through connective tissues.

b Some bacteria secrete lipase enzymes to lyse animal cell membrane.

c Some bacteria secrete calmodulin-dependent adenyl cyclase which is activated by animal cell calmodulin and increases intracellular cAMP to dysregulate cell's function/physiology .

d Superantigens are powerful antigens that non-specifically activate B-cells.

d Superantigens are powerful antigens that non-specifically activate B-cells.

What are bacterial Type III and Type IV secretion system, and how they cause disease? Which one of following sentences is correct?

a Bacteria use Type III or type IV secretion system to secrete exotoxins.

b Type III secretion system has evolved from sex pilus, and Type IV secretion system has evolved from flagella to directly inoculate virulence factor/toxin into animals cells upon contact/binding .

c Type III or Type IV secretion system secretes bacterial molecules directly into animal cell cytoplasm to manipulate animal cells to colonize effectively and/or cause damage on animal cells.

d All pathogenic bacteria use Type III or Type IV secretion system to directly inoculate virulence proteins into animal cells.

c Type III or Type IV secretion system secretes bacterial molecules directly into animal cell cytoplasm to manipulate animal cells to colonize effectively and/or cause damage on animal cells.

How do antibiotics inhibit or kill bacteria? Which of one of following sentences is correct?

a Sulfonamides block bacterial peptidoglycan biosynthesis.

b Penicillin inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

c Tetracyclines inhibit bacterial protein synthesis.

d Isoniazid is highly effective to inhibit mycoplasma infection.

c Tetracyclines inhibit bacterial protein synthesis.

Select all correct answers for bacterial antibiotic resistance?

a Bacteria produce enzymes to inactivate antibiotics.

b Bacteria produce decoy receptors for the antibiotics thus antibiotics cannot target true receptors.

c Bacteria pump out antibiotics from the bacterial cell so that antibiotics cannot reach to effective concentration inside of bacteria.

d Bacteria modify the antibiotic target molecular structure so that antibiotic cannot bind the target.

a Bacteria produce enzymes to inactivate antibiotics.

b Bacteria produce decoy receptors for the antibiotics thus antibiotics cannot target true receptors.

c Bacteria pump out antibiotics from the bacterial cell so that antibiotics cannot reach to effective concentration inside of bacteria.

d Bacteria modify the antibiotic target molecular structure so that antibiotic cannot bind the target.

How antibiotic resistance and virulence factors spread among bacteria? Which one of the following sentences is FALSE?

a Pathogenic bacteria rapidly adapt to the environment by mutation and gene transfer. Thus new virulent strains may emerge and the virulence genes and antibiotic resistance may spread.

b Antibiotic-susceptible bacteria can become antibiotic-resistant, once they receive the antibiotic resistance gene, and the gene is expressed.

c Plasmids and phages encode varieties of toxins and antibiotic resistance genes, and can be horizontally transfer these genes among bacteria .

d R factor is a rheumatoid factor composed of R determinant and R transfer factor.

d R factor is a rheumatoid factor composed of R determinant and R transfer factor.

Why "R-factor" is important in infectious diseases and diagnosis? Which one of following sentences is FALSE ?

a R-factor is a kind of plasmid that is composed of R (resistance determinant) genes and RTF (resistance transfer factor) gene.

b When bacteria acquire a R-factor that encodes antibiotic resistance, the bacteria become antibiotic resistant. R-factor is useful for molecular diagnosis to identify of antibiotic resistant or virulent bacteria that carry the R-factor.

c R-factor is a kind of phage that encodes resistance factors which confer resistance to generally toxic substances to bacteria.

d R-factor can be transferred from one bacteria to another by F-mediated conjugation and convert harmless bacteria to harmful pathogenic bacteria.

c R-factor is a kind of phage that encodes resistance factors which confer resistance to generally toxic substances to bacteria.

Bacterial genes transfer is important in infectious diseases. How this occurs? Which of one of following sentences is FALSE for bacterial gene transfer?

a Most of bacterial virulence factors and antibiotic resistance genes are encoded by plasmids or phages.

b Bacterial genes encoding antibiotic resistance and virulence factors can be horizontally transferred from one bacteria to another by transformation, conjugation, or transduction.

c In transformation, the naked DNA fragment binds to the surface of competent bacteria that express the DNA receptor on the surface, penetrates into bacterial cytoplasm and recombine with recipient bacterial chromosome.

d In transduction, extrachromosomal DNA called plasmid serves as the vector of gene transfer from one bacteria to another.

d In transduction, extrachromosomal DNA called plasmid serves as the vector of gene transfer from one bacteria to another.

Why phages are important in infectious diseases? Select all correct answer(s).

a Phages are natural predators of bacteria offering a potential alternative to antibiotics by specifically targeting and killing pathogenic bacteria including multidrug-resistant (MDR) strains and bacteria in biofilms (phage therapy).

b There are two type of phages lytic (virulent) and lysogenic (temperate) phages and lytic phages are used for phage therapy.

c Some phages carry antibiotic resistance genes or toxin genes thus useful for diagnosis of pathogenic bacteria infected with this types of phages.

d Lysogenic phages can transfer host bacterial chromosomal genes that encode antibiotic resistance or virulence factors by the mechanism called conjugation.

a Phages are natural predators of bacteria offering a potential alternative to antibiotics by specifically targeting and killing pathogenic bacteria including multidrug-resistant (MDR) strains and bacteria in biofilms (phage therapy).

b There are two type of phages lytic (virulent) and lysogenic (temperate) phages and lytic phages are used for phage therapy.

c Some phages carry antibiotic resistance genes or toxin genes thus useful for diagnosis of pathogenic bacteria infected with this types of phages.

d Lysogenic phages can transfer host bacterial chromosomal genes that encode antibiotic resistance or virulence factors by the mechanism called conjugation.

Based on your knowledge, which one of the following treatments is effective for anaerobic bacterial infection?

a intravenous injection of antibiotics.

b to let oxygen in to the site of infection by removing dead tissues and pus and apply topical antibiotics.

c intravenous fluid administration.

d administration of anti-inflammatory drugs.

b to let oxygen in to the site of infection by removing dead tissues and pus and apply topical antibiotics.

How and why tentative clinical diagnose of anaerobic infection can be made based on pathologic locations in the body and lesions? Which of following sentences are Correct?

a Anaerobes cause much more tissue degradation and necrosis than aerobes because anaerobes cannot carry out oxidative phosphorylation to efficiently generate ATP.

b Anaerobes produce acid gas and/or alcohol by fermentation which cause inflammation irritation swelling and odor (sometimes putrid).

c Anaerobic bacteria are often found in deep necrotizing wounds and abscesses which have poor oxygen supply.

a Anaerobes cause much more tissue degradation and necrosis than aerobes because anaerobes cannot carry out oxidative phosphorylation to efficiently generate ATP.

b Anaerobes produce acid gas and/or alcohol by fermentation which cause inflammation irritation swelling and odor (sometimes putrid).

c Anaerobic bacteria are often found in deep necrotizing wounds and abscesses which have poor oxygen supply.

Why knowing Aerobe, Anaerobe, and Facultative anaerobe is important for practitioners? Which one of following sentences is FALSE?

a Collecting Lab Samples: Swabs for anaerobes must stay away from room air. If exposed to oxygen during transport, the bacteria die, leading to a false-negative test result.

b Identifying Infection Clues: Anaerobic bacteria often live in deep wounds, bites, or obstructed organs. They usually cause foul-smelling pus and dead tissue.

c Guiding Surgery: Surgeons know they must remove dead, oxygen-starved tissue (debridement). Removing this tissue stops anaerobes from multiplying in the body.

d Choosing Antibiotics: Some drugs only work if oxygen is present. For example, aminoglycoside antibiotics need oxygen transport to enter bacteria, so they do not work against strict anaerobes.

e All of the above

e All of the above

What are major differences between bacteria and animal cells, and which of these differences are exploited in chemotherapy? Which of one of following sentences is False?

a Bacterial have the cell wall, whereas animal cells lack cell wall, thus the cell wall is one of the primary targets of antibiotics.

b Bacteria have 70S ribosomes (consist of 30 and 50S subunits), whereas ribosomes in the cytoplasm of animal cells are 80S, thus the 70S ribosome is one of the primary target of antibiotics.

c Bacterial DNA structure (supercoiled) is one of the primary targets of antibiotics.

d Bacterial flagella is distinct from animal cell flagella (e.g,, sperm), thus the primary target of antibiotics.

d Bacterial flagella is distinct from animal cell flagella (e.g,, sperm), thus the primary target of antibiotics.

How are endotoxin and exotoxin different? Which one of following sentences is correct?

a Regardless bacterial species endotoxins have similar mode of action and potency.

b Exotoxins are either proteins or peptides secreted by bacteria, and have diverse modes of action.

c Endotoxins can be completely inactivated by boiling.

d Endotoxins are generally more potent than exotoxins.

b Exotoxins are either proteins or peptides secreted by bacteria, and have diverse modes of action.

What are conventional methods of laboratory diagnosis of bacterial diseases? Select all correct answer(s).

a Culture isolation analysis of colony and bacterial morphology.

b Analysis of oxygen and nutritional requirement and metabolic products.

c Bacterial motility and antibiotic susceptibility tests.

d Bacterial DNA sequence analysis

a Culture isolation analysis of colony and bacterial morphology.

b Analysis of oxygen and nutritional requirement and metabolic products.

c Bacterial motility and antibiotic susceptibility tests.

Which of following sentences are correct for specific bacterial diagnoses in the laboratory? Which one of following sentences is correct?

a Serologic (antibody) tests provide definitive answer whether animals are currently infected with the suspected pathogen.

b Bacterial antigen analysis is used for diagnosis of E. coli strains, as there are many strains which differ in their pathogenicity.

c PCR test of blood samples is useful for Lyme disease diagnosis.

d "Pathognomonic lesions" allow you to diagnose bacterial infection at the early stage of infection without laboratory test.

b Bacterial antigen analysis is used for diagnosis of E. coli strains, as there are many strains which differ in their pathogenicity.

Which of following sentences are correct for simple, quick, cost-effective bacterial diagnostic methods to distinguish closely related bacterial infection?

a E. coli and Salmonella are facultative anaerobic Gram-negative rods causing diarrhea, and can be easily distinguished by the lactose test.

b Staphylococci and Streptococci are facultative anaerobic Gram-positive cocci that cause respiratory system infection. They can be easily distinguished by the lactose test.

c Oxidase reaction test is used to distinguish facultative anaerobic Gram-positive bacteria belong to the family Pasteurellaceae and Enterobacteriaceae.

d Coagulase test is useful to identify virulent strains of Streptococci.

a E. coli and Salmonella are facultative anaerobic Gram-negative rods causing diarrhea, and can be easily distinguished by the lactose test.

How obligatory intracellular bacteria (Rickettsia and Chlamydia) infection is diagnosed in the laboratory?

a agar plate culture isolation of bacteria.

b PCR, serologic tests, animal's cell culture isolation, or staining of tissue or blood smears.

c Gram staining of infected cells.

d Biochemical assays.

b PCR, serologic tests, animal's cell culture isolation, or staining of tissue or blood smears.

Which use of following sterilization and disinfection methods is correct?

a Autoclave, filtration, or ethylene oxide is used to sterilize heat-sensitive objects.

b Formaldehyde or glutaraldehyde is used to treat animals before surgery.

c Pasteurization is used for beverages and dairy products to kill pathogenic bacteria.

d Ultraviolet light can destroy endospores.

c Pasteurization is used for beverages and dairy products to kill pathogenic bacteria.

What are criteria of the optimal vaccine?

a long-lasting

b lack of adverse reaction.

c solid protection.

d quickly induces protective immunity.

a long-lasting

b lack of adverse reaction.

c solid protection.

d quickly induces protective immunity.

Which of following sentences are correct for different types of Vaccines?

a Toxid vaccine can prevent bacterial infection.

b Bacterins are generally safe, and primarily induce cell-mediated immune response.

c Live attenuated vaccines induce only humoral immune response, and may not be safe for immuno-compromised animals.

d When antigenic variations, and numerous strains exist, it is difficult to make a globally effective vaccine.

d When antigenic variations, and numerous strains exist, it is difficult to make a globally effective vaccine.

What are clinical features of Anthrax?

A Acute watery diarrhea.

B Chronic arthritis or neurological signs.

C Clinical manifestations depend on the route of exposure to Bacillus anthracis, presenting primarily as inhalation (flu-like signs turning into severe respiratory distress), gastrointestinal (abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea), cutaneous (skin sore with a black center), or injection-site infections.

D Flaccid muscle paralysis.

C Clinical manifestations depend on the route of exposure to Bacillus anthracis, presenting primarily as inhalation (flu-like signs turning into severe respiratory distress), gastrointestinal (abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea), cutaneous (skin sore with a black center), or injection-site infections.

How anthrax is diagnosed?

A By antibody test of the serum samples.

B By staining, culture, or PCR of respiratory secretion, blood, tissue biopsy, vomitus, or stool samples.

C By the bacterial motility tests

D By immunostaining of the biopsied tissue samples.

B By staining, culture, or PCR of respiratory secretion, blood, tissue biopsy, vomitus, or stool samples.

How Bacillus anthracis causes disease? Which one of the following sentences is FALSE?

a B. anthracis has thick capsule that blocks phagocytosis, and rapidly multiply in the blood.

b B. anthracis secretes Anthrax toxin (A-B exotoxin).

c B. anthracis is gram-positive and produces endospore.

d B. anthracis produces potent endotoxin.

d B. anthracis produces potent endotoxin.

What are the clinical signs of botulism and tetanus?

Select All That Apply

A Clinicals signs of tetanus is painful muscle stiffness and severe spasms.

B Clinical signs of botulism is dysphasia, dysphonia, flaccid paralysis.

C Clinical signs of tetanus chronic diarrhea.

D Clinical signs of botulism is chronic respiratory faiture.

A Clinicals signs of tetanus is painful muscle stiffness and severe spasms.

B Clinical signs of botulism is dysphasia, dysphonia, flaccid paralysis.

How botulism and tetanus is diagnosed?

A Primarily based on clinical sings and history.

B Antibody test of serum samples.

C Bacterial culture isolation from blood samples.

A Primarily based on clinical sings and history.

How botulism toxin and tetanus toxin cause different kinds of paralysis and may kill animals? Which one of following sentences is CORRECT?

a Botulism toxin blocks acetylcholine release at neuromuscular junction, but not tetanus toxin.

b Botulism toxin enters neurons and acts inside neurons, but tetanus toxin does not enter neurons.

c Tetanus toxin and botulism toxin lyse different types of neurons.

d Botulism toxin is a peptidase that cleaves synaptic proteins, but tetanus toxin is not.

a Botulism toxin blocks acetylcholine release at neuromuscular junction, but not tetanus toxin.

Why is ingesting botulism toxin more dangerous than ingesting tetanus toxin?

a Botulism toxin is readily absorbed in the intestine but not tetanus toxin.

b Tetanus toxin is easily digested by the intestinal enzymes but not botulism toxin.

c Tetanus toxin is inactivated in the food or saliva but not botulism toxin.

a Botulism toxin is readily absorbed in the intestine but not tetanus toxin.

b Tetanus toxin is easily digested by the intestinal enzymes but not botulism toxin.

What are the clinical signs and diagnosis of tissue invading Clostridium species infection. Select All That Apply

A Severe pain, swelling, fluid and gas accumulation, foul odor and black discoloration

B Acute paralysis.

C Diagnosis is mainly by physical inspection and gross pathology.

D Anaerobic culture, microscopic examination, or PCR of affected tissue samples depending Clostridium species .

A, C, D

How the tissue-invading Clostridium species such as C. perfringens cause severe damage and disease in animals?

a secretes a potent neurotoxin that blocks neurotransmitter release.

b secretes A-B type toxins that act inside animal cells to dysregulate cell's function.

c secretes enzymes (for example, lipase and protease) to lyse animal cells and cause tissue necrosis.

d secretes leukocidin that produces pus-forming lesions.

c secretes enzymes (for example, lipase and protease) to lyse animal cells and cause tissue necrosis.

Where Clostridium species are found in the environment and infect animals? Which one of following sentences is CORRECT? Clostridium species:

a are found in soils and intestines (feces).

b infect macrophages.

c infect nerve cells.

d grow well in the blood.

a are found in soils and intestines (feces).

which sentences are correct for clinical signs of Staphylococcus and Streptococcus infections?

Select All That Apply

A Staphylococcus causes pus-forming skin and soft tissue infection

B Strep infections frequently target the throat and genital system and present with distinct spreading skin patterns.

C Staphylococcus causes chronic abortion

D Streptococcus causes acute nephritis

A Staphylococcus causes pus-forming skin and soft tissue infection

B Strep infections frequently target the throat and genital system and present with distinct spreading skin patterns.

What kinds of diseases Staphylococci and Streptococci cause in animals?

a Both Staphylococci and Streptococci cause bovine mastitis.

b Staphylococcus aureus infection causes Greasy pig disease which is a skin manifestation of the pathognomonic lesion.

c Staphylococcus infection of horses causes Strangles, which is an upper respiratory system manifestation of pathognomonic lesion.

d Streptococcus equi subspecies zooepidemicus causes Strangles.

a Both Staphylococci and Streptococci cause bovine mastitis.

Which one of following sentences is CORRECT for superantigens of Staphylococci?

a Hemolysins ( alpha , beta, gamma) are superantigens.

b Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 is a superantigen which nonspecifically activate T-cells, inducing massive proinflammatory cytokine storm to cause multi-organ failure.

c Staphylococcal enterotoxins are super antigens which can be easily inactivated by cooking heat temperature.

d Staphylococcal superantigens are associated with wound infection.

b Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 is a superantigen which nonspecifically activate T-cells, inducing massive proinflammatory cytokine storm to cause multi-organ failure.

Which one of following descriptions is CORRECT? Rheumatic fever:

a is a non-supprative sequela of Staphylococcus infection.

b is an immune-mediated lysis of own-tissues after recovery from Streptococcal infection.

c is the joint cavity infection with Streptococcus.

d is a pus-forming arthritis caused by infection with Streptococci .

b is an immune-mediated lysis of own-tissues after recovery from Streptococcal infection.

What are major characteristics of Staphylococci and Streptococci used for diagnosis?

a Gram-positive anaerobic rod/ endospore formation/ neurotoxin secretion

b Gram-positive facultative anaerobic cocci/ induce pus/abscess formation/secrete a spreading factor

c Gram-negative facultative anaerobic cocci/ cause hemolysis/antibiotic resistance

d Gram-positive obligatory aerobic cocci/blocks phagocytosis/secrete hemolysins

b Gram-positive facultative anaerobic cocci/ induce pus/abscess formation/secrete a spreading factor

Which one of the following characteristics is FALSE for Streptococcus sp. infection?

a M-protein confers adherence to the eukaryotic cell surface.

b Lancefield "C" carbohydrate antigen is used for diagnosis, because it is a virulence factor.

c Streptolysin O is an oxygen-labile hemolysin which binds cholesterol to cause eukaryotic cell lysis.

d Hyaluronidase is secreted to allow the bacteria to spread.

b Lancefield "C" carbohydrate antigen is used for diagnosis, because it is a virulence factor.

Which one of following combinations is CORRECT? Virulence factors of Staphylococci are :

a polysaccharide capsule/ Protein A/ leukocidins

b M protein/spreading factor/super antigen

c hyaluronidase/streptolysin O/M protein

d antigenic variations/pili

a polysaccharide capsule/ Protein A/ leukocidins

Staphylococci and Streptococci spread through tissues:

a By using flagella

b By using animal cell actin

c By secreting hyaluronidase

d By using hemolysins to escape DNA net

c By secreting hyaluronidase

Which one of following sentences is CORRECT for Mycobacterium species?

a They produce pus-forming lesions.

b Persistent cough, extreme fatigue, unexplained weight loss, low-grade fevers.

c Acute difficulty of breathing.

d Chronic arthritis.

b Persistent cough, extreme fatigue, unexplained weight loss, low-grade fevers.

Which one of following sentences is FALSE? Mycobacterium avium, subspecies paratuberculosis:

a is transmitted via feco-oral route.

b causes the proliferative enteritis (pathognomonic lesion) in ruminants.

c causes tubercle formation and caseation necrosis of the intestinal wall.

d chronic diarrhea, malnutrition

c causes tubercle formation and caseation necrosis of the intestinal wall.

Select a single best answer. A practical field test for mycobacterial infection is:

a Immunofluorescent antibody test.

b Culture isolation of bacteria from the fecal specimen.

c Delayed hypersensitivity (Tuberculin) skin test.

d Milk ring test.

c Delayed hypersensitivity (Tuberculin) skin test.

Which one of following combinations is CORRECT for Virulence factors of Mycobacterium species?

a Intracellular parasitism/ pili

b Intracellular parasitism/endotoxin

c Mycolic acid/neurotoxin/hemolysin

d Mycolic acid/intracellular parasitism

d Mycolic acid/intracellular parasitism

What are common clinical signs of spirochete infection?

A Acute, disease, then progress to chronic infection.

B acute necrotizing infection.

C pus-producing skin lesions

D acute pneumonia

A Acute, disease, then progress to chronic infection.

Which one of following sentences are False? What is commonly used for laboratory diagnosis of spirochetes infection?

a antibody test (Borrelia, Leptospira)

b culture isolation

c Gram staining of blood samples.

d PCR test fecal (Brachyspira) or blood/urine (Leptospira) samples

b culture isolation

c Gram staining of blood samples.

How Borrelia burgdorferi causes chronic Lyme disease?Which one of following sentences is CORRECT?

a by inducing a strong cell-mediated immune response.

b by inducing surface antigen variations.

c by becoming intracellular.

d by producing capsule to block phagocytosis.

b by inducing surface antigen variations.

Each spirochete species is transmitted by a specific route. Which one of following sentences is CORRECT?

a Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted by infected tick bites.

b Leptospira species are transmitted by fecal-oral route.

c Brachyspira hyodysenteriae is transmitted by bacteria shed via urine into the environment.

d None of the above

a Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted by infected tick bites.

Which one of following bacteria is not known to cause zoonosis?

a Leptospira interrogans

b Borrelia burgdorferi

c Brachyspira (Treponema) hyodysenteriae

c Brachyspira (Treponema) hyodysenteriae

What are distinct nature of diseases caused by Yersinia pestis? Select All That Apply

A High fever, chills, cough, and breathing difficulty and may expel bloody sputum.

B Swollen and very tender lymph gland, accompanied by pain.

C Watery diarrhea

D Arthritis

A High fever, chills, cough, and breathing difficulty and may expel bloody sputum.

B Swollen and very tender lymph gland, accompanied by pain.

Which one of following sentences are CORRECT for Yersinia pestis?

a Small Gram-negative coccobacilli, bipolar stained in the blood smear, lymph node aspirates, sputum

b Immunofluorescence labeling with anti-Fraction 1, capsule antigen.

c PCR

d Serum antibody analysis

a Small Gram-negative coccobacilli, bipolar stained in the blood smear, lymph node aspirates, sputum

b Immunofluorescence labeling with anti-Fraction 1, capsule antigen.

c PCR

Which one of following combinations is CORRECT? Virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are:

a capsule, endotoxin, rapid growth in the blood, type III secretion system, intracellular survival.

b pili, exotoxin, endospore.

c antigenic variation, rapid motility, mycolic acid.

d hemolysin, hyaluronidase, endospore

a capsule, endotoxin, rapid growth in the blood, type III secretion system, intracellular survival.

What is natural reservoir of Yersinia pestis, and how it is transmitted between animals? Which one of following sentences is Correct?

a Natural reservoir of Yersinia pestis is wild rodents, and transmitted among them by flea bite and aerosol.

b Natural reservoir of Yersinia pestis is contaminated soil and transmitted by ingestion.

c Natural reservoir of Yersinia pestis is contaminated water and transmitted by contact.

d Yersinia pestis is transmitted by ticks.

a Natural reservoir of Yersinia pestis is wild rodents, and transmitted among them by flea bite and aerosol.

Which bacteria you learned are zoonotic? Select All That Apply

A Yersinia pestis

B Borrelia burgdorferi

C Mycobacterium bovis

D Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

ABCD

Major characteristics of the disease caused by E. coli and Salmonella

A Enterotoxigenic strain of E. coli causes sever watery diarrhea and dehydration.

B Enterohaemorrhagic strain of E. coli causes bloody diarrhea, and kidney damage.

C Salmonella causes painful inflammatory diarrhea, may cause abortion.

D Antibiotic treatment may activate latent salmonellosis.

ABCD

How E. coli and salmonella infection is diagnosed?

A By culture isolation from fecal samples followed by serovar antigen analysis.

B By detection of specific serum antibodies in the blood from animals.

C By detection of delayed hypersensitivity in the skin of animals.

D By Gram staining of fecal samples from animals

A By culture isolation from fecal samples followed by serovar antigen analysis.

How E. coli and Salmonella cause diarrhea? Which one of following sentences is FALSE?

a Enterotoxins dysregulate intestinal epithelial cell physiology and induce watery diarrhea.

b Enterohaemorrhagic strain of E. coli invades intestinal tissues and induces inflammatory diarrhea.

c Salmonella invades intestinal tissues and induces inflammatory diarrhea.

d Salmonella colonizes intestinal wall using pili.

d Salmonella colonizes intestinal wall using pili.

What are reservoirs of E. coli and Salmonella, and their zoonotic potential?

a All Salmonella serobars cause zoonosis (human infection).

b All E. coli strains cause zoonosis.

c A fraction of infected animals become asymptomatic carrier of Salmonella species.

d E. coli and Salmonella are transmitted by infected tick bite.

c A fraction of infected animals become asymptomatic carrier of Salmonella species.

What are the major characteristics of Pseudomonas and Burkholderia infection?

A Severe watery diarrhea

B Pus-forming respiratory and/or skin infection which may systemically spread

C Abortion

D Nephritis

B Pus-forming respiratory and/or skin infection which may systemically spread

How Pseudomonas and Burkholderia infections are diagnosed? Select all that apply

A Culture isolation isolation from clinical specimens.

B Serum antibody test.

C Histopathology of affected tissues.

D Mallein test: An allergic hypersensitivity diagnostic test of Glanders

A Culture isolation isolation from clinical specimens.

D Mallein test: An allergic hypersensitivity diagnostic test of Glanders

Which one of following sentences is correct? Pseudomonas infection occurs:

a when innate defense mechanisms are compromised.

b via ingestion or inhalation of endospores in the soil.

c mostly from contaminated feces (via fecal-oral route).

d by the bite of infected ticks.

a when innate defense mechanisms are compromised.

What are reservoirs of Pseudomonas and Burkholderia? Which one of following sentences is FALSE?

a Pseudomonas aeruginosa is found in the soil and water.

b Burkholderia mallei is the parasite of the horse.

c Burkholderia pseudomallei is the parasite of dogs.

d Burkholdelia pseudomallei is found in the soil and water

c Burkholderia pseudomallei is the parasite of dogs.

What are clinical signs of Brucella abortus infection? Select All That Apply

A Chronic abortion, uterine discharge in cattle, bison, elk

B Chronic bovine orchitis

C Human undulant fever

D Chronic reproductive failure in cats and dogs(rare)

ABCD

How brucellosis is diagnosed? Select All That Apply

A By serum antibody test

B By milk antibody test

C By histopathology of clinical specimens

D By analysis of skin hypersensitivity reaction to Brucella antigens

A By serum antibody test

B By milk antibody test

Which one of following sentences is CORRECT? Brucella species cause abortion and/or sterility:

a Due to systemic infection leading to infection of reproductive organs and fetus.

b Due to localized infection and the blackened necrosis of mucous epithelium of the venereal organs.

c Due to infection of the pituitary gland that produces gonadotropins.

d Due to severe abscess formation in the reproductive organs.

a Due to systemic infection leading to infection of reproductive organs and fetus.

Select a single best answer from following combinations. Virulence factors of Brucella species are:

a Endotoxin, hemolysin, superantigen

b Endotoxin, intracellular parasitism, type IV secretion system

c Neurotoxin, pili, type III secretion system

d Capsule, leukocidin, endotoxin

b Endotoxin, intracellular parasitism, type IV secretion system

Which one of following combinations is composed of all facultative intracellular bacteria?

a Rickettsia, Mycobacterium, Brucella

b Brucella, Pseudomonas, Salmonella

c Mycoplasma, Rickettsia, Chlamydia

d Mycobacterium, Brucella, Salmonella, Yersinia

d Mycobacterium, Brucella, Salmonella, Yersinia

What are clinical signs of Fusobacterium infection? Select All That Apply

A Foot rot

B Rumen-liver abscess

C Bovine diphtheria

D Gas gangrene

A Foot rot

B Rumen-liver abscess

C Bovine diphtheria

Fusobacterium infection is diagnosed by

A Anaerobiotic blood or deep tissue culture

B PCR

C Gram staining, Gram-negative rods with tapered ends

D Serum antibody test

A Anaerobiotic blood or deep tissue culture

B PCR

C Gram staining, Gram-negative rods with tapered ends

Why do not all animals come down with necrobacillosis, given the ubiquitous occurrence of bacteria?

a Because Fusobacterium infection requires anaerobic tissue environment.

b Because Fusobacterium needs synergistic infection with Staphylococci to establish infection.

c Because Fusobacterium is obligatory intracellular bacterium.

d None of the above.

a Because Fusobacterium infection requires anaerobic tissue environment.

How do anaerobic bacteria cause disease?

a Bovine diphtheria is caused by synergistic infection of Fusobacterium necrophorum and Bacteroides species.

b For anaerobic bacterial infection, removal of infected tissues, disinfection, and topical or intramuscular antibiotic are typical treatment.

c Bovine foot rot is caused by synergistic infection of Fusobacterium necrophorum and Histophilus somni.

d Bovine ruminitis-liver abscess complex is caused by synergistic infection of Fusobacterium necrophorum and Bacteroides species.

b For anaerobic bacterial infection, removal of infected tissues, disinfection, and topical or intramuscular antibiotic are typical treatment.

Which one of following combinations is composed of all obligatory anaerobic bacteria?

a Rickettsia, Salmonella, Fusobacterium

b Fusobacterium, Clostridium, Bacteroides

c Mycobacterium, Clostridium, E. coli

d Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Bacillus

b Fusobacterium, Clostridium, Bacteroides

Select a single best answer. What kind of diseases Mycoplasma spp. cause?

a colonize upper airway cell surface or joint, and cause chronic pneumonia/arthritis (inflammation).

b infect alveolar macrophages in the lung and produce granuloma.

c colonize upper airways and lymph nodes, and cause pus-filled lesions.

d infect macrophages and cause endotoxic shock.

a colonize upper airway cell surface or joint, and cause chronic pneumonia/arthritis (inflammation).

Which one of the following sentences is FALSE for Mycoplasma?

a Mycoplasma spp. generally require cholesterol for growth.

b Not all Mycoplasma spp. are obligate aerobes.

c Mycoplasma spp. are smallest bacteria and lack cell-wall, so Gram stain is not useful for diagnosis.

d Mycoplasma spp. are highly motile by flagella.

d Mycoplasma spp. are highly motile by flagella.

Select a single best answer. Mycoplasma major virulence factor is:

a adherence by attachment organelles, and swap surface antigens with animal cells, and cause inflammation.

b potent endotoxins

c thick capsule that blocks phagocytosis

d endospore

a adherence by attachment organelles, and swap surface antigens with animal cells, and cause inflammation.

Select a single best answer. Rickettsia and Chlamydia:

a are facultative intracellular bacteria.

b produce potent exotoxins that destroy animal cells.

c produce pus-filled lesions.

d live within animal cells.

d live within animal cells.

Which one of following combinations of diseases are caused by members of the order Rickettsiales?

a Pinkeye, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Potomac horse fever

b Tropical canine pancytopenia, Heartwater, Potomac horse fever

c Salmon poisoning disease, Q fever, psittacosis

d Feline pneumonitis, enzootic abortion of ewes, cat scratch disease

b Tropical canine pancytopenia, Heartwater, Potomac horse fever

What are major characteristics of Rickettsia spp.?

Select a single best answer. Rickettsia:

a infects endothelial cells and blood cells.

b infects mucous epithelial cells.

c is transmitted by fecal-oral route.

d is sexually transmitted.

a infects endothelial cells and blood cells.

How you can distinguish Chlamydia infection from Rickettsia infection? Which one of following sentences are FALSE?

a Unlike Rickettsia spp., Chlamydia spp. infect mucous epithelial cells lining various tissues.

b Unlike Rickettsia spp., Chlamydia spp. don't require invertebrate vectors for transmission between animals.

c Unlike Rickettsia spp., none of Chlamydia spp. cause zoonosis.

d Unlike Rickettsia spp., Chlamydia spp. are highly contagious.

c Unlike Rickettsia spp., none of Chlamydia spp. cause zoonosis.

How you diagnose rickettsial infection? Neorickettsia sp. infection is diagnosed by:

a blood agar plate isolation of bacteria from the blood or feces.

b examining their fermentation products.

c Gram-staining of the blood smear.

d examining the presence of Neorickettsia-specific antibodies or DNA in the blood.

d examining the presence of Neorickettsia-specific antibodies or DNA in the blood.

What is chlamydial intracellular life cycle? Select a single best answer. Elementary bodies of Chlamydia:

a are larger than reticular bodies.

b rapidly replicate.

c are not infectious.

d are mechanically and chemically resistant, and highly infectious.

d are mechanically and chemically resistant, and highly infectious.

How vector-borne intracellular bacteria are transmitted?

Which of the following sentences are FALSE.

a Neorickettsia species are transmitted to animals by ingestion of infected trematodes, and cause systemic infection.

b Anaplasma species and Ehrlichia species are transmitted to animals by the infected tick bite, and cause systemic illness by infecting blood cells and/or endothelial cells.

c Coxiella burnetii is transmitted by ingestion, inhalation, and by the infected tick bite, and cause systemic infection.

d Cat scratch disease is a local human skin infection with any skin bacterial flora by cat scratch

d Cat scratch disease is a local human skin infection with any skin bacterial flora by cat scratch

Select a single best answer. Which one of following combinations contain only bacteria that are transmitted by the bite of infected ticks?

a Borrelia burgdorferi/Rickettsia rickettsii/Ehrlichia canis

b Mycoplasma species/ Bacillus/ E. coli

c Yersinia pestis/Borrelia burgdorferi/ Rickettsia rickettsii

d Chlamydia species/ Mycoplasma species/ Salmonella

a Borrelia burgdorferi/Rickettsia rickettsii/Ehrlichia canis