PACOP GREEN (Biochemistry)

1. The inhibition in noncompetitive reaction a. competes with the active site of the enzyme b. binds simultaneously with substrate other than the active site c. increases the rate of reaction d. both b and c

b. binds simultaneously with substrate other than the active site

2. The order and sequence of amino acid in a polypeptide determines what protein structure a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary

a. primary

3. Amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the organism are called a. non essential amino acids b. essential amino acids c. standard amino acids d. alpha amino acids

b. essential amino acids

4. Which hormones regulates the level of blood sodium? a. aldosterone b. sterol c. corticosteroid d. cortisone

a. aldosterone

5. It is a precursor of vit. A a. B-carotene b. retinol c. retinal d. opium

a. B-carotene

6. Which of the following is a precursor of vitamin D? a. prostaglandin b. linoleic acid c. cholesterol d. aldosterone

c. cholesterol

7. Which of these class of enzymes introduces double-bond by the removal of hydrogen a. dehydronegase b. dehydrolase c. decarboxylase d. lipase

a. dehydronegase

8. The ionic property of amino acid is exhibited by its a. zwitterions form b. NH2 group c. COO group d. positively charged groups

a. zwitterions form

9. All of the following are simple proteins except: a. glutelins b. globulins c. albumins d. glycoproteins

d. glycoproteins

10. The simplest monosaccharide is a. erythrose b. starch c. glyceraldehydes d. arabinose

c. glyceraldehydes

11. Denaturation of protein is a result of a. cleavage of the peptide bond b. formation of H-bond c. breaking of H-bond d. none of these

c. breaking of H-bond

12. Competitive inhibition is a _____ reaction. a. reversible b. irreversible c. pH temperature dependent d. none of these

a. reversible

13. In the Seliwanoff's test, the reaction of resorcinol and acid on the sugar forms a. hydroxymethyl furfural b. pyranose c. hydrazine d. purine

a. hydroxymethyl furfural

14. High concentration of neutral salts causes the precipitation of proteins. This is called a. salting out b. salting in c. coagulation d. both b & c

a. salting out

15. It is the type of enzyme inhibition reaction whereby the inhibition competes with the substrate active site. a. competitive inhibition b. noncompetitive c. reversible inhibition d. incomplete inhibition

a. competitive inhibition

16. The following are waxes except: a. beeswax b. sperm oil c. bile acids d. lanolin

c. bile acids

17. The inactive form of enzymes are called a. zymogens b. apoenzymes c. cofactor d. both B & C

a. zymogens

18. Which of the following amino acids has no alpha amino group? a. proline b. hydroxyproline c. glycine d. both a and b

d. both a and b

19. An enzyme is a substance which a. convert heat to energy b. act as a catalyst c. change chemically in reaction d. is not specific in reaction

b. act as a catalyst

20. Milk curdling enzyme present in gastric juice of infants: a. pepsin b. rennin c. trypsin d. maltase

b. rennin

21. Carbohydrates are a. polyhydroxyaldehydes / polyhydroxyketones b. polyhydroxy acids c. hemiacetals d. polymers of amino acids

a. polyhydroxyaldehydes / polyhydroxyketones

22. Insulin is usually classified as: a. protein b. enzyme c. hormone d. carbohydrates

c. hormone

23. What amount of glucose is present in the human blood? a. 60 to 90 mg in 100 ml blood b. 5 to 6 g in 100 ml blood c. 2% of the total human body weight d. none of these

a. 60 to 90 mg in 100 ml blood

24. It is the organelle which serves as the site of the electron transport chain. a. mitochondria b. ribosome c. nucleus d. lysosome

a. mitochondria

25. The end product of the hydrolysis of glycogen is: a. galactose b. fructose c. glucose d. arabinose

c. glucose

26. Iodine test is a reaction which may be used to identify carbohydrates. The reaction is due to a. presence of the free aldehyde group b. presence of alcohol group c. presence of amylose portion d. presence of glucose

c. presence of amylose portion

27. Benedict's reagent yield positive result to: a. monosaccharide only b. reducing sugars c. sucrose d. polysaccharides

b. reducing sugars

28. Hypertonic solutions will cause the cell to: a. swell b. shrink c. burst d. undergo hemolysis

b. shrink

29. Rancidity of fats maybe due to: a. oxidation b. hydrogenation c. saponification d. condensation

a. oxidation

30. The deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes mellitus: a. progesterone b. testosterone c. insulin d. glucagons

c. insulin

31. The active proteolytic enzyme in gastric juice is: a. pepsin b. trypsin c. maltase d. catalase

a. pepsin

32. The site of oxidation reaction in electron transport chain is in the a. nucleus b. mitochondrion c. ribosome d. golgi bodies

b. mitochondrion

33. Protein digestion starts in the a. mouth b. stomach c. intestine d. pancreas

b. stomach

34. The conversion of an amino acid to sugar is: a. gluconeogenesis b. glycolysis c. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysis

a. gluconeogenesis

35. Which of the following is not an amino acid? a. leucine b. choline c. valine d. glycine

b. choline

36. When trypsinogen is converted into trypsin, the enzyme is called: a. pepsin b. zymogen c. enterokinase d. amylase

c. enterokinase

37. The protein part of the enzyme molecule is the: a. apoenzyme b. coenzyme c. cofactor d. holoenzyme

a. apoenzyme

38. Optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the body: a. 40°C b. 60°C c. 37°C d. 10°C

c. 37°C

39. Glucose is stored in the liver, as: a. galactose b. glycogen c. lactose d. fructose

b. glycogen

40. The enzyme confirmation adapts to the incoming substrate in a. Lock and Key theory b. glycogenesis c. competitive inhibition d. glycogenolysis

b. glycogenesis

41. The process of converting glucose into glycogen is called a. gluconeogenesis b. glycogenesis c. glycolysis d. glycogenolysis

b. glycogenesis

42. All are pyrimidine bases except: a. guanine b. cytosine c. uracil d. thymine

a. guanine

43. Glucose, amino acid and fatty acid enter the citric acid cycle by their conversion into: a. pyruvate b. acetyl CoA c. acetoacetyl CoA d. palmitic acid

b. acetyl CoA

44. A hormone which stimulates glycogenesis: a. insulin b. glucagons c. epinephrine d. vasopressin

a. insulin

45. These are chemicals that are extracted from organism such as bacteria and can inhibit growth or destroy other microorganisms: a. antibiotic b. enzyme c. hormone d. vitamins

a. antibiotic

46. The gland or tissue that regulates the blood glucose level. a. parathyroid b. thyroid c. pancreas d. adrenal

c. pancreas

47. Which vitamin is formed in the body by exposure to ultraviolet Irradiation or sunlight a. vit. A b. vit. B c. vit. C d. vit. D

d. vit. D

48. Excess vit. A & D is stored in the body, but excess vit. C & D is readily excreted. What property shows this? a. vit C & D are water soluble b. vit. A & D are fat soluble c. both a & b d. none of these

c. both a & b

49. It is the entire genetic make up of an organism. a. gene b. anticodon c. codon d. mutation

a. gene

50. The vitamin which is used in the prevention of degenerative changes in the central nervous system. a. vit. A b. vit. B complex c. vit. C d. vit. D

b. vit. B complex

51. It is a model which best explains the enzyme-substrate action a. lock & key b. molecular c. VSEPR d. Kreb

a. lock & key

52. The activation of pepsinogen requires: a. pepsin b. NaOH c. enterokinase d. HCL

d. HCL

53. DNA is primarily found in the a. cytosol b. nucleus/mitochondria c. cell wall d. endoplasmic reticulum

b. nucleus/mitochondria

54. It is the enzyme which hydrolyzed starch to dextrin and maltose a. catalase b. amylase c. pepsin d. lactase

b. amylase

55. A synthetic DNA is called a. replicated DNA b. plasmid c. gene d. recombinant DNA

d. recombinant DNA

56. Hydrolysis of ATP is an a. energy requiring reaction b. energy producing reaction c. no energy is involved d. energy is absorbed

b. energy producing reaction

57. Which of the following characteristic of lipid? a. zwitterions b. amphiphilic c. hydrophobic d. hydrophilic

c. hydrophobic

58. It is a condition that results when sugar level is below normal a. hypoglycemia b. hyperglycemia c. ketonuria d. uremia

a. hypoglycemia

59. An example of globular protein a. albumin b. collagen c. fibrin d. silk

a. albumin

60. Complimentary base pairs in the DNA double helix are bonded by a. H-bond b. ester bond c. vander waals d. dipole dipole

a. H-bond

61. Which nitrogen base is not found in DNA? a. thymine b. cytosine c. uracil d. guanine

c. uracil

62. An organic cofactor in an enzyme a. vitamins b. coenzymes c. a & b d. none of these

c. a & b

63. At what stage of glucose oxidation is most of the energy produced? a. glycolysis b. aerobic stage c. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysis

b. aerobic stage

64. The best known building blocks of RNA and DNA are a. purines b. pyrimidines c. fatty acids d. a and b

d. a and b

65. It is responsible for the storage and transmission of genetic information. a. adenine b. RNA c. DNA d. nucleic acid

c. DNA

66. Build up of urea in the kidney is called a. ketonuria b. glycemia c. uremia d. all of these

c. uremia

67. The transfer of genetic information from DNA by the formation of mRNA a. transcription b. translation c. transamination d. replication

a. transcription

68. What is the end product of electron transport chain? a. oxygen b. hydrogen c. carbon dioxide d. water

d. water

69. The energy producing reaction a. metabolic b. catabolic c. anabolic d. all of these

b. catabolic

70. It is the molecule that directs the activity of the cells a. DNA b. RNA c. nucleoproteins d. hormones

d. hormones

71. The sugar involved in DNA a. ribose b. pentose c. deoxyribose d. xylose

c. deoxyribose

72. The common metabolic pathway a. glycolysis b. beta oxidation c. Kreb's cycle d. glucogenesis

c. Kreb's cycle

73. Rosenheim's test is used to detect the presence of: a. ethanolamine b. choline c. cholesterol d. glycone moiety

b. choline

74. Detects the presence of alpha amino acids: a. Biuret b. Molisch c. Ninhydrin d. Hopkins-cole

c. Ninhydrin

75. The process of producing fats from acetyl co-A is called a. glycolysis b. lipogenesis c. glycogenolysis d. glucogenesis

b. lipogenesis

76. The ff. test reagents to detect the presence of amino acids, except: a. Grignard's b. Xanthoproteic c. Millon-Nasse d. Sakaguchi

a. Grignard's

77. The condition that lowers the pH of the blood due to starvation is called a. acidosis b. alkalosis c. hyperglycemia d. glycosuria

a. acidosis

78. The substance responsible for the emulsion of fats is a. HCI b. bile acids c. pepsin d. trypsin

b. bile acids

79. Hubl's solution is used to ascertain degree of: a. saturation b. unsaturation c. peroxidation d. acidity

b. unsaturation

80. IUPAC name of acrolein a. pentenal b. propenal c. hexanal d. acetone

b. propenal

81. The positive indication for the presence of glycerol in acrolein test: a. yellow colored solution b. black markings on filter paper c. silver mirror formed in the test tube d. play of colors, from blue to shades of red

b. black markings on filter paper

82. Cerebrosides are positive in the ff. tests, except: a. Molisch b. Biuret c. Lassaigne's d. none of the above

b. Biuret

83. Osmic test is used to detect the presence of _____ in lipids: a. metals b. prostate groups c. unsaturated groups d. glycerol

b. prostate groups

84. The most sensitive chemical test to detect the presence of glycerol in acrolein test: a. Liebermann-Burchard b. Formaldehyde-sulfuric acid c. Salkowski reaction d. Colorimetric spectrophotometry

a. Liebermann-Burchard

85. The ff. are phospholipids, except: a. plasmalogen b. lecithin c. cephalin d. choline

d. choline

86. A mixed triglyceride contains: a. three similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol b. two similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol c. three different fatty acids esterified with glycerol d. all of the above

c. three different fatty acids esterified with glycerol

87. The central compound found in the structure of sphingolipids: a. glycerol b. sphingosine c. ceramide d. phosphocholine

a. glycerol

88. Lipid whose specific test is the Furter-Meyer test: a. tocopherol b. retinol c. sphingomyelin d. cerebroside

a. tocopherol

89. Precipitate of _____ indicates the presence of phospholipids in the lipid sample: a. ammonium phosphomolybdate b. phosphorous periodate c. phosphorous triiodide d. phospho-ammonium sulfate complex

a. ammonium phosphomolybdate

90. The ff. are glycolipids except: a. globosides b. phosphatides c. gangliosides d. cerebrosides

b. phosphatides

91. The parent compound of phospholipids: a. glycerol b. phosphatidic acid c. ethanolamine d. none of the above

b. phosphatidic acid

92. A non-pentose sugar which is also positive for Tollen's phloroglucinol test: a. galactose b. glucose c. fructose d. cellobiose

d. cellobiose

93. The reagent present in Molisch test which is responsible for the dehydration reaction: a. sodium carbonate b. magnesium stearate c. sulfuric acid d. NaOH

c. sulfuric acid

94. ID test to detect the presence of glycogen: a. phloroglucinol b. molisch c. iodine d. seliwanoff

c. iodine

95. The only sugar that readily forms insoluble osazone crystals: a. lactose b. sucrose c. mannose d. fructose

c. mannose

96. Important structural material found in the exoskeletons of many lower animals: a. chondroitin b. heparin c. hyaluronic acid d. chitin

d. chitin

97. Hydrolysis of osazones produce: a. phenylhydrazones b. ozones c. sugars d. none of the above

b. ozones

98. General term for a group of polysaccharides present in the primary cell wall: A. xanthan B. mucilage C. pectin D. carrageenan

c. pectin

99. Specific test for galactose, due to the formation of highly insoluble crystals: a. phenylhydrazine test b. fermentation c. mucic acid d. molisch

c. mucic acid

100. Type of RNA which serves as template for the amino acid sequence being synthesized: a. mRNA b. tRNA c. rRNA d. none of the above

a. mRNA