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1
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Quantitative research methods are characterized by:

A. small samples.

B. unstructured questions

C. subjective analyses

D. preliminary insights

E. descriptive and casual designs

E. descriptive and casual designs

2
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Sampling units are:

A. the target population elements available for selection during the sampling process

B. the identifiable groups of elements of interest to the researcher and pertinent to the information problem.

C. the complete set of elements identified for investigation

D. the list of all population elements from which to draw a sample

E. the number of units accidentally left out of the sampling frame

A. the target population elements available for selection during the sampling process

3
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Which of the following section in a research proposal discusses the method used to collect the needed data, including the various types of scales?

A. Definition of the target population

B. Sample design

C. Data collection method

D. Specific research instruments

E. Definition of the sample size

D. Specific research instruments

4
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A firm is examining its data requirements to achieve the objectives of its research study. The management team determines that in order to get the needed data, they cannot use an observation method. Instead, it will have to do a mail survey. The team is most likely in which stage of the questionnaire design process?

A. Confirm research objectives

B. Develop questions and scaling

C. Determine layout and evaluate questionnaire

D. Pretest, revise and finalize questionnaire

E. Select appropriate data collection method

E. Select appropriate data collection method

5
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John is getting ready to conduct a store audit. He makes a list of key variables measured in a store audit. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

A. Beginning and ending inventory levels

B. Sales receipts

C. Point-of-purchase displays

D. Consumer attitudes toward store displays

E. In-store promotions

D. Consumer attitudes toward store displays

6
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Which of the following is NOT likely to be an example of limitations noted in a research report?

A. Information on sampling bias

B. Information on measurement error

C. Information on financial constraints and how these might limit the generalizability of the results

D. Information on how the recommendations might contradict the opinions held by the client managers

E. Information on extraneous events that might have had an affect on the results of the study

D. Information on how the recommendations might contradict the opinions held by the client managers

7
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Debriefing is conducted during which phase of the focus group interview

A. Planning the study

B. Conducting the discussions

C. Analyzing and reporting the results

D. Identifying participants

E. Writing the moderator's guide

C. Analyzing and reporting the results

8
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While preparing data, Sheila identifies a number of tasks that have to be performed. She should begin with which of the following?

A. Data validation

B. Editing and coding

C. Data analysis

D. Data entry

E. Data tabulation

A. Data validation

9
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Sarla Mohini wants to use projective techniques in her research. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of using such techniques?

A. The interpretation of data is very complex.

B. It is tough to get to a participant's true thoughts using this technique.

C. The interpretation of results is very subjective.

D. Highly skilled (and expensive) researchers are required to conduct this research.

E. The background and experience of a researcher can influence their interpretation of data.

B. It is tough to get to a participant's true thoughts using this technique.

10
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The section on research methods and procedures should include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. research hypotheses.

B. research design used.

C. types of secondary data used.

D. sampling unit used.

E. sample size.

A. research hypotheses.

11
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Instead of outlining a hypothesis, a researcher decides to look at the data and then come up with a hypothesized relationship. This process of deducing themes and patterns as one goes through the data is indicative of a(n):

A. predictive analysis.

B. deductive analysis.

C. inductive analysis.

D. selective analysis.

E. reductive analysis.

C. inductive analysis.

12
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Which of the following measures is an indicator of how similar or dissimilar the numbers are in the set of responses?

A. Cross-tabulations

B. Mean

C. Median

D. Mode

E. Standard deviation

E. Standard deviation

13
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A pie chart:

A. shows the relative proportion as a percent of the total proportion of the pie associated with the value of a specific variable.

B. shows nine sections of data.

C. connects a series of data points with a continuous line.

D. shows each bars height as the relative frequency of a variable value.

E. can depict both absolute and relative magnitudes of differences in change.

A. shows the relative proportion as a percent of the total proportion of the pie associated with the value of a specific variable.

14
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For a given level of precision and confidence level, a researcher determines that he needs a sample size of 400. The study was to find out that the proportion of people who smoke is 30 percent. For the same level of precision and confidence, she would have needed the same sample size if the proportion of those who smoked were to change to:

A. 40 percent

B. 50 percent.

C. 60 percent.

D. 70 percent.

E. As long as the precision and confidence stay the same, the proportion doesn't affect the required sample size.

D. 70 percent.

15
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In a survey, a total of 500 surveys were filled out. One hundred of these responses had to be removed because of missing values for a particular question ("What is your gender?"). If 40 people indicated "Male" in response to this question, what was the valid percentage of "Male" responses?

A. 40%

B. 8%

C. 10%

D. 18%

E. 20%

C. 10%

16
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All of the following are true about conceptualization, EXCEPT

A. it helps identify the variables for your research

B. it is called a Maven model

C. it specifies hypotheses and relationships

D. it prepares a visual representation of the relationships under study

E. it displays the hypothesized relationships using a box and arrows diagram

B. it is called a Maven model

17
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In a defined target population, there are 1,950 small firms, 45 medium sized firms, and 5 large firms. A researcher is interested in drawing a probability sample from this population. However, given the greater economic significance of the five large firms, he wants to draw more heavily from that group. Given this objective, the researcher should use:

A. simple random sampling

B. systematic random sampling

C. disproportionately stratified sampling.

D. cluster sampling

E. snowball sampling

C. disproportionately stratified sampling.

18
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The difference between a particular response and the distribution mean is called a (n):

A. deviation.

B. standard deviation.

C. variance.

D. ANOVA.

E. MANOVA.

A. deviation.

19
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A Marketing manager wants to do a market study before launching a new product. The research study will take three months to complete. Just two weeks before starting the study, she learns that their competitor is about to launch a product that will compete directly against her company's new product. Given this new development, she decides to cancel the research study and launch the product immediately. The reason for NOT conducting the study is:

A. the problem can be resolved using existing information.

B. the problem is not of strategic or tactical importance.

C. adequate information is available in the company's internal records to resolve the problem.

D. time constraints associated with the problem make it impossible to conduct the study.

E. the cost of conducting the study outweighs the benefit of additional information.

D. time constraints associated with the problem make it impossible to conduct the study.

20
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Variance is:

A. the average squared deviations about the mean of a distribution of values.

B. an empirically testable statement that is an unproven supposition developed in order to explain phenomena.

C. a statement that asserts the status quo; that is, any change from what has been thought to be true is due to random sampling order.

D. a statement that is the opposite of the null hypothesis.

E. the error made by rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true.

A. the average squared deviations about the mean of a distribution of values.

21
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Which of the following is the least likely to be a thick description?

A. A description based on observation of a small number of individuals over an extended time period.

B. A description based on survey data collected from a large sample of 2,000 respondents

C. A description that connects behavior to the larger social context in which it occurs.

D. A description of the consumption behavior for Pepsi in the social context of beverages consumed in schools.

E. A description of how people use personal hygiene products based upon an in-home ethnographic study.

B. A description based on survey data collected from a large sample of 2,000 respondents

22
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Acme Corporation surveys its consumers to determine how they view the similarities and dissimilarities among relevant product attributes for a set of competing brands. This is an example of:

A. pricing strategy research.

B. distribution strategy research.

C. positioning research.

D. market segmentation research.

E. retailing research.

C. positioning research.

23
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Marketing research depicts the Harley-Davidson motorcycle shopper as a middle-aged, college educated individual with an average annual income of $78,000. This is an example of:

A. market analysis.

B. pricing strategy research.

C. positioning research.

D. market segmentation research.

E. retailing research.

D. market segmentation research.

24
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Which one of the following statements about limitations of a research project is true?

A. Certain research studies are flawless.

B. Treatment of limitations normally excludes a discussion of results.

C. Treatment of limitations normally excludes a discussion of accuracy.

D. The researcher should make the client aware of the study's limitations.

E. Researchers must openly address any limitations even if it undermines the credibility of the project.

D. The researcher should make the client aware of the study's limitations.

25
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Linda has been assigned to do a qualitative study of people's online shopping behavior. Because of a very tight budget situation, she will have to conduct this study on her own, without any help or assistance of a co-researcher. Given this constraint, she cannot do/establish:

A. iteration.

B. cross-researcher reliability.

C. tabulation.

D. emic validity.

E. integration.

B. cross-researcher reliability.

26
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In identifying and clarifying information needs, which of the following component provides direction for activities such as scale development and sampling?

A. Determination of the correct unit of analysis.

B. Conducting of a situation assessment.

C. Determination of the relevant variables.

D. Identification and separation of symptoms.

E. Determination of the research purpose.

C. Determination of the relevant variables.

27
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"As the ownership of DVD players goes up, DVD rentals at Blockbuster will also go up." This statement illustrates the concept of:

A. co-dependence.

B. co-alteration.

C. covariation.

D. co-existence.

E. convergence.

C. covariation.

28
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Which one of the following statements about constructs is false?

A. Constructs are not directly observable.

B. Measurement of constructs is direct in nature.

C. Customer satisfaction is an example of a construct

D. Constructs are made up of a combination of several related indicator variables.

E. Construct development begins with an accurate definition of the purpose of the study and the research problem.

B. Measurement of constructs is direct in nature.

29
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If a marketing manager wants to be 95 percent certain of a result in a statistical test, the significance level should be set at:

A. 0.95

B. 0.02

C. 0.03

D. 0.04

E. 0.05

E. 0.05

30
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Assume that the mean of a distribution is ten and standard deviation is 2. If we subtracted each value in that distribution from the mean and added them up, the result would be close to:

A. 100

B. 2

C. 50

D. 0

E. 200

D. 0

31
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While preparing a data display for a qualitative study, a researcher displays consumers' taxonomies of products. This display can be most effectively shown with the help of a:

A. causal diagram.

B. tree display.

c. consensus map.

D. checklist.

E. recursive diagram

B. tree display.

32
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Which of the following measures is especially useful when dealing with ordinal data and data that is skewed to either the right or left?

A. Mean

B. Median

C. Mode

D. Standard deviation

E. Variance

B. Median

33
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A researcher prepares a two page questionnaire. On each page, there are questions related to the amount of beverages consumed by the respondent in a given week. Given below are the units of measurement used on pages 1 and 2 respectively. Which of the following combinations is recommended as appropriate for use in a questionnaire?

A. Ounces, liters

B. Liters, ounces

C. Liters, liters

D. Gallons, ounces

E. Ounces, gallons

C. Liters, liters

34
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A retailer is interested in studying the effect of in-store promotions on the amount of money people spend during a store visit. Which of the following will NOT be considered an extraneous variable for this study?

A. The mood of the shoppers as they enter the store.

B. The average amount of money spent by shoppers in the store.

C. The number of kids under the age of two that accompany an adult shopper

D. The day of the week/month when the study is conducted

E. The air temperature outside the store.

B. The average amount of money spent by shoppers in the store.

35
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Assume that respondents aged 65 or older are only one-third as likely to be in an Internet sample as their actual incidence in the population. Using propensity scoring, their responses would be:

A. excluded from the sample to avoid any potential bias.

B. included as is (only once) to keep the data truly representative.

C. counted three times in the sample.

D. included selectively (about one-third of the time) in the sample.

E. included alternatively.

C. counted three times in the sample.

36
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What type of scale structure is being used in a question that asks the respondent to write in his or her age on the survey?

A. Ordinal

B. Nominal

C. Ratio

D. Interval

E. Likert

C. Ratio

37
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Jane is interested in finding out information on product returns for her firm. Which of the following reports is most likely to contain this information?

A. Sales Invoice

B. Accounts Receivables Reports

C. Journal Voucher

D. Challan Report

E. Accounts Payable Reports

B. Accounts Receivables Reports

38
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Compared to lab experiments, field experiments are characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. field experiments are more realistic

B. field experiments are more controllable

C. field experiments take longer to complete.

D. field experiments are more expensive to conduct

E. field experiments can allow your competitors to learn about your initiatives (that are being field-tested)

B. field experiments are more controllable

39
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All of the following are considered unethical behaviors by the respondents, EXCEPT:

A. refusing to fill in the questionnaire.

B. willfully giving a wrong answer.

C. claiming to be 25 years old when she is actually 49.

D. randomly circling responses without reading the questions

E. filling out surveys with the prospect of earning money.

A. refusing to fill in the questionnaire.

40
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On a survey, a student comes across a question that asks, "To what extent did you find marketing and accounting courses useful?" This question is (most closely) an example of a (n):

A. incomprehensible question.

B. unanswerable question.

C. leading question.

D. loaded question.

E. double-barreled question.

E. double-barreled question.

41
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A person is asked if he has traveled abroad in the last six months. He replies that he has not. The interviewer thanks him and decides not to include him in her sample. Which of the following supplemental documents might have indicated to the interviewer to exclude her from the sample?

A. Rating cards

B. Screening question forms

C. Interviewer instructions

D. Quota sheets

E. Supervisor instructions

B. Screening question forms

42
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Which of the following statements about cluster sampling is true?

A. Each cluster is assumed to be representative of the homogeneity of the target population.

B. The prospective sampling units are selected for the sample using systematic random sampling.

C. Area sampling is a form of cluster sampling

D. In practice, cluster sampling is difficult to implement

E. Cluster sampling requires a substantially large budget

C. Area sampling is a form of cluster sampling

43
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the types of self-administered surveys?

A. Mail surveys ensure faster and greater response rates.

B. Mail panel surveys can be used for longitudinal surveys.

C. Drop-off surveys are less expensive than mail surveys.

D. Online surveys require coding

E. Mail surveys have high interviewer-related costs.

B. Mail panel surveys can be used for longitudinal surveys.

44
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Purposive sampling means:

A. selecting sample members to study because they possess attributes important to understanding a research topic.

B. selecting sample members so that groups can be compared.

C. selecting sample members based on earlier interviews.

D. selecting particular types of participants because they can minimize cross talk during the discussions of a research topic.

E. selecting sample participants who can generate spontaneous discussion on a research topic or concept

A. selecting sample members to study because they possess attributes important to understanding a research topic.

45
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Marilynn Castillo is a Marketing manager with a major firm. She is debating whether to conduct a marketing research study before commercializing a product. She believes that she will spend about $100,000 to conduct the study. If she launches the product without conducting the study and the product fails, her firm could suffer a loss of $2 million. One can say that Marilynn is doing:

A. an assessment of the research problem.

B. a cost-benefit assessment.

C. an assessment of the research design.

D. a time availability analysis for doing the research.

E. market sensitivity analysis of her options.

B. a cost-benefit assessment.

46
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Which of the following scales is typically used to create a perceptual image profile?

A. Likert scale

B. Free-choice scale

C. Nominal scale

D. Ratio scale

E. Semantic differential scale

E. Semantic differential scale

47
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A researcher decides to assign a value of 1 if the respondent is male and a value of 2 if the respondent is a female. By assigning numbers to different genders, the researcher is engaged in the process of:

A. coding

B. editing

C. validation

D. data summarization.

E. data tabulation

A. coding

48
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If a researcher is interested in measuring the effect of two independent variables on a dependent variable, he/she should use:

A. pearson correlation coefficient.

B. spearman correlation coefficient.

C. bivariate regression analysis.

D. multiple regression analysis.

E. simple regression

D. multiple regression analysis.

49
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Which of the following is the strongest predictor of future behavior?

A. A person's stated attitudes

B. A person's past behavior

C. A person's stated purchase intentions

D. A person's exposure to advertisements for a product

E. A person's dislike for competing products

B. A person's past behavior

50
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After observing a family eating dessert after their meals, an ethnographer records their behavior in her journal. She then asks the head of the family to read her description to verify that the story she was telling was accurate. In doing this, the ethnographer is involved in:

A. member checking

B. thick description

C. data categorization

D. memo check back

E. respondent courtesy check

A. member checking

51
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If a respondent does not have access to information needed to answer an item, then the participant has been exposed to a:

A. unanswerable item.

B. leading item

C. incomprehensible item.

D. double-barreled question..

E. primary item.

A. unanswerable item.

52
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John and Bill work for CompTech Solutions. Bill often comments that John is a typical "marketing researcher" whereas he (Bill) is a "management decision-maker." Assuming that Bill's characterization of John is correct, identify which of the following statements will most likely be false about John?

A. John tends to be a scientific, technical, and an analytical thinker.

B. John accepts prolonged investigations to ensure completeness.

C. John is sensitive to the cost of obtaining additional information.

D. John loves surprises.

E. John advocates proactive inquiry into the ever-changing marketplace.

C. John is sensitive to the cost of obtaining additional information.

53
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If a researcher asks if a tone of negativity was injected into the interviewing process, the researcher is dealing with a question of:

A. fraud.

B. screening.

C. procedure.

D. completeness.

E. courtesy.

E. courtesy.

54
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Consumer panels, as a commercial data collection method:

A. use a rigorous data collection approach.

B. cost higher than primary data collection methods.

C. primarily measure media consumption habits as opposed to product or brand consumption.

D. measure product and brand movement directly at the point of sale.

E. generate information on effectiveness of shelf space and POP displays.

A. use a rigorous data collection approach.

55
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If a researcher is looking for action statements that will help solve the problem at hand, which part of the research report should she look at?

A. Research methods

B. Data analysis and findings

C. Conclusions

D. Recommendations

E. Limitations

D. Recommendations

56
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When Cheetos became the first major brand of snack foods to be made and marketed in China, product taste tests revealed that the traditional cheese-flavored corn puffs did not appeal to Chinese consumers. This is an example of:

A. pricing strategy research.

B. perceptual mapping research.

C. positioning research.

D. competition analysis.

E. new-product planning research.

E. new-product planning research.

57
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In the process of questionnaire design, a researcher has obtained initial client approval. What is the next step in the process?

A. Confirm research objectives

B. Develop questions and scaling

C. Determine layout and evaluate questionnaire

D. Pretest, revise and finalize questionnaire

E. Select appropriate data collection method

D. Pretest, revise and finalize questionnaire

58
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Compared to person-administered surveys, self-administered surveys have all of the following advantages, EXCEPT:

A. low cost per survey.

B. respondent control.

C. no interviewer-respondent bias.

D. higher response rates.

E. anonymity in responses.

D. higher response rates.

59
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An unstructured question is:

A. a question with wording problems such as ambiguity, abstraction, and connotation.

B. a question that is open-ended formatted to allow respondents to reply in their own words.

C. a formalized statement of a testable relationship between two or more constructs or variables.

D. a question with a predetermined list of responses available to aid or limit the respondent's answers

E. a separate written communication to a prospective respondent designed to enhance that person's willingness to complete and return the survey in a timely manner.

B. a question that is open-ended formatted to allow respondents to reply in their own words.

60
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Marylyn is interested in using a survey method that would allow her to have the respondent fill out the survey close to the moment of shopping and decision-making. Which of the following methods is best suited for this purpose?

A. Telephone interview

B. In-home interview

С. САТІ

D. Online survey

E. Wireless phone survey

E. Wireless phone survey

61
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In bivariate regression analysis, a researcher tries to generate the best-filling line called the regression line. Any point that doesn't fall on this line contributes to error. The total error in regression is determined by:

A. the number of points that don't fall on the regression line.

B. the proportion of points that don't fall on the regression line.

C. the sum of distances between the regression line and the points not on the line.

D. the square of the sum of distances between the regression line and the points not on the line.

E. the percentage of points that don't fall on the regression line.

D. the square of the sum of distances between the regression line and the points not on the line.

62
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In a survey of 400 respondents, 180 indicated their gender as males and 200 indicated their gender as females. Twenty respondents did not fill out any value for gender. When doing a frequency count on gender, the percentage column and the valid percentage column for males would be:

A. 45% and 50%

B. 50% and 50%

C. 45% and 47.4%

D. 47.4% and 45%

E. 47.4% and 50%

C. 45% and 47.4%

63
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An advantage of questioning over observation (as a way of collecting data) is that:

A. questioning needs fewer researchers in the field.

B. questioning allows for a large sample size.

C. questioning is more scientific.

D. questioning allows you to collect data on variables such as intentions and attitudes that are usually invisible.

E. questioning generates data that are error free.

D. questioning allows you to collect data on variables such as intentions and attitudes that are usually invisible.

64
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The process of converting information from a form / questionnaire is referred to as data preparation. This process follows a four-step approach. Which one of the following is the last step in this process?

A. Data validation

B. Editing

C. Coding of the data

D. Data entry

E. Data tabulation

E. Data tabulation

65
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When comparing means from independent samples, one needs to test if the variances of the two samples are equal or not. In order to test for the equivalence of variance, one can do which of the following tests?

A. t-test

B. Levene's test

C. Paired sample t-test

D. Independent sample t-test

E. ANOVA

B. Levene's test

66
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Probability sampling is undertaken to achieve all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. to ensure unbiased selection of sampling units.

B. to ensure proper sampling representation of the defined target population.

C. to ensure that every member of the defined target population has a known and equal probability of being included in the sample.

D. to allow the researcher to judge the reliability and validity of data collected.

E. to allow the researcher to generalize results to the target population within a specified margin of error.

C. to ensure that every member of the defined target population has a known and equal probability of being included in the sample.

67
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In a Google Scholar search, an article is listed as "Cited by 44" next to it. This indicates that:

A. the article's bibliography has 44 citations included in it.

B. the article has been viewed by 44 other visitors to the web site.

C. the article has 44 comments and reviews available online.

D. the article can be cited by 44 more individuals before it is withdrawn from the web site.

E. the article is referenced by 44 other documents available on the web.

E. the article is referenced by 44 other documents available on the web.

68
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Two popular techniques used to assess internal consistency are:

A. split-half tests and coefficient alpha.

B. split-half tests and the equivalent form technique

C. the equivalent form technique and coefficient alpha

D. the test-retest technique and the equivalent form technique

E. the test-retest technique and split-half tests

A. split-half tests and coefficient alpha.

69
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Which of the data collection technique is used in exploratory research studies?

A. Image assessment surveys

B. Customer satisfaction surveys

C. Narrative surveys

D. Patronage behavior surveys

E. Pilot studies

E. Pilot studies

70
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Suzanne is well-trained as a qualitative researcher. The area in which she is likely to be well trained is:

A. construct development.

B. hypothesis testing.

C. questionnaire design

D. statistical data analysis

E. use of projective techniques

E. use of projective techniques

71
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A researcher gives respondents five brands of cereal and asks them to rank these cereals from the best liked (rank = 1) to the least liked (rank = 5). This scale is most closely a (n):

A. nominal scale.

B. ratio scale.

C. ordinal scale.

D. interval scale.

E. hybrid-ordinally interval scale.

C. ordinal scale.

72
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Nancy was told by her research manager that people preferred red colored toasters over blue colored ones. When Nancy asked for the ratio of red vs. blue preference subjects, she was told that the inference could not be drawn from the data collected. This problem is an illustration of:

A. budget limitation.

B. task difficulty.

C. data generalizability.

D. data precision.

E. data incompatibility.

D. data precision.

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When knowledge about the behavior of one variable allows you to predict the behavior of another variable, this is another way of studying the _____ of the relationship.

A. presence

B. direction

C. strength of association

D. type

E. dispersion

A. presence

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Which of the following is an example of importance-performance analysis?

A. Nike analyzing McDonald's success factors.

B. A consultant researching on expenses of a company

C. HP working on improvement of its distribution channels.

D. Blackberry analyzing iPhone's success factors.

E. A firm analyzing its performance with respect to return on investment.

D. Blackberry analyzing iPhone's success factors.

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External validity:

A. exists when the research design accurately identifies causal relationships.

B. refers to the extent to which a causal relationship found in a study can be expected to be true for the entire defined target population

C. can be threatened by selection bias

D. refers to the degree that the design and its procedures can be replicated and achieves similar conclusions about hypothesized relationships

E. refers to causal research designs that manipulate the independent variables to measure the dependent variable in a natural setting

B. refers to the extent to which a causal relationship found in a study can be expected to be true for the entire defined target population

76
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Tazoo Inc. is known for its trendy and fashionable clothing accessories. In order to keep track of emerging trends and changing consumer preferences, Tazoo's marketing team, consisting of Anna, Bill, Cathy, Denver, and Eric, undertook marketing research surveys. Which of these is NOT part of the marketing research process?

A. Cathy and Anna collected data from households with two or more kids in their locality.

B. Bill designed a new method for data collection.

C. Denver, the expert in statistical tools analyzed the data collected by Cathy and Anna.

D. Eric, the team leader, implemented the actions based on the findings.

E. Eric submitted the findings of the survey in the form of a written report to the management.

D. Eric, the team leader, implemented the actions based on the findings.

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All of the following statements regarding data analysis and findings are true, EXCEPT:

A. results must be logically arranged to correspond with each research objective or research question listed in the report.

B. the researcher must summarize and present the analysis in a way that makes them easy to understand for nonspecialists.

C. findings should always include a detailed presentation with supporting tables, figures, and graphs.

D. when reporting results, writers should claim the results are "obvious," or "self-evident."

E. the researcher must decide how to group the findings into sections that facilitate understanding.

D. when reporting results, writers should claim the results are "obvious," or "self-evident."

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Qualitative research would be preferred over quantitative research in all of the following situations, EXCEPT:

A. when the research objective is to gain an insight into an issue or a problem.

B. when the research objective is to determine the magnitude of a response

C. when the research objective is to understand a psychoanalytical phenomenon

D. when the research objective is to understand a cultural phenomenon

E. when the research objective is to collect textual instead of numerical data relevant to the research issue

B. when the research objective is to determine the magnitude of a response

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A null hypothesis is notated as

A. H0

B. H1

C. N0

D. N1

E. N0H1

A. H0

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Credibility:

A. is the quality of a report that is related to accuracy, believability, and professional organization.

B. is building a report that is based on clear-logical thinking, precise expression, and accurate presentation.

C. illustrates the major points of the report in a manner that is complete so as to provide a true representation of the entire document

D. is an extraneous event that places certain restrictions on the report and is normally mentioned when communicating the results.

E. is a separate section of the research report.

A. is the quality of a report that is related to accuracy, believability, and professional organization.

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An instructor teaching an introductory course in marketing has 300 students enrolled in her class. Some students in the class request the instructor to cancel her class on Wednesday before Thanksgiving. She agrees to do so if 70 percent of the students agreed with the proposal to cancel the class. Instead of asking every student to participate in the poll, she asks students to write their names on index cards and put them in a collection basket. She then asks a student to pull out 30 cards from the basket without looking at the basket or the cards. The instructor is practicing what kind of sampling technique?

A. Systematic random sample

B. Simple random sample

C. Stratified random sample

D. Convenience sample

E. Judgment sample

B. Simple random sample

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In conducting an in-depth interview, the questions are arranged so as to ensure a logical flow from "general" to "specific" questions within topic areas. This activity is carried out in:

A. step 1 of the in-depth interview.

B. step 2 of the in-depth interview.

C. step 3 of the in-depth interview.

D. step 4 of the in-depth interview.

E. step 5 of the in-depth interview.

B. step 2 of the in-depth interview.

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What type of scale structure is being used in a question that asks the respondent to check either: Male or Female?

A. Ordinal

B. Nominal

C. Ratio

D. Interval

E. Likert

B. Nominal

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Equipment and supply requirements are typically mentioned in which of the following documents?

A. Supervisor instruction form

B. Respondent instruction form

C. Interviewer instructions

D. Screening form

E. Quota sheet

A. Supervisor instruction form

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Which of the following is true about information gathering?

A. Customer knowledge information is feedback you obtain from your sales representatives about customer behavior.

B. More data implies more analysis and thus delay in taking sound decisions.

C. Blogs and online polls are used to collect customer knowledge information.

D. Data from electronic customer councils are indicative of less customer engagement.

E. Data collection through electronic means is more expensive and time consuming.

C. Blogs and online polls are used to collect customer knowledge information.

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When male students are compared to female students on the average number of hours they study each weekday, this is an example of:

A. independent samples.

B. dependent samples.

C. related samples.

D. random groups.

E. paired samples.

A. independent samples.

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A researcher plots a scatter diagram of two variables. The dots on the plot are scattered roughly as a circle. This indicates that the relationship (covariation) between the two variables is:

A. linear, positive.

B. linear, negative.

C. circular, positive.

D. circular, negative.

E. very close to zero.

E. very close to zero.

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Jamie Nelson is interested in determining the satisfaction of people with the service provided by their telephone company (for landline customers only). She decides to draw her sample from the telephone directory. For Jamie's research, the telephone directory is serving as a (n):

A. sampling unit.

B. element chart.

C. sampling frame.

D. element.

E. census.

C. sampling frame.

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A questionnaire is:

A. a formalized framework consisting of a set of question/scales designed to generate primary raw data.

B. used to formulate the research problem for the organization.

C. a formalized statement of a testable relationship between two or more constructs or variables.

D. a dynamic evaluation.

E. a separate written communication to a prospective respondent designed to enhance that person's willingness to complete and return the survey in a timely manner.

A. a formalized framework consisting of a set of question/scales designed to generate primary raw data.

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Before polling students in the School of Business, the researcher divides all the current students into groups based on their class standing (freshman, sophomores, etc). Then, she randomly draws a sample of 50 students from each of these groups to create a representative sample of the entire student body in the School.

The researcher is practicing which of the following sampling methods?

A. Simple random sampling

B. Systematic random sampling

C. Stratified random sampling

D. Cluster sampling

E. Snowball sampling

C. Stratified random sampling

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Which of the following statements about hypotheses is false?

A. If the null hypothesis is rejected, we conclude that the variables are not related

B. Researchers always test the null hypothesis.

C. The alternative hypothesis states that there is a relationship between variables

D. A null hypothesis refers to a population parameter

E. A null hypothesis is developed so that its rejection leads to an acceptance of the alternative hypothesis

A. If the null hypothesis is rejected, we conclude that the variables are not related

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If a researcher recontacts a respondent to collect information on a question that was accidentally skipped by the interviewer, the researcher is checking which area of concern while editing data?

A. Courtesy and respect

B. Accurate recording of answer

C. Correct screening questions

D. Reponses to open-ended items

E. Probing for a deeper response

B. Accurate recording of answer

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At which stage of the research process is the Iceberg principle generally applicable?

A. Determination of the research problem

B. Selection of the appropriate research design

C. Execution of the research design

D. Communication of the research results

E. Interpretation of data to create knowledge

A. Determination of the research problem

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All of the following statements are true about coding, EXCEPT:

A. coding can be tedious if certain issues are not addressed prior to collecting the data.

B. a well-planned questionnaire can reduce the amount of time spent on coding.

C. for open-ended questions, a coding process should be prepared before collecting data.

D. numerical codes are easier to input than alphanumeric codes.

E. coding involves grouping and assigning values to responses to the survey questions.

C. for open-ended questions, a coding process should be prepared before collecting data.

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Alternative hypothesis

A. is the value of a variable that is estimated from a sample.

B. is the true value of a variable.

C. states that there is a relationship between two vanables

D. is the actual value of a variable, which can only be known by collecting data from every member of the relevant population

E. is notated as HO

C. states that there is a relationship between two vanables

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In the four-step process of developing codes for responses, in which stage does one address the issue of missing data?

A. Consolidation of responses

B. Generating a list of potential responses

C. Completing the partial responses with best judgment responses

D. Assigning a value to each response

E. Assigning a numerical value as a code

E. Assigning a numerical value as a code

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An example of fraud in the data validation process is when:

A. the interviewer contacts the respondent simply to get a name and address and then proceeds to falsify the interview.

B. the interviewer, unconsciously or not, injects a tone of negativity.

C. the interviewer misrepresents himself/herself to the respondent.

D. the interviewer does not submit all the data collected during the collection process.

E. the interviewer distributes the data collected to various organizations thereby violating confidentiality agreements.

A. the interviewer contacts the respondent simply to get a name and address and then proceeds to falsify the interview.

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The coefficient of determination:

A. describes the variation in the dependent variable described by the control variable.

B. tells you the percent of the total variation in the independent variable explained by the dependent variable.

C. ranges from -1.0 to + 1.0.

D. ranges from zero to + 1.0.

E. is a stronger measure than the Pearson correlation coefficient.

D. ranges from zero to + 1.0.

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If consumers rate price at a McDonald's restaurant on a 7-point scale using 1 for Unsatisfactory and 7 for Satisfactory, a mean score of 2.34 would be interpreted as:

A. a satisfactory price.

B. a very satisfactory price.

C. a neutral price.

D. an unsatisfactory price.

E. an average price.

D. an unsatisfactory price.

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In a regression analysis, "the strength of the relationship between all the independent variables in the regression model and the dependent variable"

A. the regression coefficient.

B. the r2.

C. the significance level.

D. the t statistic.

E. the beta coefficient.

B. the r2.