1/50
Looks like no tags are added yet.
What is HIV, and how does it affect the immune system?
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is a retrovirus that targets and weakens the immune system by infecting and destroying vital white blood cells.
Which specific receptor and cell type does HIV primarily target?
HIV targets the CD4 receptor on the surface of Helper T cells (CD4+ T lymphocytes).
What is the key clinical distinction between HIV and AIDS?
HIV is the infectious retrovirus, whereas Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is the advanced, late-stage manifestation of chronic HIV infection.
Where in the body does the maturation of Helper T cells take place?
The thymus.
After maturing and entering circulation, in which secondary lymphoid organs do Helper T cells reside?
Lymph nodes, the spleen, and Peyer's patches.
What are Peyer's patches and where are they located?
Small clusters of lymphoid tissue distributed throughout the mucosa of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
Through which four primary body fluids can HIV be transmitted, and which sexual practices carry transmission risk?
Transmission occurs through:
Risk is highest during unprotected vaginal and anal intercourse.
What are the three specific timeframes when maternal-to-child transmission of HIV can occur?
What are the primary risk factors for contracting an HIV infection?
What are the three progressive clinical stages of an HIV infection in chronological order?
In which stage of HIV infection do opportunistic infections and defining clinical complications first typically appear?
Stage 3 (AIDS).
A patient diagnosed with HIV is found to have a CD4 count of 220 cells/mm³. Which stage of infection does this indicate?
Stage 2: Clinical Latency (the CD4 count is between 200 and 499 cells/mm³).
A newly diagnosed patient has a confirmed CD4 count of 574 cells/mm³. Which stage of HIV infection are they in?
Stage 1: Acute Infection (CD4 count is 500 cells/mm³ or greater).
A patient positive for HIV with no outside exposures for 9 years presents with night sweats and a CD4 count of 115 cells/mm³. Can latency last this long, and which stage is this?
Yes; clinical latency can last 10 years or more without treatment. Because the CD4 count is below 200 cells/mm³ and systemic symptoms are present, the patient is in Stage 3: AIDS.
Which stages of HIV infection are characteristically symptomatic?
Stage 1 (Acute Infection) and Stage 3 (AIDS).
What pathophysiologic changes and clinical symptoms define the acute infection stage of HIV?
What pathophysiologic processes occur during the clinical latency stage of HIV?
What specific criteria distinguish a diagnosis of AIDS from earlier HIV stages?
A CD4 count falling below 200 cells/mm³ (or CD4 percentage < 14%) and/or the emergence of an AIDS-defining opportunistic condition.
What general systemic findings are commonly expected during Stage 3 (AIDS)?
What are common neurological opportunistic infections and conditions seen in AIDS?
What clinical manifestations suggest Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis in an immunocompromised patient?
What opportunistic infections most commonly affect the respiratory system in patients with AIDS?
Which body system is at the highest risk for developing opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
The respiratory system.
What are the priority nursing interventions when caring for an AIDS patient with an opportunistic respiratory infection?
What gastrointestinal complications commonly occur during Stage 3 (AIDS)?
What is HIV wasting syndrome and what causes it?
The involuntary loss of greater than 10% of baseline body weight, characterized by severe lean muscle mass depletion accompanied by chronic diarrhea or fever lasting over 30 days. It is caused by intestinal malabsorption, hypermetabolism, and anorexia.
What nursing and dietary interventions help manage GI complications and wasting in AIDS?
What are the primary oncologic complications associated with AIDS?

Which vascular malignancy characteristically causes purplish-brown cutaneous lesions in AIDS, and how is it managed?
Kaposi's sarcoma; managed through antiretroviral therapy (ART) combined with radiation therapy, localized interventions, or systemic chemotherapy.

What is the nurse's priority action when an AIDS patient presents with new or progressive cutaneous lesions?
Perform a focused assessment and detailed documentation of the patient's specific skin lesions (appearance, size, and distribution).
What psychiatric and psychosocial complications should nurses evaluate in patients living with AIDS?
What are the two general classifications of HIV diagnostic testing, and what tests belong to each?
What does a Nucleic Acid Test (NAT) measure, and when is it indicated?
It directly detects the viral RNA of HIV in the blood; it is indicated to confirm acute HIV infection before antibodies form or to resolve indeterminate screening tests.
What are the two primary purposes of an HIV-1/HIV-2 differentiation assay?
What is the normal physiologic reference range for a CD4+ T-cell count?
500 to 1,500 cells/mm³.
What does a patient's HIV viral load indicate in clinical management?
It quantifies the number of viral copies per milliliter of blood, serving as a key indicator of disease progression and the clinical efficacy of antiretroviral therapy (ART).
What does an 'undetectable' HIV viral load mean regarding disease transmission?
It means the viral load is below laboratory detection limits (typically < 20 copies/mL); an undetectable viral load prevents sexual transmission to an HIV-negative partner (Undetectable = Untransmittable / U=U).
Which two antiretroviral medications are combined in standard oral Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)?
Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (300 mg) and Emtricitabine (200 mg).
What is the dosing schedule for standard oral Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)?
Taken orally once daily on a consistent schedule.
What is the minimum age requirement for initiating PrEP to reduce the risk of sexual HIV acquisition?
12 years of age or older (weighing at least 35 kg).
What long-acting injectable medication serves as an alternative to daily oral PrEP to enhance adherence?
Cabotegravir (Apretude), administered as a 600 mg (200 mg/mL) intramuscular injection every other month (bimonthly).
Within what timeframe must Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) be initiated following a potential HIV exposure?
Within 72 hours (3 days) of the exposure event.
What medications are typically prescribed in a standard Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) regimen?
A combination of Tenofovir and Emtricitabine (the PrEP backbone) plus an integrase inhibitor such as Raltegravir (or Dolutegravir).
What is the dosing frequency and total duration of a Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) course?
Taken once to twice daily for a continuous 28-day course.
What critical behavioral teaching point must be reinforced to a patient completing PEP?
The patient must continue using barrier precautions (such as condoms) during the 28-day regimen to prevent potential secondary transmission until follow-up testing confirms negative status.
What are the five primary drug classes utilized in Antiretroviral Therapy (ART)?
What are the common mild side effects associated with the initiation of Antiretroviral Therapy (ART)?
What major adverse effects and organ toxicities are linked with Antiretroviral Therapy (ART)?
What is the most critical priority topic for the nurse to teach an immunocompromised patient on ART?
Infection prevention practices and strict adherence to the prescribed medication regimen.
What specific infection control measures should nurses teach to patients diagnosed with HIV/AIDS?
What are the primary overarching therapeutic goals of Antiretroviral Therapy (ART)?