Comparative Veterinary Anatomy: Cell Biology, Osteology, Joints, Myology and Digestion

What is hyperplasia?

An increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ.

What is metaplasia?

Replacement of one mature cell type by another mature cell type.

What does anaplasia refer to?

Loss of cellular differentiation, causing cells to appear primitive and poorly differentiated.

Define dysplasia.

Disordered cell growth and organization, involving abnormalities in size, shape, orientation, and tissue architecture.

What is neoplasia?

Abnormal new growth caused by uncontrolled or autonomous cell proliferation.

What does osteology study?

The study of bones.

What is arthrology?

The study of joints and articulations.

What is myology?

The study of muscles.

What is splanchnology?

The study of the viscera or internal organs, particularly those of the digestive, respiratory, and urogenital systems.

What is the primary function of mitochondria?

To produce most cellular ATP through aerobic respiration.

What is the function of lysosomes?

To contain hydrolytic enzymes for intracellular digestion and breakdown of engulfed materials.

What is the role of the Golgi apparatus?

To package and secrete proteins and lipids.

What are the five basic substances of protoplasm?

Water, proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and electrolytes.

What is the significance of hyperchromatism?

It indicates that the nucleus stains unusually dark due to increased nuclear chromatin.

What does the term 'atrophy' mean?

A decrease in cell size.

What is hypertrophy?

An increase in cell size.

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)?

To produce proteins entering the secretory and membrane pathways.

What is the primary role of free ribosomes?

To produce proteins primarily intended for use inside the cell.

What are somatic cells?

Body cells other than germ cells, typically diploid and divide by mitosis.

What is the cell cycle?

The series of phases that a cell goes through to grow and divide.

What occurs during the S Phase of the cell cycle?

DNA is replicated.

What is the main function of the cell membrane?

To regulate the movement of substances into and out of the cell.

What is the function of the cytoplasm?

To contain the cellular organelles and provide a medium for biochemical reactions.

What is the role of the nucleus in a cell?

To contain most of the cell's genetic material.

What is the significance of the nuclear envelope?

It is a double membrane surrounding the nucleus that regulates transport between the nucleus and cytoplasm.

What is the primary function of electrolytes in cells?

To provide charged ions required for normal cellular functions.

What is the major storage organ for glycogen?

The liver.

What are the major stages of mitosis?

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase (PMAT).

What is the primary function of the skull?

To protect the brain.

Which bones protect the heart and lungs?

Ribs, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae.

What do pelvic bones protect?

Pelvic viscera.

What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in a cell?

It modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids.

What is hematopoiesis?

The formation of blood cells, occurring in red bone marrow.

What is the function of centrioles during cell division?

They help organize the mitotic spindle.

What hormone lowers blood calcium levels?

Calcitonin.

What hormone raises blood calcium levels?

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH).

What is the primary component of the organic matrix of bone?

Collagen.

What is the primary inorganic component of bone?

Calcium phosphate.

What is the function of the periosteum?

It serves as the outer covering of bone.

What is the medullary cavity?

The internal cavity of a long bone containing bone marrow.

What are sesamoid bones?

Bones that develop within tendons, commonly near joints.

What is the epiphysis of a long bone?

The expanded end of a long bone.

What is the diaphysis of a long bone?

The shaft or body of a long bone.

What is the function of yellow bone marrow?

Predominantly composed of adipose tissue and serves as energy storage.

What is the role of the nucleolus?

Involved in rRNA production and ribosomal subunit assembly.

What is the significance of the foramen magnum?

It is the large opening through which the spinal cord connects with the brain.

What is the function of the axial skeleton?

To support the head and trunk, and protect the brain and spinal cord.

What is the appendicular skeleton composed of?

Bones of the thoracic and pelvic limbs, including their girdles.

What is the primary function of flat bones?

To provide protection and broad surfaces for muscle attachment.

What is the function of trabecular bone?

It provides structural support and houses bone marrow.

What is the growth plate in long bones called?

Physis or epiphyseal plate.

What are pneumatic bones?

Bones that contain air-filled spaces, reducing skeletal mass.

What is the function of the hard palate?

It separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity.

What is the role of the infraorbital foramen?

It transmits the infraorbital neurovascular structures.

What is the significance of the occipital condyles?

They articulate with the atlas at the atlanto-occipital joints.

What bones are included in the cranial cavity?

Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital bones.

What are the four main types of cranial bones?

Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital bones.

What additional cranial elements contribute to the skull?

Sphenoid and ethmoid bones.

How do paired and unpaired bones differ in the skull?

Frontal, parietal, and temporal bones begin as paired elements; the adult occipital is an unpaired composite bone.

What is the function of facial bones?

They form the framework of the face, nasal cavity, jaws, and part of the palate.

List some facial elements.

Incisive, maxilla, nasal, nasal conchae, palatine, pterygoid, zygomatic, lacrimal, mandible, and vomer.

What is the frontal sinus and its significance?

It extends into the horn core as the animal matures, explaining the connection between horn removal and the sinus.

What distinguishes the nasal bones in pigs?

They have broader rostral ends compared to the slender equine description.

What is unique about upper incisors in pigs?

They are absent; a dental pad occupies the rostral upper jaw.

What is the vertebral arch?

The dorsal arch enclosing the vertebral foramen with the body.

What does the vertebral canal house?

It houses the spinal cord and associated structures.

What are articular processes?

They bear facets that articulate with neighboring vertebrae.

What is the function of transverse processes?

They project laterally and provide attachment sites and region-specific articulations.

What is the spinous process?

It projects dorsally and provides attachment and leverage for muscles and ligaments.

Describe the maxilla in sheep.

It has a convex lateral surface.

What is the significance of the orbit in dogs?

It has an incomplete bony margin, completed by the orbital ligament.

What is the cervical vertebrae count in horses?

7 cervical vertebrae.

How many thoracic vertebrae do cattle have?

13 thoracic vertebrae.

What is the typical count of lumbar vertebrae in pigs?

6 to 7 lumbar vertebrae.

What is the sacral vertebrae count in dogs?

3 sacral vertebrae.

What are floating ribs?

Ribs that have a free ventral end; a subset of asternal ribs.

What is the total individual rib count based on rib pairs?

Total individual ribs = twice the number of rib pairs.

What is the anatomical term for the fused lumbar and sacral elements?

Synsacrum.

What is the significance of the costal groove in ribs?

It is associated with the intercostal vessels and nerve.

What is the role of the scapula?

It is the principal shoulder-girdle element in domestic mammals.

What does the glenoid cavity articulate with?

It articulates with the head of the humerus.

How does the scapular spine differ in horses compared to pigs?

In horses, the scapular spine fades distally and the acromion is absent.

What are asternal ribs?

Ribs that lack an individual direct sternal attachment.

What is the typical vertebral formula for a horse?

C7 T18 L6 S5 Cd15-20.

What is the significance of the intercostal spaces?

They are spaces between adjacent ribs; the number of spaces equals the number of ribs minus one.

What is the general description of the humerus?

A long bone of the brachium or upper arm; articulates proximally with the scapula and distally with the radius and ulna.

What is the bicipital groove?

The intertubercular groove accommodating the tendon of origin of biceps brachii.

How does the horse's humerus differ from that of cattle and sheep?

The horse has an intermediate tubercle that divides the bicipital groove.

What is the function of the olecranon?

It is the proximal projection of the ulna that forms the point of the elbow.

Which bone is the principal weight-bearing forearm bone in domestic mammals?

The radius.

What is the os coxae?

One hip bone, formed by the ilium, ischium, and pubis.

What is the acetabulum?

The socket where the three hip-bone components meet; articulates with the femoral head.

What does the pelvic girdle consist of?

The right and left hip bones together.

What is the significance of the obturator foramen?

It is a large opening bounded by the pubis and ischium.

What distinguishes the femur in horses from that in cattle?

Horses have a prominent third trochanter, while cattle do not.

Define synarthrosis.

A functionally immovable joint.

What is a diarthrosis?

A freely movable joint, typically a synovial joint.

What is the difference between functional and structural classifications of joints?

Functional categories describe movement; structural categories describe construction.

What is a suture in terms of joint classification?

A fibrous joint between skull bones, generally immovable.

What is the main weight-bearing bone of the crus?

The tibia.