AP BIO FINAL !!!

The Oparine - Haldane Hypothesis states that:

Primitive life started with the accumulation of inorganic compounds in the oceans of primitive Earth.

The Miller - Urey Experiment produced ____ by simulating the primitive Earth's atmosphere.

Amino Acids

____ was most likely the first nucleic acid because of its multiple functions, including catalytic function. 

RNA

The artificial production of ___ suggested that life may have been produced by chemicals and not a "life force."

Urea

Antibiotic resistance, Insects growing immune to insecticides, the LTEE project are examples of which kind of evidence that supports evolution?

 

direct observation

Each geologic era/ period begins with a ____ and ends with ____.

adaptive radiation/ mass extinction

Examples on humans include the appendix, muscles that wiggle ears, wisdom teeth and the tailbone. 

vestigial structures

Similarities in DNA, RNA nucleotide sequences, and differences in the number of amino acids

molecular homologies

When did life originate on Earth?

3.8 bya

The Earth's atmosphere consisted of methane, CO, water vapor, ammonia, which was broken apart by  UV radiation along with lightning to make the building blocks of inorganic compounds that make up life. This is a key component of the:

Oparine Haldane Hypothesis

Which statement about allele frequencies is true?

The sum of all allele frequencies is 1

In a hypothetical population of sawflies, 20 percent of the population is homozygous for allele A and 45 percent is homozygous for allele a. Assuming that A and a are the only alleles at this locus, what percent of the population is heterozygous?

35 percent

Assuming that there are only two alleles at a given locus, if the frequency of one allele is 0.6, what is the frequency of the other allele?

0.4

Which is not a condition that must be met for a population to be at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?

Small population size

If a population with two alleles is at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium and the frequency of one allele is 0.7, what is the heterozygote frequency?

0.42

Which statement about the evolution of reproductive isolation is false?

Reproductive isolation evolves at about the same rate in nearly all groups of organisms.

Even trained biologists have difficulty telling females of Drosophila melanogaster and D. sechellia apart, and yet these species are reproductively isolated. Thus, these species are considered _______ species.

cryptic

The biological species concept does not apply to which group of organisms?

Asexual scale insects

Which mode of selection is most likely to lead to an increase in phenotypic variation?

Disruptive selection

Migration of moths is most likely to lead t

gene flow.

Which is not a prezygotic reproductive isolating barrier?

Hybrid infertility

The biological species concept is most closely associated with which scientist?

Ernst Mayr

Larger single-celled organisms require a higher oxygen concentration than smaller ones do because the large cells

have a lower surface area-to-volume ratio.

Which factor did not contribute to the genetic diversification of the Galápagos Island finches studied by Darwin?

The islands are only 100 km from Ecuador, so they receive a continual input of new genes from the mainland.

Which mode of selection operates when individuals at both extremes of the distribution have the highest fitness?

Disruptive selection

Although Darwin’s voyage aboard the HMS Beagle took him around the world, most of his observations on natural history were made on the continent of _______ and its nearby islands.

South America

Natural selection can be defined as

the differential survival and reproduction of individuals.

The Isthmus of Panama cut off gene flow between Atlantic and Pacific populations of a species of fish. The cessation of gene flow led to the accumulation of genetic differences between the populations, which led to reproductive isolation. Now Atlantic and Pacific populations of this fish are separate species, and even if they were again to come into contact with each other, they could not interbreed. This situation illustrates the phenomenon of

allopatric speciation.

What is formed when any two branches diverge in a phylogenetic tree?

A node

Despite inhabiting overlapping ranges, the western spotted skunk and the eastern spotted skunk do not interbreed, partly because the western species breeds in early fall and the eastern species breeds in late winter to early spring. This is an example of _______ isolation.

temporal

The fossil record shows a strong and persistent trend of decreased size of a mussel. What is the most likely cause of this phenomenon?

Directional selection

Which prezygotic isolating mechanism occurs after mating?

Gametic isolation

An evolutionary biologist who makes decisions about whether to consider different populations of lacewings as separate species based on observations of the individuals with which these lacewings will mate is most likely employing the _______ species concept.

biological

The _______ species concept holds that “species are groups of actually or potentially interbreeding natural populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups.”

biological

Which atmospheric gas has substantially increased in concentration in the last 200 years?

Carbon dioxide

Which statement about mechanical isolating mechanisms is false?

They reduce the fitness of hybrids.

Which statement about oxygen and ancient Earth is true?

Early bacteria generated free oxygen as a by-product of the chemical splitting of water.

Which statement about sexual selection is true?

Traits favored by sexual selection are often costly to males.

Which is a limitation of using only morphology to recognize species?

This approach will not distinguish cryptic species.

The appearance of multicellular organisms coincided with increased levels of _______ in Earth’s atmosphere.

oxygen

Which statement about the flow of genetic information is true?

DNA encodes information that is translated into RNA, and RNA encodes information that is translated into proteins.

In what order does a charged tRNA molecule move between the three sites on the ribosome?

 

A, P, E

RNA polymerase uses the _______ DNA template to synthesize a _______ mRNA

3’-to-5’; 5’-to-3’

Termination of transcription involves a

terminator sequence.

Which type of molecule is most involved in the transfer of genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?

mRNA

In eukaryotes, exons are

spliced together from the original transcript.

If a template DNA strand has the base sequence 3¢-GTC…CCA-5¢, what would be the sequence of the corresponding mRNA? [Note: “…” represents an intervening sequence.]

5’-CAG…GGU-3’

In protein synthesis, the endoplasmic reticulum

is the site of translation of membrane-bound and exported proteins.

The direction of synthesis for a new mRNA molecule is _______ from a _______ template strand.

5’-to-3’; 3’-to-5’

The transcription initiation site is located

within the promoter.

After translation, the polypeptide chains of some proteins are cut by a process called

proteolysis

The addition of sugar residues to the protein after translation is called

glycosylation.

Which change affects one and only one amino acid in a sequence?

A missense mutation

The anticodon 3¢-AUC-5¢ would pair with the codon

5¢-UAG-3¢.

Which molecule(s) is/are not required for transcription?

A primer

A transcription factor is _______ that assists transcription by binding to _______.

a protein; the promoter

Transcription is the process by which

an RNA molecule is synthesized from a DNA template.

Which of the following is an example of an epigenetic change?

Methylation of a cytosine

Transcription factors are

proteins that bind to the DNA promoter sequence.

In eukaryotic cells, promoters are

 

neither transcribed nor translated.

What type of molecule is a transcription factor?

Protein

Suppose that there is a mutation in the lac operon that prevents the repressor from binding to the operator. In the absence of lactose (or allolactose), the genes of the operon will be _______. In the presence of lactose (or allolactose), the genes will be _______.

on; on

Which statement about transcription factors is true?

A transcription factor can be an activator or a repressor.

The binding of an enhancer

stimulates transcription of a specific gene.

Which statement about operons is false?

A repressible operon is turned off unless needed.

n eukaryotes, a promoter is the region of

he DNA that binds RNA polymerase.

Recent studies of monozygotic twins have revealed that

methylation patterns become less similar over time.

Human males with Kleinfelter’s syndrome have two X chromosomes (they are XXY). One of the X chromosomes is usually silenced in a process similar to the process that inactivates one copy of X in each cell of XX females. Therefore, a Kleinfelter’s male has _______ Barr body(ies), because _______.

one; the Barr body is the inactive X chromosome

In Drosophila and many other insects, the regions near the centromeres of most chromosomes are largely heterochromatin. These regions, therefore, are likely to be _______ methylated and to have _______ gene activity.

heavily; low to no

Ubiquitin forms a complex with proteins and then binds with _______, forming a sort of “molecular chamber of doom” where proteins are digested into small peptides and amino acids.

the proteasome

Which of the following acts as a corepressor to block transcription of the trp operon?

Tryptophan

The presence of a Barr body indicates

X chromosome inactivation.

A DNA sequence is several thousands of nucleotides distant from the promoter. When this sequence is bound by a protein, transcription rates increase greatly. This sequence is most likely a(n)

enhancer

Two identical twins who showed very similar methylation patterns when they were 4 years old show very divergent patterns at age 40. This divergence is most likely due to

environmental differences that they experienced as adults.

The complete phenotype of an organism is dependent on

All of the above

The genotype of an organism that expresses a dominant trait can be determined by

crossing the organism with a homozygous recessive organism.

Each diploid cell of a human female contains how many of each type of chromosome?

2

Mendel performed a cross between individuals heterozygous for three different traits: green versus yellow seeds (green is dominant), red versus white flowers (red is dominant), and green versus yellow pods (green is dominant). What fraction of the offspring would have been expected to have green seeds, red flowers, and green pods?

27/64

In cocker spaniels, black color (B) is dominant over red (b), and solid color (S) is dominant over spotted (s). If the genes are unlinked, and the offspring of BBss and bbss individuals are mated with each other, what fraction of the next generation will be black and spotted?

3/4

Morgan demonstrated that white eye color in Drosophila is carried recessively on the X chromosome (recall that females are XX and males are XY). Which of the following best describes the offspring of a heterozygous (carrier) female and a white-eyed male?

Half of the daughters and sons have white eyes.

Mitotic prophase differs from prophase I of meiosis in that

crossing over is characteristic of prophase I of meiosis but not of mitotic prophase.

Which method was not used by Mendel in his study of the genetics of the garden pea?

Chromosomal mapping

Meiosis can occur

in all sexually reproducing organisms

In a particular diploid organism, somatic cells have 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be present in the gametes of that organism?

12

The four haploid nuclei found at the end of meiosis differ from one another in their exact genetic composition. Some of this difference is the result of

crossing over during prophase I.

Which statement about meiosis and mitosis is true?

The products of meiosis can be different from one another, while the products of mitosis are all the same (except for rare mutations).

In an organism with a diploid number of 8, a gamete has _______ chromosomes and a liver cell has _______ chromosomes.

4; 8

How does mitotic prophase differ from prophase I of meiosis?

Crossing over is characteristic of prophase I of meiosis but not of mitotic prophase.

The exchange of genetic material between chromatids on homologous chromosomes occurs during

 

prophase I.

A particular genetic cross in which the individual in question is crossed with an individual known to be homozygous for a recessive trait is referred to as a

test cross.

A diploid human cell normally has 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes, but as a woman ages, the chances of nondisjunction increase. Imagine that a gamete is produced that received two homologues of chromosome 21 that had failed to separate during telophase II. If the gamete is fertilized with a normal sperm, the embryo’s cells will contain _______ chromosomes.

47

The total DNA content of each daughter cell is reduced during meiosis because

chromosomes do not replicate between meiosis I and II.

If a trait that is not expressed in the F₁ generation reappears in the F₂ generation, the inheritance of the trait in question is an example of

dominance and recessiveness.

A human male carrying an allele for a trait on the X chromosome is

Hemizygous

The site on the chromosome occupied by a gene is called a(n)

Locus

Which statement about a test cross is false?

If the test individual is homozygous, the progeny will have a 3:1 ratio.

Down syndrome can be diagnosed by means of an examination of the individual’s

Karyotype

The fact that most monosomies and trisomies are lethal to human embryos illustrates the

importance of the orderly distribution of genetic material during meiosis.

One difference between mitosis and meiosis I is that

homologous chromosome pairs synapse during meiosis but not during mitosis.

When a dihybrid black, normal-winged fly is crossed with a double-recessive gray, vestigial-winged fly, the frequency with which black vestigial-winged and gray normal-winged flies are seen in the progeny is called the _______ frequency.

recombination