SET 2 VOLUME 5 CDCs

d. destroy or suppress the growth of infecting microorganisms so that the body's normal defenses can gain control

What is the goal of antimicrobial therapy?

a. provide an aseptic environment in the body

b. suppress microorganism reproduction so that the infection dies off naturally

c. eradicate all microorganisms from the body so that body functions may return to normal

d. destroy or suppress the growth of infecting microorganisms so that the body's natural defenses can gain control

a. disrupting bacterial DNA

Which of the following is NOT a way that antimicrobial agents exert bacteriostatic or bactericidal effects?

a. disrupting bacterial DNA

b. inhibition of protein synthesis

c. inhibition of essential metabolite synthesis

d. disrupting bacterial membrane permeability

c. gram positive

What classification is given when staining dye is applied to the bacterial cell and is clearly visible under microscopic inspection?

a. broad spectrum

b. narrow spectrum

c. gram positive

d. gram negative

a. organ impairment

Which of the following is a host factor that must be considered before initiating antimicrobial therapy?

a. organ impairment

b. drug penetration

c. infection location

d. elimination rate

a. penicillin

What antibiotic was the first to be commercially produced?

a. penicillin

b. ampicillin

c. cephalexin

d. erythromycin

c. spectrum of activity

How are penicillins grouped?

a. allergic reactions

b. rate of absorption

c. spectrum of activity

d. route of administration

a. renders penicillin useless

What does beta-lactamase do?

a. renders penicillin useless

b. extends the spectrum of penicillins

c. reduces allergic reactions to penicillins

d. reduces the incidence of penicillin-induced diarrhea

c. actively growing cells

What must be present in a bacterial cell in order for penicillin to be effective?

a. penicillinase

b. beta-lactamase

c. actively growing cells

d. double-stranded DNA

a. higher and prolonged penicillin blood levels

What interaction results when probenecid is given concomitantly with penicillin?

a. higher and prolonged penicillin blood levels

b. decreased penicillin blood levels

c. penicillin levels approach toxicity

d. penicillin is inactivated

c. oxacillin

Which of the following drugs is a penicillinase resistant penicillin?

a. amoxicillin

b. ampicillin

c. oxacillin

d. piperacillin

d. penicillin g

Which form of penicillin is the dosage form of choice in severe infections when rapid and high penicillin levels are required?

a. ampicillin

b. carbenicillin

c. penicillin v

d. penicillin g

a. cephalosporins

To which class of antibiotic does penicillin have cross-allergenicity?

a. cephalosporins

b. tetracyclines

c. sulfonamides

d. macrolides

a. cephalexin

Which of the following cephalosporins is indicated in the treatment of otitis media?

a. cephalexin

b. cefazolin

c. cephapirin

d. cefoxitin

d. fourth

Into which generation does cefpodoxime fall?

a. first

b. second

c. third

d. fourth

c. hypothrombinemic effects of anticoagulants may be increased

What interaction occurs when cephalosporins and anticoagulants are given concomitantly?

a. cephalosporins are inactivated

b. cephalosporin levels may reach toxicity

c. hypothrombinemic effects of anticoagulants may be increased

d. hypothrombinemic effects of anticoagulants may be decreased

d. erythromycin

Which macrolide is indicated in the treatment of UTIs?

a. azithromycin

b. clarithromycin

c. dirithromycin

d. erythromycin

a. digoxin concentrations may be elevated

What interaction occurs between macrolides and digoxin?

a. digoxin concentrations may be elevated

b. digoxin concentrations may be decreased

c. macrolides may be less effective

d. macrolide levels may reach toxicity

d. tetracyclines

Which class of antibiotic is considered to be the first truly "broad spectrum" antibiotics?

a. cephalosporins

b. macrolides

c. penicillins

d. tetracyclines

b. interference with protein synthesis

How do tetracyclines perform their function?

a. interference with cell wall formation

b. interference with protein synthesis

c. destruction of cellular DNA

d. destruction of cellular wall

c. absorption is reduced by approximately 50 percent

What effect does food and/or milk have on the GI absorption of most tetracyclines?

a. no effect on absorption

b. absorption is increased by approximately 50 percent

c. absorption is decreased by approximately 50 percent

d. absorption is nullified

b. permanent discoloration

What effect does tetracycline have on tooth development?

a. temporary discoloration

b. permanent discoloration

c. improved resistance to tooth decay

d. decreased resistance to tooth decay

d. tetracycline absorption and effectiveness is decreased

What interaction occurs when tetracyclines are given with iron preparations?

a. iron toxicity may occur

b. tetracycline toxicity may occur

c. tetracycline absorption and effectiveness is increased

d. tetracycline absorption and effectiveness is decreased

a. synthesize folic acid

What must an organism do to be susceptible to the actions of sulfonamides?

a. synthesize folic acid

b. not synthesize folic acid

c. not require any folic acid

d. require exogenous folic acid

d. trimethorprim

What antibiotic is combined with sulfamethoxazole to treat UTIs, bronchitis, and cholera?

a. azithromycin

b. erythromycin

c. sulfisoxazole

d. trimethoprim

b. otitis media

What is the main indication for erythromycin/sulfisoxazole?

a. UTIs

b. otitis media

c .bronchitis

d. sinusitis

c. the sulfonamides are structurally related and may cause similar reactions

Why should caution be used when giving sulfonamides with known allergic reactions to thiazide diuretics?

a. the antibacterial action could enhance any allergic reaction

b. the antibacterial action could inactivate any emergency medication

c. the sulfonamides are structurally related and may cause similar reactions

d. genes causing diuretic allergies make patients hypersensitive to antibiotics

b. fluorine

What type of molecule was added to an older medication to make fluoquinolones?

a. fluoride

b. fluorine

c. quinine

d. quinam

b. 2-6 hours

How long does the post-antibiotic effect of fluoroquinolones last?

a. 1-3 hours

b. 2-6 hours

c. 12-16 hours

d. 20-24 hours

c. increased chance of theophylline toxicity

What interaction occurs with concomitant usage of fluoroquinolones and theophylline?

a. increased chance of fluoroquinolone toxicity

b. decreased fluoroquinolone effectiveness

c. increased chance of theophylline toxicity

d. decreased theophylline effectiveness

b. gram-negative

What class of bacteria do aminoglycosides primarily treat?

a. gram-positive

b. gram-negative

c. broad-spectrum

d. third generation

a. gentamycin

Which parental aminoglycoside is the most widely used?

a. gentamycin

b. lincomycin

c. tobramycin

d. vancomycin

a. ototoxicity

Why is gentamicin not indicated for long-term therapy?

a. ototoxicity

b. allergic reactions

c. loss of effectiveness

d. weakening of the immune system

b. dexamethasone

Which anti-inflammatory is often added to ophthalmic tobramycin to treat infections of the cornea or conjunctiva?

a. betamethasone

b. dexamethasone

c. fluticasone

d. triamcinolone

d. by interfering with bacterial carbohydrate metabolism

How does nitrofurantoin exert its bactericidal effects?

a. by destroying bacterial RNA

b. interfering with protein synthesis

c. by blocking the uptake of folic acid

d. by interfering with bacterial carbohydrate metabolism

d. pulmonary

What bodily function may be permanently impaired following chronic use of nitrofurantoin for 1-6 months?

a. optic

b. renal

c. nervous

d. pulmonary

a. anticholinergics

What class of drug increases nitrofurantoin bioavailability by delaying gastric emptying and increasing absorption?

a. anticholinergics

b. anticonvulsants

c. proton pump inhibitors

d. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID)

d. when the merozoites are released into the bloodstream

In what stage of the infection do malaria symptoms appear>

a. within six hours after exposure

b. 24 hours after exposure

c. when the sporozoites enter the bloodstream

d. when the merozoites are released into the bloodstream

a. quinine

What was the first antimalaria drug to be discovered?

a. quinine

b. mefloquine

c. chloroquine

d. hydroxychloroquine

b. quinidine

What isomer of quinine is also used as an antiarrythmic?

a. quinicrine

b. quinidine

c. chloroquine

d. mefloquine

b. the anticoagulant action is increased

How do quinine and oral anticoagulants interact?

a. the anticoagulant action is decreased

b. the anticoagulant action is increased

c. quinine action is decreased

d. quinine action is increased

c. vermicides

What term is given to drugs that kill intestinal worms?

a. antihelmintics

b. pediculosides

c. vermicides

d. vermifuges

c. blocks glucose uptake

How does mebendazole perform its antihelmintic action?

a. paralyzation

b. chemical sterilization

c. blocks glucose uptake

d. inactivation of oxygen transformation

d. pinworm

Treatment of which parasite consists of only one dose of mebendazole?

a. roundworm

b. hookworm

c. whipworm

d. pinworm

d. mebendazole effectiveness is decreased

What interactions occurs between mebendazole and hydantoins?

a. hydantoin toxicity is increased

b. hydantoin effectiveness is decreased

c. mebendazole toxicity is increased

d. mebendazole effectiveness is decreased

a. paralyzation

How does pyrantel perform its anthelmintic action?

a. paralyzation

b. chemical sterilization

c. blocks glucose uptake

d. inactivation of oxygen transformation

a. increased theophylline levels

What interaction may occur between pyrantel and theophylline?

a. increased theophylline levels

b. decreased theophylline levels

c. increased pyrantel toxicity

d. decreased pyrantel effectiveness

c. first pass effect in the liver

How is valacyclovir converted to acyclovir?

a. neurotransmitter conversion at receptor sites

b. enzyme breakdown in the stomach

c. first pass effect in the liver

d. virus-cell metabolization

c. disrupts cellular DNA replication

How does acyclovir cause herpes simplex virus cell death?

a. breaks down cell wall

b. destroys cellular RNA

c. disrupts cellular DNA replication

d. inhibits cellular protein synthesis

c. penciclovir

Which of the following antivirals is not used orally due to poor absorption?

a. acyclovir

b. famciclovir

c. penciclovir

d. valacyclovir

b. the concentration of digoxin increases

What interaction occurs between famciclovir and digoxin?

a. the concentration of digoxin decreases

b. the concentration of digoxin increases

c. famciclovir is inactivated

d. famciclovir toxicity is increased

c. zidovudine

Which of the following antiretroviral agents acts by inhibiting the DNA of HIV?

a. indinavir

b. ritonavir

c. zidovudine

d. saquinavir

d. drug interactions for herbal medications will be similar to prescription medications for the same disorder

What drug interaction information holds true for all herbal medications?

a. patients taking antibiotics should not use herbal medications

b. alcohol may cause excessive drowsiness when taken with herbal medications

c. liver toxicity is increased when taking acetaminophen concomitantly with herbal medications

d. drug interactions for herbal medications will be similar to prescription medications for the same disorder

c. cyclosporine

Which of the following medications is most likely to interact with echinacea purpurea?

a. digoxin

b. dipyridamole

c. cyclosporine

d. oral contraceptives

b. kava kava

Which herbal medication is considered to be the most relaxing?

a. ginseng

b. kava kava

c. gingko biloba

d. saw palmetto

c. saw palmetto

Which herbal medication inhibits androgen and estrogen receptor activity to help balance hormones?

a. ginseng

b. kava kava

c. saw palmetto

d. gingko biloba

d. drowsiness

Which of the following is not a side effect of ephedra/ma huang?

a. peripheral vasoconstriction

b. blood pressure elevation

c. cardiac stimulation

d. drowsiness

c. Epinephrine

Which emergency medication is produced in the adrenal medulla and is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation when defibrillation fails?

a .procainamide

b. lidocaine

c. epinephrine

d. bretylium

a. bretylium

Which emergency medication is used to treat ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia that is resistant to other medications and defibrillation?

a. bretylium

b. epinephrine

c. lidocaine

d. procainamide

a. atropine

Which of the following emergency medications is a parasympatholytic used to treat bradycardia with myocardial ischemia?

a. atropine

b. epinephrine

c. isoproterenol

d. propranolol

a. arterial hypotension

What adverse reaction may result when excessive doses of isoproterenol are administered?

a. arterial hypotension

b. arterial hypertension

c. peripheral vasoconstriction

d. acute systolic bradycardia

d. propranolol

Which beta-blocker is most extensively used to control symptomatic supraventricular tachyarrythmias?

a. atenolol

b. esmolol

c. levobunolol

d. propranolol

b. epinephrine

What is the most valuable drug for emergency treatment of severe allergic reactions?

a. atropine

b. epinephrine

c. chlorpheniramine

d. diphenhydramine

b. gangrene

What condition may occur if epinephrine is injected intramuscularly into the buttocks?

a. paralysis

b. gangrene

c. hypertension

d. anaphylactic shock

c. when self-test glucose levels are high

When should insulin-dependent diabetics test their urine ketones?

a. weekly

b. monthly

c. when self-test glucose levels are high

d. when self-test glucose levels are low

c. a whistling sound comes from the mouthpiece

When using a bag-type device with a metered dose inhaler, what signals that the patient is inhaling too quickly?

a. the bag collapses on itself

b. a bitter taste in the patient's mouth

c. a whistling sound comes from the mouthpiece

d. medication will not pass through the mouthpiece

d. snake venom

Which of the following is an example of a natural poison?

a. digitalis

b. warfarin

c. ammonia

d. snake venom

b. ingestion

Which route of entry for poisons accounts for almost 90 percent of all poisoning accidents?

a. injection

b. ingestion

c. inhalation

d. absorption

b. floor polish

Which of the following substances is an example of a petroleum-like poison?

a. fertilizer

b. floor polish

c. paint remover

d. photographic developer

d. corrosives will do more damage to the lining of the throat and mouth when vomited

Why do you not have a patient vomit after ingesting a corrosive poison?

a. vomit-inducing agents adversely react with corrosives

b. corrosives will not pass upward through the esophageal sphincter

c. corrosives are more easily inactivated in the stomach

d. corrosives will do more damage to the lining of the throat and mouth when vomited

b. the inhaled fumes may cause pneumonia

What may occur if petroleum-like products are vomited?

a. excessive irritation of the esophagus

b. the inhaled fumes may cause pneumonia

c. permanent damage to the lining of the mouth

d. petroleum-like products mix with digestive fluids to form a gel, possibly causing choking

b. move the victim to fresh air

What is the first thing you should do for an inhaled poison victim?

a. check the airway

b. move the victim to fresh air

c. call the poison control center

d. begin CPR

a. use an eyecup to cleanse the eye

For an absorbed poisoning of the eye, which of the following should you NOT do?

a. use an eyecup to cleanse the eye

b. remove the victim's contact lenses

c. hold the victim's eye open to flush it

d. use drinking fountain water to flush the eye

d. five to ten times as much as the suspect amount of poison

What amount of activated charcoal must be used to treat poisonings?

a. one-half the suspected amount of poison

b. equal to that of the suspected amount of poison

c. twice as much as the suspected amount of poison

d. five to ten times as much as the suspected amount of poison

c. chlorpromazine

What is the drug of choice in pure amphetamine poisoning?

a. diazepam

b. phenobarbital

c. chlorpromazine

d. proclorpromazine

a. cerebral edema

What condition is common in poisonings due to sedatives, carbon monoxide, lead, and other central nervous system depressants?

a. cerebral edema

b. renal failure

c. liver disease

d. blindness