Micro final review

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150 Terms

1
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Both members of a symbiotic relationship benefit from each other

False

2
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The bacterium that causes tuberculosis can be expelled from the lungs by a cough and remain viable in the air for an hour or more. If a person inhales the bacteria from the air, what type of transmission has occurred?

airborne

3
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Retroviruses require the activity of ____ to complete their infection cycle.

reverse transcriptase

4
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small circular RNA molecules without capsids are characteristic of

viroids

5
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A _____ is a virus that infects bacterial cells.

bacteriophage

6
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An example of direct contact transmission

saliva exchanged during a kiss

7
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Normal microbiota may cause disease if they are introduced into an unusual site in the body

True

8
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A bacterium inhabits the human nasal cavity where it obtains nutrients from secretions. It neither harms nor benefits the host. The relationship is therefore a(n) _____ one.

commensal

9
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Vomiting is a common sign of food poisoning. The corresponding symptom would be

nausea

10
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Virus replication results in the death of the cell in____infection(s)

a lytic

11
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The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci is found in the lungs of most people in low numbers, but in immunocompromised people it overgrows, resulting in severe respiratory problems. The fungus is best described as

both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen

12
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Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission?

cockroach transmission of Shigella

13
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Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?

The genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic phage

14
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Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is an example of a prion disease

True

15
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The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the united states was 12.43/100,000. This means

there were 12.43 new cases of tuberculosis for every 100,000 people in the United States in the year 2000

16
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What is the correct order for the stages of a lytic replication cycle, from the earliest to latest? I. Synthesis, II. Assembly, III. Attachment, IV. Release, V. Entry

III, V, I, II, IV

17
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In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel H1N1 influenza in the United States. By summer, confirmed cases exceeded 40,000. The pattern represents a(n) ____ disease.

epidemic

18
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How are prions different from all other known infectious agents?

They lack nucleic acid

19
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An infection always leads to disease

False

20
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Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process?

incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence

21
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Which of the following is an accurate description of a virion?

an infectious particle of protein and nucleic acid outside of a host cell

22
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The process known as ___ is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses

budding

23
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Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota?

Microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy

24
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A syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs that collectively characterize a particular disease

True

25
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Symptoms are

subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel

26
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The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as

the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus

27
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The process of phagocytosis involves all of the following EXCEPT

secretion of cytotoxins

28
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Opsonization is

the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis

29
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The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

30
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Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?

tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes

31
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The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to

both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection

32
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Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream?

monocyte

33
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Cells of the second line of defense called___ recognize and kill virus infected cells.

NK cells

34
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The growth of some microbes is inhibited by elevated body temperature.

True

35
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The normal habitat of ____ is rodents, but humans bitten by fleas carrying pathogen develop fever, severely inflamed lymph nodes, headache, and possibly black necrotic tissue.

Yersinia pestis

36
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A bull’s eye rash appearance is characteristic of infections with which of the following?

Borrelia burgdoferi

37
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A child complains of intensely itchy pimples between the fingers and wrists in crowded and unsanitary conditions. The child may have an infection associated with

Sacroptes scabiei

38
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Poliovirus is difficult to control in Africa and Asia due to

All of the above

39
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Most cases of necrotizing faciitis are caused by

Streptococcus pyogenes

40
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Spreading black necrosis, swelling, pain and froth or bubbles are characteristic of

gas gangrene

41
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Dengue hemorrhagic fever is the result of

a hyperimmune response to reinfection with dengue virus

42
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Botulism toxin disrupts motor control by

preventing the release of acetylcholine (ACh) by motor neurons into the synapse

43
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Rabies is a zoonotic disease common in many species of mammal including domesticated animals.

True

44
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The signs and symptoms of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome are caused by

exfoliative toxins

45
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Contaminated food is the source of ____, which causes meningitis in susceptible persons.

Listeria monocytogenes

46
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Smallpox was the first human disease to be

globally eradicated

47
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Shingles, or herpes zoster, is a reactivation of the virus that causes

chickenpox

48
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Fungi rarely infect the central nervous system

True

49
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Common skin warts are the result of infection with

papillomaviruses

50
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A specific wavelength of UVA can be used to treat

acne

51
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Viral meningitis is usually more serious than bacterial meningitis

False

52
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Bird watchers notice more birds dying one summer while human encephalitis cases increase sharply. Similar enveloped RNA virus particles are found in both. Which of the following might be responsible?

an arbovirus

53
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The highly destructive form of Hansen’s disease is the result of

cellular immune response to Mycobacterium leprae

54
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Which of the following is/are transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?

both dengue and yellow fever

55
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Infection with Schistosoma is acquired by

wading or swimming in fresh water

56
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Which of the following is a complication that may result from a streptococcus pyogenes skin infection?

erysipelas

57
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An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a

sty

58
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Both bubonic and pneumonic plague cause the formation of buboes and tissue necrosis of the extremities

False

59
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What is the pathogenic process underlying Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

damage to blood vessels

60
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How does tetanospasmin affect motor control?

It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS

61
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A herpetic lesion on the finger or hand is known as a

whitlow

62
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Vegetation are associated with which of the following disease processes?

endocarditis

63
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An intracellular parasite primarily transmitted as an STD is the agent of ____, which may cause enough damage to result in blindness.

trachoma

64
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The leading cause of neonatal meningitis is exposure to a Gram-positive bacterium during vaginal birth:

Streptococcus agalactiae

65
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Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?

visceral

66
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Primary infection with Epstein-Barr virus is known as

infectious mononucleosis

67
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The pleomorphic bacterium ____ is an obligate parasite due to its requirement for NAD+ and heme

Haemophilus influenzae

68
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Which of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma infection is correct?

it is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat

69
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The terms bacteremia and septicemia are synonymous

False

70
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Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is

the third line of defense

71
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Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provide a basis for the alternative name?

To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the epitope for which they are specific

72
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Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as ____ responses

memory

73
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The most prevalent antibody class in the body is

IgG

74
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The lymphocytes of adaptive immunity called___mature in the red bone marrow.

B cells

75
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Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT?

the spleen

76
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Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is False?

They live for many years and function as memory cells

77
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How does aspirin act to decrease the symptoms of inflammation?

it acts as an antiprostaglandin

78
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The adaptive immune response requires exposure to specific epitopes for activation

True

79
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What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it?

display of epitope-MHC I complexes on the surface of the cell

80
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Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE?

T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules

81
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Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders?

the mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells

82
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Cell-mediated immunity is a function of

T lymphocytes

83
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Which of the following is NOT an example of a walled-off site of infection that contains a fluid made of dead and dying tissue cells, leukocytes, and pathogens?

a tumor

84
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What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease?

naturally acquired active immunity

85
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The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of

innate immunity

86
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Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysosome.

True

87
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A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants

False

88
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Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE?

They can penetrate host cells to bind intercellular antigens

89
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Acute inflammation response is normally beneficial.

True

90
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The second line of defense against invading microbes includes

Phagocytic white blood cells

91
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Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes?

interleukins

92
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Jess has A- blood type, has never received a blood transfusion, and has never been pregnant. Antibodies against what blood antigens will be present in Jess’ blood?

B antigens

93
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White blood cells such as lymphocytes arise in which of the following?

bone marrow

94
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An individual was accidentally exposed to hepatitis A virus and was injected with antibodies against the external proteins of the virus. This is an example of which of the following?

artificially acquired passive immunotherapy

95
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Dendritic cells are found in which of the following locations?

epidermis

96
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Attenuation is

the process of reducing a pathogen’s virulence

97
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The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

98
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The redness, swelling and itching of urticaria is due to____ release.

histamine

99
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Both live and killed vaccines require multiple booster doses to provide full immunity.

False

100
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Clumping caused by antibody-antigen reactions is called

agglutination