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Comprehensive practice flashcards for PSYCH 140 Chapter 5 covering the biopsychosocial model, stress, personality, coronary heart disease, health-impairing habits, obesity, nutrition, exercise, HIV/AIDS, reactions to illness, and psychoactive drug effects.
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How did the primary causes of death shift in the United States between the early twentieth century and the early twenty-first century?
Mortality shifted from contagious diseases caused by specific infectious agents (such as measles, pneumonia, or tuberculosis) to chronic diseases that develop across many years (such as heart disease, cancer, and stroke).
What changes occurred in life expectancy for a child born in the United States between 1900, 2019, and 2020?
Life expectancy was 47.3 years in 1900, rose to 78.8 years in 2019, and then declined by one year to 77.8 years in 2020 due to the Covid-19 pandemic.

According to the biopsychosocial model illustrated in this diagram, what three categories of factors interact to influence physical health and illness?
Biological factors (such as genetic predisposition and physiological reactivity), psychological factors (such as stress, coping tactics, and personality), and social system factors (such as medical care, sanitation, and social support).
What is health psychology, and when did this subfield emerge within psychology?
Health psychology is concerned with how psychosocial factors relate to the promotion and maintenance of health and with the causation, prevention, and treatment of illness; it emerged in the late 1970s.
What rank did the Covid-19 virus reach among the leading causes of death in the United States by the end of 2020?
It became the third leading cause of death, behind only heart disease and cancer.
What is 'long Covid,' and what symptoms characterize this condition?
A condition in a subset of Covid-19 patients marked by persistent symptoms—such as shortness of breath, neurological and memory deficits, fatigue, headaches, and dizziness—lasting weeks or months following initial infection.
What does the concept of medical rationing refer to in healthcare, and how did it affect disabled individuals during the Covid-19 pandemic?
Medical rationing involves regulating and distributing scarce medical resources (such as ventilators); during the pandemic, triage guidelines often exhibited ableism by prioritizing young, nondisabled patients over disabled people who were deemed lower priority.

Based on data regarding the leading causes of death across ethnic groups in the United States, how does the number-one cause of death for Asian Americans differ from the other three groups?
Cancer is the number-one cause of death for Asian Americans, whereas heart disease is the number-one cause of death for European Americans, Hispanic Americans, and African Americans.
What is coronary heart disease, and what percentage of heart-related deaths does it account for?
Coronary heart disease results from a reduction in blood flow through the coronary arteries that supply the heart with blood, causing about 90% of all heart-related deaths.

What progressive cardiovascular condition is depicted in stages (a) through (c), and what causes it?
Atherosclerosis, a gradual narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by an accumulation of fatty deposits, cholesterol, and cellular debris on the inner arterial walls.
What are myocardial ischemia and angina?
Myocardial ischemia is a condition in which the heart is temporarily deprived of adequate blood flow due to narrowed coronary arteries, often accompanied by brief chest pain called angina.
What occurs during a myocardial infarction?
A full-fledged heart attack occurs when a coronary artery is blocked completely (e.g., by a blood clot), abruptly interrupting blood flow to the heart.
How does the timeline of cardiovascular disease emergence typically compare between women and men?
Cardiovascular diseases are just as fatal for women as for men, but they tend to emerge in women about 10 years later than in men due to physiology and lifestyle.
What are the three core elements of the Type A personality identified by Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman?
How do Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman describe the Type B personality pattern?
Type B personality is marked by relatively relaxed, patient, easygoing, and amicable behavior, with less hurriedness and less competitiveness than Type A.
Which specific component of the Type A personality has emerged as the strongest predictor of coronary heart disease?
Anger and hostility, particularly cynical hostility.
How does the psychological definition of hostility differ from the concept of anger?
Anger is an unpleasant emotion accompanied by physiological arousal, whereas hostility involves a persistent social attitude marked by cynical, mistrusting thoughts and overtly aggressive actions toward others.
What did Williams et al. (2000) discover regarding trait anger levels and the relative risk of coronary events among individuals with normal blood pressure?
Participants with a moderate anger level showed a 36% increase in coronary attacks, and those with a high level of anger nearly tripled their risk for coronary disease compared to low-anger participants.

What does this graph demonstrate regarding anger levels and the relative risk of coronary events?
It illustrates a direct association where moderate anger increases coronary attack risk by 36% and high anger nearly triples coronary risk relative to low anger.

According to the model illustrated here, what four mechanisms link cynical hostility and anger to an increased incidence of coronary heart disease?
What is the Type D personality, and what two dimensions does it combine?
Type D ('distressed') personality combines negative affectivity (irritability, gloominess, worry) with social inhibition (excessive reserve, suppressing emotions for fear of disapproval or rejection).
How is the Type D personality assessed on Johan Denollet's 14-item scale?
Seven items measure negative emotionality and seven measure social inhibition; individuals scoring 10 points or higher on both subscales are classified as having a Type D personality.
What is the estimated prevalence of the Type D personality among cardiac patients compared to the general public?
It is estimated to be between 18% and 53% among cardiac patients, compared to approximately 21% in the general public.
How does depression affect a person's vulnerability to coronary heart disease?
Depression roughly doubles the chances of developing heart disease, acting as an emotional dysfunction that can contribute to cardiac disease rather than just being a reaction to it.
What is cancer, and how is its core pathology described?
Cancer is a collection of over 200 related diseases characterized by malignant cell growth, in which cells reproduce rapidly and out of control, clumping into tumors that cause tissue damage and impair organ functioning.
What does research conclude about the link between personality traits/stress and the onset versus the course of cancer?
Evidence linking personality traits (such as a 'Type C' cancer-prone personality) or stress to the onset of cancer is extremely weak, but stress and coping responses do influence the course of the disease.
Can psychological coping interventions prolong survival or extend the quantity of life for cancer patients?
No; while psychological interventions enhance quality of life and coping, research does not suggest that they prolong life or extend survival rates.
What did Sheldon Cohen's virus inoculation experiments reveal about stress and susceptibility to the common cold?
Volunteers intentionally inoculated with cold viruses were significantly more likely to develop a cold if they reported higher levels of psychological stress, whereas social and agreeable individuals were at lower risk.
What is the immune response, and what role does it play in the body?
The immune response is the body's defensive reaction to invasion by bacteria, viral agents, or other foreign substances, working to protect the body against disease.

Why does the correlation between high stress and high illness not prove that stress directly causes illness?
The relationship is correlational and may be driven by third variables—such as underlying personality traits, physiological predispositions, or memory biases—or by stress leading to health-impairing behaviors.
What did Janice Kiecolt-Glaser's study of medical students during final exams demonstrate regarding stress and immunity?
Students exhibited significantly reduced immune system activity during the high-stress final exam week compared to baseline samples taken a month earlier, with lower immune activity correlating with higher SRRS life-stress scores.
According to an analysis by Pilar et al. (2020), what percentage of all deaths in the United States in 2017 was attributable to unhealthy behaviors?
Unhealthy behaviors were responsible for approximately 57% of all deaths.
What four factors explain why people engage in self-destructive, health-impairing habits?
What is unrealistic optimism in the context of health-related behaviors?
A cognitive bias wherein people recognize that certain habits are dangerous but mistakenly believe that bad outcomes happen only to other people, underestimating their personal risk.
How does the annual mortality caused by cigarette smoking compare to other preventable causes of death combined?
Cigarettes cause more deaths each year in the United States than suicides, car accidents, homicides, alcohol, illegal drugs, firearm-related incidents, and AIDS combined.

According to this anatomical diagram of health risks, what are the three leading causes of death in the modern world elevated by smoking?
Heart attacks (smoking more than doubles risks), cancer (such as lung, larynx, oral, esophageal, and bladder), and stroke.

What overall trend in smoking prevalence among U.S. adults since the mid-1960s is depicted in this graph?
Smoking prevalence has declined steadily for both males and females, dropping from over 50% for males and over 30% for females to below 15% by 2020.
How many chemicals are contained in tobacco smoke, and how many are known carcinogens?
Tobacco smoke contains approximately 7000 chemicals, at least 70 of which are known cancer-causing agents (carcinogens).
By how much does the life expectancy of an average smoker differ from that of a comparable nonsmoker?
The average smoker has an estimated life expectancy that is 10 years shorter than that of a similar nonsmoker.
By what percentage does quitting smoking before the age of 40 reduce the risk of dying from smoking-related diseases?
It reduces the risk of dying from smoking-related diseases by approximately 90%.
What are the long-term success rates for people attempting to quit smoking, and how do formal programs compare to self-quitting?
Long-term success rates are around 25%; formal programs are only slightly more successful than self-quitting, and the vast majority of successful quitters quit on their own.

According to this pie chart on types of adult drinkers in the United States, what proportion of adults are current drinkers versus lifetime abstainers?
61% of adults are current drinkers (49% regular, 12% infrequent), while 25% are lifetime abstainers (and 14% are former drinkers).
How is binge drinking defined, and how prevalent is it among college students?
Binge drinking is defined as consuming 5 or more drinks in one sitting; approximately 49% of college men and 41% of college women report binge drinking with the intention of getting drunk.
What proportion of all automobile fatalities in the United States is estimated to involve alcohol consumption?
Alcohol is estimated to contribute to 40% of all automobile fatalities.
What is alcohol use disorder (alcoholism)?
A chronic, progressive disorder marked by a growing compulsion to drink and impaired control over drinking that eventually interferes with health and social behavior.
How many deaths are attributed annually to alcohol misuse in the United States and worldwide?
About 95,000 deaths each year in the United States, and approximately 3.3 million deaths annually across the globe.
How is Body Mass Index (BMI) calculated, and what values define overweight, obesity, and severe obesity?
BMI is weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared (kg/m2); overweight is 25.0–29.9, obese is over 30, and severely obese is over 40.
What did twin studies by Allison et al. (1994) reveal about the genetic contribution to body weight variation?
Genetic factors account for approximately 61% of the variation in weight among men and 73% of the variation among women.
How does set-point theory explain the regulation of body weight?
Set-point theory proposes that the body monitors fat-cell levels to maintain a specific natural point of stability, compensating for weight loss through increased hunger and decreased metabolic rate.
How does settling-point theory differ from set-point theory regarding long-term weight loss?
Settling-point theory posits that body weight drifts around the equilibrium of one's food intake and energy expenditure; long-term dietary or activity changes allow the settling point to shift downward without active physiological resistance.
How many excess calories must a person burn to lose 1 pound of body weight?
A person must burn 3500 more calories than they consume to lose 1 pound of weight.
What are the two major surgical procedures used for severe obesity, and how do they function?
Gastric banding places an adjustable band around the stomach to reduce its capacity; gastric bypass surgically reroutes food around most of the stomach and part of the small intestine.
What are the six essential nutrients required for human physical well-being?
Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals, and fiber.
What major criticism was leveled against the 1992 USDA food guide pyramid that Walter Willett's healthy eating model addressed?
The original USDA pyramid failed to distinguish between healthy and unhealthy fats (e.g., polyunsaturated vs. saturated) and between complex and refined carbohydrates.
What are the recommended exercise guidelines for healthy adults aged 18 to 65 established by Haskell et al. (2007)?
30 minutes of moderate physical activity 5 days a week, or 20 minutes of vigorous physical activity 3 times a week.
What central thesis does Sue Stuart-Smith present in 'The Well-Gardened Mind'?
Being outdoors and engaging in gardening lowers stress levels, promotes mental health, and exerts anti-depressive, restorative cognitive effects.
What are the three stages of HIV infection?
What are the two principal modes of HIV transmission in the United States?
Sexual contact (predominantly among men who sleep with men, followed by heterosexual contact) and the sharing of needles by intravenous (IV) drug users.
What are antiretroviral therapy (ART) and pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) in HIV management?
ART consists of medications that suppress viral reproduction to manage HIV as a chronic condition; PrEP involves prescribing ART drugs to HIV-negative individuals at high risk to prevent infection.
What three cognitive stages are involved in the decision to seek medical treatment?
What secondary gains or benefits can motivate individuals to adopt the 'sick role'?
It exempts people from everyday responsibilities and social duties, provides a face-saving excuse for failure, and earns them attention, affection, and sympathy from others.
What is telehealth, and what advantages does it offer to patients?
The electronic delivery of healthcare services via smartphones, tablets, or computers; it eliminates travel, lowers costs, reduces appointment wait times, and improves adherence.
What are the estimated rates of nonadherence to medical advice for short-term versus long-term treatments?
Nonadherence occurs approximately 30% of the time for short-term acute treatments and 50% of the time for long-term chronic illness treatments.
How do tolerance, physical dependence, and psychological dependence differ from one another?
Tolerance is a progressive decrease in drug responsiveness requiring larger doses; physical dependence requires continued use to prevent withdrawal illness; psychological dependence is an intense craving to satisfy mental/emotional needs.
Why do central nervous system (CNS) depressants like narcotics and sedatives carry a high risk of fatal overdose, especially when combined?
They produce additive depressant effects on the central nervous system that cause the respiratory system to halt, leading quickly to coma, brain damage, and death.
What primary barriers undermine effective communication between patients and healthcare providers?
Barriers include brief medical visits that limit discussion, excessive use of medical jargon by providers, physicians overestimating patient comprehension, patients feeling reluctant to ask questions, and the subjective difficulty of describing physical sensations.
What strategies can healthcare professionals and patients use to improve communication and treatment adherence?
Using clear everyday language without technical jargon, delivering instructions both verbally and in written form, encouraging patients to ask questions, practicing active listening, and having clinicians conduct follow-up contacts after making a diagnosis.
How do communication styles typically differ between female and male physicians?
Female physicians tend to be more patient-centered, spend more time with patients during visits, ask more questions, utilize more emotionally focused language, and make a greater effort to establish a collaborative behavioral partnership.
How does implicit bias among healthcare providers influence patient care and healthcare disparities?
Nonconscious attitudes held unknowingly by healthcare providers can lead to more abrupt and less empathetic interactions with patients of color or lower socioeconomic status, exacerbating existing disparities in care quality and treatment outcomes.
What core factors explain why patients frequently fail to adhere to prescribed medical advice?
Common factors include misunderstanding or forgetting complex instructions, prescribed regimens that are difficult or aversive, unpleasant medication side effects, negative attitudes or lack of trust toward the physician, and out-of-pocket financial costs.
How do patient age and dosing schedules influence compliance with medication regimens?
Adherence rates generally improve with advancing age, but compliance declines significantly when medication regimens require more frequent daily dosing or complex multi-dose schedules.
How do withdrawal symptoms from central nervous system (CNS) depressants differ from stimulant withdrawal?
Depressant withdrawal from narcotics or barbiturates produces severe physical illness, including tremors, convulsions, fever, chills, vomiting, and cramps; stimulant withdrawal produces a milder syndrome primarily dominated by fatigue, apathy, depression, irritability, and disorientation.
How do the risks of physical and psychological dependence compare across major recreational drug categories?
Narcotics and sedatives carry high risks for both physical and psychological dependence; stimulants carry moderate physical and high psychological risk; cannabis carries no physical and low-to-moderate psychological risk; hallucinogens present no physical and very low psychological risk.
What distinct physiological mechanisms lead to fatal overdoses from central nervous system (CNS) depressants versus CNS stimulants?
Depressants such as narcotics, sedatives, and alcohol halt the respiratory system to induce coma, brain damage, and death; stimulants such as cocaine and amphetamines trigger fatal heart attacks, strokes, or cortical seizures.
What are sedatives, and what primary risks are associated with their recreational misuse?
Sleep-inducing central nervous system depressants, such as barbiturates and benzodiazepines, that produce relaxation and reduced inhibitions; risks include severely impaired motor coordination, elevated accident rates, rapid physical and psychological dependence, and fatal respiratory overdose, especially when combined with alcohol.
What are stimulants, and what adverse physical and psychological consequences can result from heavy use?
Drugs that increase central nervous system and behavioral activity, such as cocaine and amphetamines; risks include cardiovascular disease, stroke, severe disruption of sleep and nutrition, powerful psychological dependence, and stimulant psychosis dominated by intense paranoia.
Beyond the risk of fatal overdose, what serious dangers are associated with chronic narcotics (opioids) use?
Rapid development of severe physical and psychological dependence, adoption of a drug-centered lifestyle that often leads to criminal activities to afford black-market drugs, brain white-matter damage, and transmission of infectious diseases such as HIV and hepatitis through shared unsterilized needles.
What perceptual changes do hallucinogens produce, and what are their primary psychological risks?
Substances such as LSD, mescaline, and psilocybin dramatically intensify and distort sensory perceptions and jumble thought processes; risks include acute panic reactions known as 'bad trips,' dangerous disorientation leading to accidents or suicide, unpredictable flashbacks, and the potential triggering of latent psychological disorders.
What acute effects and established long-term health risks are associated with cannabis (marijuana) use?
Acute effects include mild euphoria, relaxed well-being, altered sensory perception, and transient impairments in short-term memory and motor coordination; long-term risks include psychological dependence, pulmonary and respiratory diseases from smoke inhalation, and precipitating schizophrenia in adolescents with a genetic vulnerability.
What does scientific research indicate regarding claims that cannabis causes male infertility, immune suppression, and permanent cognitive decline?
Evidence for male infertility or testosterone reduction is weak and reversible; immune system suppression occurs in animal studies but does not measurably increase infections in humans; cognitive impairments in memory and attention are modest and typically disappear after 1 month of abstinence.
What are MDMA (ecstasy)'s subjective effects, physiological risks, and recognized therapeutic potential?
A compound related to amphetamines and hallucinogens that produces feelings of warmth, empathy, euphoria, and alertness; risks include hyperthermia, seizures, memory and attention impairments, sleep disruption, and elevated cortisol; it also shows clinical promise when combined with psychotherapy for treating post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).