CAED Review Mid Term

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Last updated 4:34 PM on 10/16/26
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75 Terms

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Fomite

Non-living materials that may transmit micro-organisms

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Signalment

Patient descriptors: species, breed, sex, age

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Reverse zoonosis

Disease transmitted from humans to animals

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Morphology

Description of appearance of cells

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Clinical signs

Changes in behavior or appearance, or other evidence of disease

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antibody

something that body produces in response to a pathogen

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antigen

a foreign substance that causes changes in the patient

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vector

an organism that transmits a disease

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mortality

likelihood that a pathogen will cause clinical signs

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morbidity

likelihood that a pathogen will cause clinical signs

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definitive host

host that supports the adult form of a parasite

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B cells

with which of the following is the humoral immune system involved

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T cell

all of the following are examples of non specific, or innate, immunity except

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Borreliosis

Which of the following is a vector borne disease

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Give antibiotics

All of the following are control measures for disease prevention we can share with clients except

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diarrhea

horses that show clinical signs due to salmonella will:

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Epithelial

What cells would we NOT find when performing a CBC

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toxoplasmosis, protozoan

Zoonotic disease that results in the advice being given to pregnant people that they should not clean the litter box while pregnant due to potential neurological damage to the fetus? What type of etiologic agent is that cause of this disease?

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ringworm, fungus

What is the common name for dermatophytosis, and what type of etiologic agent is the cause

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leptospirosis, bacterium

Commonly transmitted by urine, and therefore ends up in an anima'l’s water supply, potentially causing renal and/or hepatic failure and uveitis? What type of etiologic agent is the cause of this disease?

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Sexually transmitted

venereal

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Horizontal transmission

spread of disease between peers

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Vertical transmission

Spread of a disease from parent to offspring, usually from mother to offspring in utero or via colostrum

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neoplasia

abnormal growth of cells or tissue in the body; cancer

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vasculitis

inflammation of the blood vessels resulting in reduced blood flow to an area

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comedones

blackheads

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pyoderma

purulent skin infection

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ixodes scapularis

which is the vector for Borreliosis, or Lyme disease, caused by the Borrelia burgdorferi bacterium

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Rhipicephalus sanguines

Which is the vector for Erlichiosis, caused by the Erlichia canis bacterium

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3 months

If their is an in house flea infestation, owners must treat their animals for a minimum of how many months to eliminate the problem

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Fighting and bite wounds

Feline immunodeficiency virus is spread primarily through

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toxoplasmosis

Snap 4dx test does NOT test for what

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Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)

Which disease of horses is sexually transmitted and can result in economic loss due to abortion

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thorough and accurate history

One of the most important components of a physical exam is

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E. coli

Which of the following is the causative agent for deep pyodermas, which may require systemic antibiotic treatment

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low on the left rear

Feline leukemia virus vaccine should be administerd:

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otodectes cynotis

which of the following is an ear mite of cats and dogs

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Culicoides (no see ums) midge

In horses, sweet itch is cause by an allergic reaction to

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anaphylaxis

The most serious issue associated with rupturing cuterebra larvae during removal would be

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Feline panleukopenia

which virus can cause in utero infections leading to cerebellar hypoplasia

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Ctenocephalides felis

Which of the following is the causative agent of a skin infection cause be fleas

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fungal

the causative agent of ringworm is

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Cat

which animal is the definitive host for gondii

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Feline panleukopenia

which disease of cats is cause by parvo

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Feline infectious peritonitis

which disease of cats is caused by a coronavirus

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Canine distemper

Which disease of dogs can result in hyperkeratosis of the paw pads

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Sarcoptic is pruritic, demodectic is not

Based off clinical signs alone, what is the main difference between sarcoptic and demodectic mange

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In horses, the prognosis for melanomas is good. If we remove the tumor, we do not need to worry about it anymore

False

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Doxycycline

Which of the following is the usual treatment of choice for rickettsial diseases

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Entropion

Inversion especially of the eye lid

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Cataract

Progressive loss of transparency of lens

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Congenital

A condition present at birth

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Proptosis

Abnormal protrusion of the eye globe of the eye

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Keratoconjunctivitis

Inflammation of cornea and conjunctiva

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miosis

Constriction of the pupil

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palpebral

Referring to the eye lid

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mydriasis

dilation of the pupil

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hyperemia

excessive blood in tissues; red and warm

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blepharospasm

forced closing of eye lids

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epiphora

overflow of tears onto face

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nystagmus

rapid, repetitive eye movement

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leptospira spp.

Which of the following is a known cause of recurrent equine uveitis, or periodic opthalmia

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Acute glaucoma

Which of the following should receive highest priority treatment

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Cataract

Lenticular sclerosis must be differentiated from what other lens condition

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Feline viral rhinotracheitis

What is the most common cause of bilateral conjunctivitis in young kittens

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Call vet and place horse in dark stall

If an owner calls with a horse that has sustained an eye injury they should:

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12-22 mm Hg

Normal intraocular pressure (IOP) in the dog and cat is

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Slow healing and make make ulcer worse

Why should opthalmic steroid medications NOT be used for treating corneal ulcers

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Hypertrophy of the nictitans gland

The correct name for cherry eye is

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Head shaking and ear scratching

What is the primary symptom of otitis externa in dogs and cats

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Malassezia spp.

Which of the following would be found in otitis externa due to a fungal infection

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Corneal ulcer

Which opthalmic disorder could you use grid keratotomy to treat

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Hoses, it acts as shade over the pupil

Which animals have a corpora nigrans, and what is its function

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It decreases GI motility

Atropine is a commonly used anticholinergic, or sympathomimetic. What are its effects on the nervous system and why must its use be monitored in horses

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Middle ear and pharynx

Which two parts of the body does the Eustachian tube join