Stage 1 Exam

What are the basic eligibility requirements for an FAA Instrument Rating under 14 CFR §61.65?

Hold at least a Private Pilot Certificate, read/speak/write/understand English, complete ground training and pass knowledge test (60 questions), receive flight training endorsement from CFII, and pass Practical Test (Checkride).

What flight experience is required for an Instrument Rating under 14 CFR §61.65?

50 hours XC PIC (at least 10 in airplanes), 40 hours actual/simulated instrument (15 with CFII, 3 within 2 calendar months of checkride), and one 250 NM qualifying XC.

What are the specifications of the qualifying IFR cross-country flight (§61.65)?

250 NM along airways or ATC routing, an instrument approach at each airport, and 3 different kinds of navigation systems/approaches (e.g., ILS, VOR, RNAV).

When can a pilot legally log instrument flight time under 14 CFR §61.51(g)?

Only when operating the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated IMC.

What details must be recorded when logging instrument approaches for currency?

The location and type of each instrument approach completed, and the name of the safety pilot (if required).

What is the difference between airmen category/class and aircraft category/class?

Airmen: Category = broad (Airplane, Rotorcraft), Class = operating characteristics (SEL, MEL). Aircraft: Category = intended usage (Normal, Utility, Acrobatic), Class = airframe type (Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider).

What operating rules apply to practice instrument approaches flown under VFR?

They are VFR flight-following operations; VFR cloud clearances, see-and-avoid rules, and right-of-way regulations remain mandatory.

What limitation applies to a commercial pilot without an instrument rating (§61.133)?

Prohibited from carrying passengers for hire on cross-country flights exceeding 50 NM or at night.

What are the requirements to act as PIC under IFR or in weather below VFR minimums (§61.3)?

Appropriate category, class, and instrument rating; current medical/BasicMed; flight review within 24 calendar months; instrument recency (6-HIT or IPC); and 90-day passenger currency if carrying passengers.

What is the "6-HIT" instrument recency rule under 14 CFR §61.57?

Within preceding 6 calendar months: 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses via electronic navigation systems.

What qualifications are required for a safety pilot under 14 CFR §91.109?

At least a Private Pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings. Must hold an instrument rating and currency if operating on an IFR flight plan.

What occurs during the 6-month grace period (Months 7–12) after instrument currency expires?

Cannot act as PIC under IFR, but can regain currency by completing 6-HIT tasks in VMC with an eligible safety pilot or in an approved flight simulator/ATD.

How must an instrument rating be reinstated once expired beyond 12 calendar months?

Pass an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) administered by a CFII, DPE, or authorized check airman.

Which pressure sources feed the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and VSI?

Airspeed: Ram and Static pressure. Altimeter: Static pressure. Vertical Speed Indicator: Static pressure (via diaphragm and calibrated leak).

What do the white, green, and yellow arcs and red radial line represent on an airspeed indicator?

White: Flap operating range (VSO to VFE). Green: Normal operating range (VS1 to VNO). Yellow: Caution range (smooth air only). Red line: VNE.

What is the standard altimeter pressure lapse rate and allowable field elevation check limit?

Lapse rate: 1.00 inHg per 1,000 ft (0.10 inHg per 100 ft). Field check: Must read within ±75 ft of surveyed field elevation when set to local altimeter setting.

What is the effect on indicated altitude when flying from high pressure/temperature to low pressure/temperature without resetting the altimeter?

The altimeter indicates higher than the actual aircraft altitude ("High to low, look out below").

What happens to flight instruments if the pitot ram air opening and drain hole freeze shut?

Airspeed indicator freezes and acts like an altimeter (reads high in climbs, low in descents); altimeter and VSI operate normally.

What happens to flight instruments if only the pitot ram tube is blocked while the drain hole remains open?

Airspeed indicator drains to zero; altimeter and VSI operate normally.

What instrument indications occur when the static ports are completely blocked?

Airspeed reads low in climbs and high in descents; altimeter freezes at blockage altitude; VSI freezes at 0 FPM.

What occurs to instrument readings when alternate static air inside the cockpit is selected?

Due to lower cockpit pressure (suction): airspeed reads slightly faster, altimeter reads slightly higher, and VSI shows a momentary climb before stabilizing.

What two fundamental physical principles govern mechanical gyroscopic flight instruments?

Rigidity in space (maintaining rotational plane) and Gyroscopic precession (force manifests 90° ahead in the direction of rotation).

Which power sources typically drive standard gyroscopic instruments in a six-pack cockpit?

Attitude and Heading Indicators are typically vacuum-driven; Turn Coordinator is typically electrically driven.

What is the difference between a Turn Coordinator and a Turn-and-Slip Indicator?

Turn Coordinator has a 30° canted gimbal sensing roll rate and turn rate; Turn-and-Slip indicator senses rate of turn/yaw only.

What are the functions of AHRS and ADC in a glass cockpit?

AHRS (Attitude and Heading Reference System) provides attitude and heading via solid-state sensors/accelerometers. ADC (Air Data Computer) converts pitot/static/temperature inputs into digital airspeed, altitude, and VSI.

What magnetic compass errors are summarized by the acronyms UNOS and ANDS?

UNOS: Undershoot North, Overshoot South (turning errors). ANDS: Accelerate North, Decelerate South (acceleration errors on East/West headings).

What are the primary instruments for pitch, bank, and power in straight-and-level flight?

Pitch: Altimeter. Bank: Heading Indicator. Power: Airspeed Indicator.

What are the primary instruments for pitch, bank, and power in a stabilized constant-airspeed climb?

Pitch: Airspeed Indicator. Bank: Heading Indicator. Power: Engine Tachometer / Manifold Pressure.

What are the primary instruments for pitch, bank, and power in a standard-rate level turn?

Pitch: Altimeter. Bank: Turn Coordinator. Power: Airspeed Indicator.

What are the three common scanning errors in attitude instrument flying?

Fixation (staring at one instrument), Omission (skipping an instrument), and Emphasis (relying excessively on a single favorite instrument).

What is the correct recovery procedure from a nose-high unusual attitude?

1. Add full power; 2. Lower nose (forward elevator); 3. Level wings (coordinated ailerons and rudder).

What is the correct recovery procedure from a nose-low unusual attitude?

1. Reduce power to idle; 2. Level wings; 3. Smoothly apply back elevator pressure to level flight.

What sensory systems maintain human spatial orientation, and which provides 80–90% of orientation?

Visual system (eyes, 80–90%), Vestibular system (semicircular canals and otolith organs), and Somatosensory system (nerves/muscles/skin).

What is the Somatogravic Illusion and what danger does it present?

Rapid forward linear acceleration stimulates otoliths to simulate a pitch-up sensation, tempting the pilot to push the nose down into terrain on departure or go-around.

What is the Coriolis Illusion?

Rapid head movements during a prolonged constant-rate turn stimulate a secondary semicircular canal, producing an overwhelming sensation of tumbling/rolling.

What runway visual illusion is created by a narrower-than-usual or upsloping runway?

Creates the illusion of being higher than actual altitude, causing the pilot to fly a dangerously low approach.

What VOR full-scale needle deflection represents, and what causes reverse sensing?

Full-scale deflection is 10° (2° per dot). Reverse sensing occurs when the OBS is set 180° opposite the course being flown (or flying front-course inbound with back-course selected).

What are the standard service volumes for legacy Terminal, Low, and High VORs?

Terminal: 1,000–12,000 ft AGL (25 NM). Low: 1,000–18,000 ft AGL (40 NM). High: 1,000–14,500 ft (40 NM), 14,500–18,000 ft (100 NM), 18,000–45,000 ft (130 NM), 45,000–60,000 ft (100 NM).

What are the 30-day VOR check tolerances under 14 CFR §91.171?

VOT: ±4° (360° FROM / 180° TO); Ground checkpoint: ±4°; Airborne checkpoint: ±6°; Dual system check: within 4° of each other.

What information must be logged following an operational VOR equipment check?

Date, place/location, bearing error, and pilot signature.

How does DME calculate distance, and when is slant-range error greatest?

Measures round-trip UHF pulse time (converted to line-of-sight hypotenuse distance). Slant error is greatest when high and close to/over the station (e.g., 6,000 ft AGL directly overhead reads 1.0 NM).

What is the lead-turn formula for intercepting a DME arc?

Lead distance (NM) = 0.5% of Groundspeed (or Groundspeed / 200).

How does an HSI eliminate reverse sensing?

Setting the course pointer to the inbound course keeps the needle oriented to real-world course position relative to the aircraft heading.

How many GPS satellites are required for 2D position, 3D position, RAIM detection, and RAIM exclusion?

3 for 2D position (lat/long); 4 for 3D position (lat/long/altitude); 5 (or 4 + baro-aiding) for RAIM fault detection; 6 (or 5 + baro-aiding) for fault exclusion/isolation.

What are the non-WAAS GPS full-scale CDI lateral deflection limits?

En Route (> 30 NM): ±2.0 NM; Terminal (within 30 NM): ±1.0 NM; Approach (2 NM inbound to FAF): ±0.3 NM.

What preflight actions are required for IFR flight under NWKRAFT (14 CFR §91.103)?

NOTAMs, Weather reports/forecasts, Known ATC delays, Runway lengths of intended use, Alternates available, Fuel requirements, Takeoff/landing performance data.

What instruments and equipment are required for IFR flight under GRABCARDD (§91.205)?

Generator/alternator, Radios (comm/nav suitable for route), Attitude indicator, Ball (inclinometer), Clock (sweep-second or digital), Altimeter (sensitive), Rate-of-turn indicator, Directional gyro, DME or RNAV (at or above FL240 if VORs used).

What are the IFR fuel requirements under 14 CFR §91.167?

Fuel to fly to destination, then to alternate (if required), plus 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

What is the "1-2-3 Rule" for filing an IFR alternate airport under 14 CFR §91.169?

An alternate is not required if from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the ceiling is at least 2,000 ft AGL and visibility is at least 3 SM.

What are the standard weather minimums required to file an airport as an IFR alternate?

Precision approach: 600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility at ETA. Non-precision approach: 800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility at ETA. No approach: descent from MEA to landing under basic VFR.

What are standard Part 91 IFR takeoff minimums?

Part 91 has zero takeoff minimums (can depart zero-zero unless specific departure procedures/ODPs dictate otherwise).

What conditions permit descent below DA/DH or MDA under 14 CFR §91.175?

1. Continuous position for normal descent/touchdown; 2. Flight visibility at or above approach minimums; 3. At least one visual reference for runway environment distinctly visible.

What visual reference allows descent below 100 ft above TDZE on an instrument approach?

The red terminating bars or red side-row bars of the approach lighting system.

What are the dimensions of standard Victor Airways?

Class E airspace from 1,200 ft AGL up to but not including 18,000 ft MSL; 8 NM wide (4 NM each side of centerline) up to 51 NM from each navaid.

What is the difference between MEA and MOCA?

MEA guarantees obstacle clearance (1,000 ft non-mountainous / 2,000 ft mountainous) and acceptable NAVAID reception. MOCA guarantees obstacle clearance along route, but NAVAID reception only within 22 NM of the VOR.

What are standard IFR cruising altitudes above 3,000 ft AGL based on magnetic course?

Magnetic course 000°–179° (East): Odd thousands (3,000, 5,000, 7,000). Magnetic course 180°–359° (West): Even thousands (4,000, 6,000, 8,000).

In lost communications under IFR, what route and altitude must be flown (§91.185)?

Route: AVE-F (Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed in order). Altitude: Highest of MEA (Minimum IFR altitude, Expected altitude, or Assigned altitude).

What is the standard rate of turn and its rule-of-thumb bank angle formula?

Standard rate: 3°/second (360° turn in 120 seconds). Bank Angle ≈ (TAS / 10) + 5.

What is the difference between magnetic variation and magnetic deviation?

Variation is the angular difference between True North and Magnetic North (isogonic lines); Deviation is magnetic disturbance caused by localized electrical fields and metal in the aircraft.

What is magnetic dip and what compass errors does it cause?

The tendency of magnetic compass needles to point downward toward the magnetic poles; it causes acceleration/deceleration errors (ANDS) and turning errors (UNOS).

What is "The Leans" vestibular illusion?

An abrupt recovery from an undetected gradual turn gives the false sensation of rolling in the opposite direction, causing the pilot to roll back into the original turn.

What is the Graveyard Spin/Spiral?

A prolonged spin/spiral where inner ear fluid stabilizes; recovering from the turn tricks the pilot into feeling a turn the opposite way, tempting them to re-enter the spin/tighten the descent into terrain.

What is the Inversion Illusion?

An abrupt leveling off from a rapid climb creates excessive negative G sensations on the otolith organs, producing a false feeling of tumbling backward and prompting the pilot to push the nose down.

What is the Elevator Illusion?

An abrupt upward vertical acceleration (updraft) stimulates otolith organs to mimic a pitch-up sensation, causing the pilot to push forward into a dive.

What is the False Horizon illusion?

A sloping cloud deck, obscured horizon, dark ridge, or aligned ground lights confuse the pilot into aligning aircraft attitude with a false visual reference rather than true horizon.

What is Autokinesis?

Staring at a single stationary point of light in the dark for several seconds causes the light to appear to move, leading to pilot disorientation.

What are the four types of hypoxia?

Hypoxic (insufficient oxygen partial pressure at altitude), Hypemic (blood cannot carry O2, e.g., CO poisoning), Stagnant (poor circulation/pulling Gs), and Histotoxic (cells unable to use O2 due to alcohol/drugs).

How does a pilot recognize VOR station passage?

The first complete and positive reversal of the TO/FROM indicator (TO flips definitively to FROM).

How is aircraft position determined using two VOR radials?

Tune and identify two distinct VOR stations, set the OBS to center the needle on FROM radials for both stations; plot the two bearings on an en-route chart—the intersection marks your position.

How does WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System) improve GPS navigation?

Uses ground reference stations, master stations, and geostationary satellites to provide differential corrections and integrity monitoring, enabling vertical guidance approaches (LPV).

What are the update cycles for the GPS Navigation Database, Obstacle Database, and Terrain Database?

Navigation Database: every 28 days. Obstacle Database: every 56 days. Terrain Database: updated as needed/periodically.

What are the differences between 1-axis, 2-axis, and 3-axis autopilots?

1-axis controls Roll (wings level/turn); 2-axis controls Roll and Pitch (altitude/vertical speed); 3-axis controls Roll, Pitch, and Yaw (yaw damper).

How does an autopilot function in Heading (HDG) vs Navigation (NAV) mode?

HDG mode commands the aircraft to track the bug selected on the heading indicator/HSI; NAV mode commands intercept and tracking of a VOR radial, localizer, or GPS course.

What does Autopilot Approach (APPR) mode provide compared to NAV mode?

APPR mode provides higher tracking sensitivity and arms/captures both lateral course guidance and vertical guidance (glideslope or glidepath).

What is the immediate pilot action during an autopilot disconnect or runaway servo malfunction?

Firmly take control of the yoke/stick, press and hold the Autopilot Disconnect / Pitch Trim Interrupt switch, and pull the autopilot circuit breaker if necessary.

What mandatory reports must be made to ATC under IFR without being requested (MARVELOUS VFR C500)?

Missed approach, Airspeed change (5% or 10 kt), Reaching hold fix/point, VFR-on-top altitude change, ETA change > 3 min, Leaving assigned altitude/holding fix, Outer marker inbound (non-radar), Unforecast weather, Safety of flight hazards, Vacating an altitude, Final approach fix inbound (non-radar), Radio/nav failure, Compulsory reporting points (non-radar), 500 FPM climb/descent unable.

What are the rules and operating limitations for flying "VFR-on-Top"?

Must receive ATC clearance, fly appropriate VFR cruising altitudes (based on magnetic course), maintain VFR cloud clearance and visibility, and comply with all applicable IFR reporting rules/clearances.

What are Clearance Void Times and Hold for Release clearances?

Clearance Void Time: departure clearance void if not airborne by specified time (must advise ATC within 30 min). Hold for Release: clearance issued for planning, but aircraft cannot depart until release is given.

What does the "Trouble T" (negative T) symbol signify on an instrument approach chart?

Non-standard takeoff minimums and/or published Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) apply to that airport.

What does the "Trouble A" (negative A) symbol signify on an instrument approach chart?

Non-standard IFR alternate minimums apply; refer to the alternate minimums table in the TPP booklet.