[IPS1] PMOC 300 questions (read description)

b

This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:

a. oseltamivir

b. acyclovir

c. zidovudine

d. fomivirsen

f. pleconaril

d

an oxazolidinedione antibiotics that can inhibit 30s and 70s ribosomes:

a. bacitracin

b. mupirocin

c. fosfomycin

d. Linezolid

f

The main goal of this metabolic reactions is to attach small, polar, ionizable endogenous substrate:

I. Conjugation reaction

II. Phase II Metabolism

III. Functionalization reaction

IV. Phase I Metabolism

a. 2 and 3

b. 2 and 4

c. 1 and 4

d. 3 and 4

f. 1 and 2

a

A depo penicillin preparation:

a. penicillin benzathine

b. amoxicillin

c. penicillin G

d. penicillin V

e. ampicillin

d.

The scientist who can lay claim to the title of "Father of Chemotherapy":

a. Alexander Fleming

b. Friedrich Wohler

c. Joseph Lister

d. Paul Ehrlich

e. August Kekule

e

Which among the following sulfonamides used for burn therapy?

1. Mafenide acetate

2. Silver sulfadiazine

3. Sulfixosazole

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 2 and 3

e. 1 and 2

d

This is an effective antidote for the treatment of copper poisoning:

a. dimercaprol

b. deferoxamine mesylate

c. BAL

d. penicillamine

a

The alcohol "unfit for use":

a. denatured alcohol

b. absolute alcohol

c. dehydrated alcohol

d. completely denatured alcohol

f. distilled alcohol

a

A combination of non - ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:

a. povidone iodine

b. Iodine tincture

c. Wagner's solution (Iodine in KI)

d. phenol-glycerol mixture

e. Lugol's solution (strong iodine)

c

Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of:

a. SARS-COV2

b. Koch Bacilli

c. HIV/AIDS

d. Dengue

e. HBV

b

used for severe LRTI cause by RSV in carefully selected hospitalized infants and young children

a. foscarnet

b. ribavirin

c. chloramphenicol

d. adefovir

e. ganciclovir

d

Antibiotics that targets the cell wall:

a. lincomycins

b. nystatin

c. chloramphenicol

d. penicillins

e

Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is:

a. quinine

b. artemisinin

c. quinine

d. chloroquine

e. primaquine

b

Which among the following can inhibit squalene epoxidase?

a. nystatin

b. terbinafine

c. metronidazole

d. fluconazole

d

The following antibiotic possess clinically useful anti - malignant property, except:

a. bleomycin

b. daunorubicin

c. mitomycin

d. streptomycin

e. plicamycin

e

Gray-baby syndrome is usually associated in which among the following antibiotics?

a. tobramycin

b. vancomycin

c. sulfonamide

d. piperacillin

e. chloramphenicol

d

Piperazine citrate, gentian violet, pyrantel pamoate and thiabendazole are all:

a. antibacterial dye

b. antifungal

c. pediculides

d. anthelmintics

e. anti-protozoal

a

A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo (Ilosone):

a. erythromycin

b. clindamycin

c. clarithromycin

d. mycostatin

e. spiramycin

d

Which among the following is an example of a thiazine dye?

a. basic-fuchsin

b. crystal violet

c. gentian violet

d. methylene blue

c

Is a dihydrofolate - reductase inhibitor:

a. sulfamethoxazole

b. monobactam

c. trimethoprim

d. tetracycline

e. methotrexate

e

The stain of the urinary analgesic phenazopyridine HCl can be removed using:

a. muriatic acid

b. oxalic acid

c. sodium hypochlorite

d. bleach

e. sodium dithionite solution

a

Chemically, procaine is classified as:

a. ester

b. ketone

c. ether

d. phenol

e. amide

b

Drug of choice for Schistosoma mansoni:

a. niridazole

b. praziquantel

c. thiocarbazine

d. bithionol

e. mebendazole

c

Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:

a. ethambutol

b. rifampicin

c. streptomycin

d. isoniazid

e. pyrazinamide

e

Methenamine is also called:

a. uridine

b. azo-gantrisin

c. pyrazinoic acid

d. uric acid

e. urotropin

d

A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:

1. Griseofulvin

2. Econazole

3. Nystatin

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3

d. 3 only

e. 1, 2 and 3

d

Which of the following bases is most susceptible to alkylating agents?

a. uracil

b. adenine

c. cytosine

d. guanine

e. thymine

b

What is the type of the chemical Methoxyethane:

a. RCHO

b. ROR

c. RCOR

d. RCOOH

e. RCOOR

d

This agent can induce proliferation of epithelial cells leading to sloughing and repair:

a. salicylic acid

b. hydrogen peroxide

c. benzyl benzoate

d. benzoyl peroxide

e. carbamide peroxide

d ( and e? because aminoglycosides are also nephrotoxic, thus can cause kidney damage)

Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:

a. carcinogenic

b. hepatotoxic

c. can lead to pulmonary fibrosis

d. ototoxic

e. can cause kidney damage

d

Prodrug of Acyclovir with better bioavailability.

a. famciclovir

b. penciclovir

c. ganciclovir

d. valacyclovir

d

Which among the following drug can be used for viral influenza:

a. metronidazole

b. acyclovir

c. vidarabine

d. oseltamivir

e. amoxicillin

c

Antiviral that has effect as anti-Parkinsonian agent:

a. tocilizumab

b. lamivudine

c. amantadine

d. remdesivir

c

Currently, the most effective regimen for TB that is usually given by the rural health units:

a. Anti-tubercular vaccine

b. swab test/rapid test kit

c. TB-DOTS

d. RT-PCR test

d

Which among the following combination used for TB that can commonly cause peripheral neuropathy?

a. Vitamin B6

b. rifampicin

c. ethambutol

d. Isoniazid

e. pyrazinamide

c

The chemical name of phenethicillin:

a. benzyl penicillin

b. phenoxymethyl penicillin

c. phenoxyethyl penicillin

d. phenoxypropylpenicillin

A. 1 and 4 (?) (1 and 4 is categ D, 3 is categ C, 2 is categ B, pero I'll stick with the fact na macrolides are considered safe for pregnant women)

Antibiotics CI during pregnancy:

1. Aminoglycosides

2. Erythromycin estolate

3. Clarithromycin

4. Tetracyclines

a. 1 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2, 3, 4

e. 4 only

c

Mechanism of action of Ritonavir:

a. inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

b. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase

c. inhibitor of HIV protease

d. inhibitor of RNA polymerase

b

An example of neuraminidase inhibitors:

1. Zanamivir

2. Amantadine

3. Rimantadine

4. Oseltamivir

a. 3 and 4

b. 1 and 4

c. 1 and 3

d. 2 and 4

e. 2 and 3

c

bind to tubulin disrupting formation and function of the mitotic spindle by arresting mitosis by inhibiting the polymerization of microtubules

a. imatinib

b. thiotepa

c. vinca alkaloids

d. cisplatin

e. bleomycin

b

Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:

a. oxalic acid

b. salicylic acid

c. salicylaldehyde

d. acetic acid

e. citric acid

c

indicated for ifosfamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis:

a. pyridoxine

b. dexrazoxane

c. mesna

d. panthotenic acid

e. amifostine

c

For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by intravenous route?

a. Nystatin

b. Ketoconazole

c. Amphotericin B

d. Clotrimazole

e. Miconazole

a

the chemical CH3OCH3 is an example of what type of organic compound?

a. ether

b. alcohol

c. ester

d. aldehyde

e. ketone

c

MOA of aminoglycosides;

1. Interferes with cell wall synthesis

2. act directly on the bacterial ribosome to inhibit the initiation of protein synthesis

3. interferes with the fidelity of translation of the genetic message

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

e. 2 only

a

Which is correct about carbol-fuchsin solution?

1. Component of castellani's paint

2. Treatment of fungal infections

3. Mixture of chloride of rosaniline and p-rosaniline chloride

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 and 3

e. 1, 2 and 3

c

the present day "gamot na pula" contains":

a. cetylpyridinium chloride

b. thimerosal

c. benzalkonium chloride

d.nitromersol

e. benzoyl peroxide

d

A good local anesthetic should have all of the following properties, except:

a. systemic toxicity should be low

b. not irritant to the tissue and should not cause any permanent structural damage to nerves

c. effective at body fluid pH

d. onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of action to avoid toxicity

e. must be effective regardless of the site of application

b

Which among the following is/are use of formalin?

a. antipyretic agent

b. embalming agent

c. antiseptic for wounds

d. analgesic

e. can be used as gargle or mouthwash

e

Pulmonary fibrosis is associated with the use of:

a. cisplatin

b. vinca alkaloids

c. methotrexate

d. nitrosureas

e. bleomycin

e

The chemical CH3CH2COOCH3 is given what IUPAC name?

a. ethylmethyl ether

b. butanone

c. butanoic acid

d. butanal

e. methyl propanoate

d

The first compound in the development of a drug that has the desired biological and physiochemical properties:

a. prodrug

b. linker protein

c. latentiated drug

d. lead drug

e

A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer:

a. anaphylaxis

b. mydriasis

c. bulging fontanel

d. ataxia

e. alopecia

b

First orally active broad spectrum imidazole antifungal:

a. itraconazole

b. ketoconazole

c. miconazole

d. clotrimazole

e. fluconazole

c

The plant containing the anti-cancer drug, vincristine and vinblastine:

a. taxol

b. mayapple

c. periwinkle

d. campthoteca

e. mandrake

c

This antibiotic can lead to anaphylactoid reaction due to histamine release when this antibiotic was rapidly infused:

a. amikacin

b. bacitracin

c. vancomycin

d. gentamicin

e. clindamycin

c

Examples of isoxazoyl penicillin, except:

a. dicloxacillin

b. oxacillin

c. nafcillin

d. cloxacillin

b (?) (or A?)

DOC for chronic form of Hepatitis B:

a. lamivudine

b. adefovir

c. silymarine

d. essentiale forte

b

Inhibits formation of the fusion component conformation of gp41.

a. efavirenz

b. pentafuside

c. delavirdine

d. indinavir

b

An androgen receptor antagonist:

a. tamoxifen

b. bicalutamide

c. depo-provera

d. megestrol acetate

a

A common agent in smoking cessation program providing patches:

a. nicotine

c. emetine

d. lobeline

e. quinine

f. scopolamine

c

inhibition of glucose uptake leading to depleted glycogen storage ==> decrease ATP synthesis

a. pyrantel pamoate

b. bithionol

c. mebendazole

d. thiabendazole

e. ivermectin

a

Methylsalicylate is also known as:

a. oil of wintergreen

b. toothache drops

c. jasmine oil

d. otto of rose

e. juniper oil

a

The most common Phase I metabolism is:

I. Oxidation

II. Reduction

III. Hydrolysis

a. I only

b. II and III

c. I and III

d. III only

e. II only

f. I and II

b

An example of fourth generation cephalosporins:

a. cefuroxime

b. cefepime

c. cephradine

d. ceftaroline

e. cefixime

e

All of the following are effective and clinically useful against worm infestation caused by Ascaris lumbricoides, except:

a. piperazine

b. albendazole

c. thiabendazole

d. mebendazole

e. niridazole

a

A fluoroquinolone:

a. ciprofloxacin

b. itraconazole

c. nalidixic acid

d. amoxicillin

e. cotrimazine

c

Nucleoside analogue similar to ddC.

a. lamivudine

b. stavudine

c. zalcitabine

d. azidothmidine

b

Common side effects of Aminoglycoside antibiotics, except:

1. Hepatotoxicity

2. Nephrotoxicity

3. Ototoxicity

a. 3 only

b. 1 only

c. 1 and 2

d. 2 and 3 only

e. 2 only

f. 2 and 3

c

The alkaloid from Ipecac is commonly employed as:

1. Emetic

2. Analgesic

3. Anti-protozoal

a. 2 and 3

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

d. 1 and 2

e. 1 only

b

Irinotecan inhibits:

a. protein kinases

b. topoisomerase I

c. DNA polymerase

d. tubulin synthesis

e. topoisomerase II

d

Which of the following penicillin is resistant to penicillinase?

a. thienamycin

b. flucloxacillin

c. carbenicillin

d. cloxacillin

e. polymyxin B

d

Which among the following drug is considered as the drug of choice for chicken pox?

a. chloramphenicol

b. adefovir

c. co-trimoxzaole

d. acyclovir

e. vancomycin

a

Prevents contamination; The following are preservatives, except:

a. undecylenic acid

b. benzoic acid

c. potassium sorbate

d. methylparaben

a

The most toxic anti-malarial drug:

a. quinacrine

b. aralen

c. chloroquine

d. quinine

e. primaquine

c

The anticancer obtained from mayapple or mandrake:

a. vincristine

b. topotecan

c. etoposide

d. taxol

b

Which of the following antineoplastics is not considered an anti-metabolite?

a. thioguanine

b. etoposide

c. methotrexate

d. fluorouracil

e. cytarabine

c

An example of first generation quinolone:

a. moxifloxacin

b. ciprofloxacin

c. nalidixic acid

d. ofloxacin

d

Which of the following is/are true regarding phase II drug metabolism?

1. allows attachment of small, polar, and ionizable endogenous compounds

2. allows termination or attenuation of a biological activity

3. serves to protect the body against chemically reactive compounds or metabolites

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

e. 2 and 3

d

The collective term given to aniline-substituted sulfonamides/sulfanilamides:

a. TB-DOTS

b. prodrug

c. silver sulfadiazine

d. sulfa drugs

e. HAART

d

Yellow to brownish-yellow liquid that has a characteristic creosote odor:

a. eugenol

b. resorcinol

c. hydroquinone

d. cresol

e. thymol

a

general protoplasmic poison:

a. phenol

b. dimercaprol

c. salvarsan

d. ethylene oxide

e. isopropyl alcohol

b

o - xylene and m - xylene are what type of isomers?

a. functional

b. positional

c. geometric

d. chain

a

Penicillin is the drug of choice for the following anti-infective conditions, except:

a. pseudomonal

b. gonococcal

c. treponema

d. streptococcal

a

DOC for dermatitis herpetiformis:

a. dapsone

b. streptomycin

c. metronidazole

d. vancomycin

e. rifampicin

c

A parahydroxybenzoic acid effective against growth of yeast:

a. methylparaben

b. gamma amino benzoic acid

c. propylparaben

d. para amino benzoic acid

d

Zidovudine is an example of:

a. fusion inhibitors

b. inhibitor of viral RNA polymerase

c. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase

d. inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

e

toxic syndrome characterized by tinnitus, headache, nausea, disturbed vision associated with the use of cinchona extract like quinine:

a. charotism

b. optic neuropathy

c. ergotism

d. pseudomembranous colitis

e. cinchonism

b

Isolated from Lincolnensis; which of the following contains sulfur?

a. penicillin G

b. lincomycin

c. clindamycin

d. clarithromycin

c

All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:

a. streptomycin

b. kanamycin

c. ampicillin

d. neomycin

e. amikacin

b

The first nitroheterocyclic compounds used in chemotherapy:

a. methenamine

b. nitrofurans

c. thiotepa

d. quinolones

e. aminoglycosides

d

Propanone and 1 - propen-1-ol are considered as _____ isomers.

a. positional

b. epimers

c. configurational

d. tautomers

e. enantiomers

a

Sulfanilamide is a generic term that denotes:

1. Aniline-substituted sulfonamides/sulfanilamides

2. Prodrugs that generate active sulfanilamides

3. Non-aniline sulfonamide like mafenide acetate

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 only

d. 1 and 3

e. 2 and 3

a

Which among the following alkylating agents establishes cross-links within and between DNA strands?

a. organoplatinum

b. procarbazine

c. nitrosoureas

d. nitrogen mustards

d

The most phototoxic quinolone:

a. ciprofloxacin

b. levofloxacin

c. sparfloxacin

d. lomefloxacin

e. moxifloxacin

e

These are isomers that are not mirror images of each other differing only in position of moieties at the first carbon.

a. enantiomers

b. tautomers

c. isotopes

d. epimers

e. anomers

b.

Mechanism of action of quinolones:

a. inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

b. inhibition of DNA gyrase

c. act as false membrane component

d. inhibition of tubulin assembly

e. inhibition of translation to prokaryotes

d

Trisodium phosphonoformate: organic analogue of inorganic pyrophosphate:

a. vidarabine

b. plecoranil

c. fosmidomycin

d. foscarnet

a.

A dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor:

a. trimethoprim

b. dapsone

c. ciprofloxacin

d. chloramphenicol

e. sulfamethoxazole

c

Which among the following is correct about cephalosporins?

1. Contains beta-lactam dihydrothiazine ring

2. Derivative of 7-aminocephalosporanic acid

3. Contain a highly substituted 1,3-diaminocyclohexane central ring

a. 2 and 3

b. 1 and 3

c. 1 and 2

d. 1, 2 and 3