West Coast EMT Block 3 quiz

A 40-year-old patient without a history of seizures experiences a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:

B. epilepsy.

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:

C. unable to produce or understand speech.

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:

D. has bleeding within the brain.

A patient with an altered mental status is:

C. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include:

D. arm drift, speech, and facial droop.

Febrile seizures:

A. are usually benign but should be evaluated.

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:

B. liver.

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:

A. cerebellum.

Status epilepticus is characterized by:

D. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:

C. brain stem.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:

D. hypertension.

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:

C. foramen magnum.

The three major parts of the brain are the:

D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should:

D. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:

B. a seizure.

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?

A. Sudden, severe headache

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?

C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

Which of the following findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a patient who complains of a headache?

C. Neck stiffness or pain

Which of the following is characteristic of a focal-onset aware seizure?

B. Normal level of consciousness

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke?

C. Blockage of a cerebral artery

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:

C. aortic aneurysm.

A strangulated hernia is one that:

A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

Chronic renal failure is a condition that:

B. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in:

D. an ulcer.

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who:

A. consume a lot of alcohol.

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

B. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:

B. referred pain.

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and lack of appetite are MOST indicative of:

D. appendicitis.

Solid abdominal organs include the:

C. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:

A. removing sodium and water from the body.

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:

D. peritonitis.

The parietal peritoneum lines the:

B. walls of the abdominal cavity.

The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is:

C. diarrhea.

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?

C. Cystitis

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A. Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?

C. Spleen

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?

D. Pancreas

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?

B. Liver

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?

B. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.

Your patient's past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this?

D. Heart failure

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:

D. is significantly hyperglycemic

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

B. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

A. disorder of glucose metabolism.

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:

A. insulin is not available in the body.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called:

B. polyphagia.

Hemoglobin is:

C. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen.

In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who:

B. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes.

Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for:

B. pulmonary embolism.

Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT:

D. supplemental insulin.

Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because:

C. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys.

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

D. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient:

D. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

The normal blood glucose level is between:

A. 80 and 120 mg/dL.

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?

B. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor

Type 1 diabetes:

D. is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:

B. rate and depth of breathing.

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental status, it would be MOST important to determine:

A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing?

A. Blindness

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?

D. Weight loss and polyuria

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?

C. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.

A 38-year-old woman was bitten by fire ants while at the park. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious; has labored breathing; and has a rapid, thready pulse.

She has a red rash on her entire body, and her face is swollen. You should:

B. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen.

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called:

C. a wheal.

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include:

A. histamines and leukotrienes.

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. drying of the eyes.

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:

C. wheezing and hypotension are present.

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:

A. properly dispose of the syringe.

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within_______ following administration.

D. 1 minute

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called an):

B. allergen

The stinger from a honeybee should be:

D. scraped away from the skin.

Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are:

B. urticaria and angioedema.

Urticaria is the medical term for:

C. hives.

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for:

B. 3 seconds.

When an auto-injector is used to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the:

A. lateral portion of the thigh.

Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction?

D. An exaggerated immune system response to any substance

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately?

C. Upper airway swelling

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction?

C. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?

D. Stridor

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct?

A. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly.

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction?

D. The environment in which the patient is found

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates:

D. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs.

A hypnotic drug is one that:

B. induces sleep.

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of:

B. aspirin.

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing:

B. tolerance.

Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested:

A. aspirin.

After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is most important to:

B. be alert for vomiting.

Airborne substances should be diluted with:

A. oxygen.

An EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:

A. recognize that a poisoning occurred.

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, except:

D. Fructose

Heroin is an example of an):

D. opioid.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:

B. oxycodone (Percocet).

If you are uncertain how to treat a patient who has been poisoned or exposed to a specific substance, you should:

A. try to find the container the substance was in.

Most poisonings occur via ______ the

route.

B. ingestion

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:

B. tachycardia.

Substance abuse is most accurately defined as:

D. misusing a substance to produce a desired effect.

The major side effect associated with administration of activated charcoal is:

B. black stools.

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center:

B. is aware of the substance that is involved.

What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children?

A. Alkaline poison.

Which of the following questions would be least pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance?

D. Why was the substance ingested?

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct?

A. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:

A. avoid contaminating yourself.