BIOL 2401 Pharmacology Final Exam Questions and answers + rationales - Dallas College

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101 Terms

1
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Phenothiazines, like chlorpromazine, are used to treat___________.

Psychosis

2
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A1 Blockers have __________ as an adverse effect.

Hypotension (They work too well)

3
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Which drug works on the hypothalamus to reduce fevers?

acetaminophen (Tylenol)

4
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Which drugs work to reduce symptoms of BPH?

A1 Blockers such as tamsulosin (Flomax) and 5-Alpha Reductase Inhibitors such as Proscar.

5
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Benzos and Antihistamines work to reduce__________.

Anxiety

6
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What are the signs and symptoms of a cholinergic crisis?

Circulatory collapse

Hypotension

Bloody Diarrhea

Bronchoconstriction

Shock

Cardiac Arrest

7
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Clients with asthma or COPD should not receive __________________________.

Non-selective Beta Blockers

8
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Hydroxzine hydrochloride (Atarax), Hydroxine pamoate (Vistaril) and diphenhydramine (Benadryl) are all ______________________ and are used to treat ______________.

Antihistamines

Anxiety

9
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Three catchecolamines are :

Epinephrine

Norepinephrine

Dopamine

10
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B1 Beta Adrenergic Receptors are located in________.

The Heart--When it comes to Beta Receptors remember: You have ONE heart and TWO lungs. Beta1 works in the heart and Beta2 works in the lungs.

11
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Cholinergic drugs mimic the ________ response which is __________ or __________ .

Parasympathetic

rest

digest

12
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Beta blocker drugs all end in what three letters?

LOL

Propranololol, atenolol, carvedilol

13
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Non-Benzos like Ambien can have ___________ as an adverse effect.

somnabulation (Sleep walking)

14
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The dopaminergic drug for Parkinson's disease is _____________'

carbida-levodopa (Sinemet)

15
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Diazepam (Valium), Alaprazolam (Xanax) and Lorazepam (Ativan) are all _________ to treat ____________.

Benzos

Anxiety

Pam is crazy and drives a Benz!

16
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Migraine headaches and glaucoma can be treated with B1 Blockers because they ___________________.

decrease pressure

17
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The Adrenergic drugs mimic the _______________ response which is _______ or ____________.

Sympathetic

Fight

Flight

18
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Cholinergic drug effects are:

Lower HR

Lower BP (through vasodilation)

Bronchial Constriction

Increased GI secretions and motility

Increased urinary frequency

Increased Salivation

Increased sweating (diphoresis)

Pupils Constric (Miosis)

19
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Bethanechol (Urecholine) is used for ___________.

Urinary Retention (URE=urine)

20
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What conditions would cholinergic drugs be useful to treat?

Glaucoma

Xerostomia (dry mouth)

GI Motility

Lowering HR

Vasodilation

Indirectly: Alzheimers

21
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What are B1 Blockers used to treat?

Angina, MI cardiac dysrhythmias, hypertension and heart failure. (B1 Blockers work on the heart so all of these are cardiac issues)

22
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What are the adverse effects of cholinergic drugs?

(Think that they suppress the parasympathetic nervous system too much.)

Syncope

Hypotension

Urinary frequency

Breathing difficulties

23
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Tylenol overdose drug:

acetylcysteine

24
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Dobutamine, Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Phenylphrine, epinephring and midodrine are all ____________.

Adrenergics

25
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Tricyclic Antidepressants are not used as often. What are some of the names to be aware of?

Elavil, Sinequan, Tofranil

26
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Patients using MAO Inhibitors should avoid__________.

Foods with tyramine (Aged cheese, wine, etc)

27
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What are the limits of acetaminophen?

4g/day (may be lowered to 3g/day)

2g/day for liver problems or advanced age

28
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What is the tylenol overdose drug?

acetylcysteine

29
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For ACE inhibitors, what would be a sign that the patient isn't tolerating the drug very well?

Dry, persistent cough

30
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What are the nursing activities for administering Ace Inhibitors?

1) Monitor BP and Serum K

2) Monitor for 1st Dose Hypotensive Effect and instruct patient to change positions slowly

3)Monitor cough

31
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What are the nursing activities for ARB's?

1)Monitor BP and Serum K (Watching for hyperkalemia)

2) Manage symptoms of hypotension

32
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What population do CCB's work best for?

African Americans (in combination with diuretics)

33
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What are the nursing activities for CCB patients?

1)Monitor BP and HR

2)Assess for hypotension and instruct patient to change positions slowly

34
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What are the general nursing activies for all antihypertensive drug patients?

1) Administered as ordered

2) Maintain safety (because of the risk of postural hypotension)

3)Assess sexual dysfunction

4) Know when to hold the drug and seek clarification

35
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What factors effect absorption or drugs?

First-pass effect (how much drug is metabolized by liver)

Food

Milk

Antacids

Grapefruit juice

Route of administration

Coatings

36
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What are the seven "rights"?

Right Dose

Right Documentation

Right Drug

Right Patient

Right Route

Right Time

Right of Refusal

37
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What are the fastest to slowest routes of administration?

IV, SL, IM, SubQ, Oral, Topical

38
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When we think of excretion, we think of __________.

Kidneys

39
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If there is impaired excretion, it could lead to______.

Toxicity

40
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Explain a schedule C-1 Drug

Most addictive, high potential for abuse, no medical use

41
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With Warfarin, the patient should avoid________. Why?

Leafy Greens

Due to the decreased anticoagulant effect

42
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Tetracycline and Quinolones patients should avoid______________.

Dairy Products due to the decreased treatment effect due to absorption

43
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Statin, Antidsyrhythmics and CCB patients should avoid____________________.

Grapefruit Juice

44
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MAO inhibitor patients and Linezolid patients should avoid_________________.

Foods with tyramine due to the raised blood pressure and a possible hypertensive crisis.

45
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Why is the enzyme cytochrome P450 important?

It is involved with a lot of drug to drug reactions because the drugs all bind to the same substrate. Either the drug has a lowered treatment effect or the drug becomes toxic because of the amount of free drug in the body.

46
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How is hypertension treated in African Americans?

With CCB's and diuretics in combination therapy

47
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What do you need to be aware of with the Asian and Hispanic populations?

They can be slow acetylators. Antipsychotics and antianxiety drugs take longer to metabolize. Therefore, a lower dosage may be needed.

48
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Rapid Acetylators have higher levels of _______ and need ___________ doses of some drugs because otherwise the treatment will be ______.

Cytochrome P-450

Higher (They metabolize the drug too fast)

Sub-Therapeutic

49
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Slow Acetylators have lower levels of _____________ and need___________ doses of some drugs because otherwise the treatment will be __________.

Cytochrome P-450

Lower (They metabolize drugs slower)

Toxic

50
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_____________ dilate all blood vessels and relax smooth muscle.

Nitrates

51
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For angina (chest pain), whether prophylactically or to treat an attack, ______________ will be used.

Nitrates

52
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What are the four antidiarrheals?

Adsorbents (Pepto-Bismol)

Anticholinergics (Bella Donna Alkyloid)

Opiate Derivatives (Immodium, Lomotil)

Probiotics

53
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How do bulk forming laxatives work?

Absorbs fluids

Stimulates GI peristalsis

54
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How do Hyperosmotic and Saline Laxatives work?

Increase of Fecal Water Content

55
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How do Emollient/Softening laxatives, like Colace, work?

By mixing stool, fat and water content

56
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What do stimulant laxatives stimulate?

The nerves for peristalsis

57
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What needs to be ASSESSED when administering adrenergic agonists such as epinephrine?

1) Photosensitivity

2) Nausea and Constipation

3) Urinary Output

58
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What needs to be MONITORED when administering adrenergic agonists?

1) Vital Signs

2) Breath Sounds

3) Watch for IV infiltration

59
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What needs to be MONITORED when administering anticholinergic drugs such as Atropine, Bentyl, Robinul, Vesicare, or Oxybutynin?

1) Bowel Sounds (can slow or stop GI motility)

2) Urinary Output (can be made difficult to urinate)

3)Oral Care (Secretions can dry up)

4) Heart Rate (can be increased)

5) Patient Safety must be ensured

6) Do not give to glaucoma patients (increases intraocular pressure)

60
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Crazy Pam Drives a Benz means what?

Benzodiazepams are used to treat psychosis and anxiety.

61
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What nursing activities are important to remember when adminstering Benzo's?

1) Taper off gradually

2) Evaluate level of anxiety

3) AVOID ETOH AND OTHER CNS DEPRESSANTS

4) Patient safety must be ensured.

62
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What nursing activities are important to remember when administering MAO Inhibitors?

1) Avoid foods with tyramine

2) Monitor mood/suicidal thoughts

3) Inform about "lag time"

4) Avoid antihistamines

5)Avoid St. John's Wort

63
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What is the therapeutic level of antiseizure meds?

10-20 mcg/mL

64
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Dilantin mixed with dextrose will create a ___________.

Precipitate. Mix with NS only

65
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With oral antiseizure meds and Lithium, _________can occur so teach to maintain ______________.

Gingival Hyperplasia

Oral Hygiene

66
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With head injury patients, would opioids be advisable to use?

NO! Avoid head injury or patients with increased intercranial pressure

67
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What should be monitored when administering Opioid painkillers?

Respiratory Rate (can slow)

Intensity of pain (should go down)

Blood Pressure (can lower)

Nausea (administer with food or antiemetic if needed)

Bowel Pattern (motility can slow or stop)

Signs of dependence

68
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What should the patient be educated on when giving opioid painkillers?

Disposing for patches properly (Fold and Flush)

Avoid activities requiring mental awareness

Increase fiber and water in diet

69
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What does the nurse need to be aware of when administering opioid painkillers?

The antidote for overdose is NARCAN. (Have on hand if respiratory depression occurs.)

There are multiple routes for adminstration.

Use the equianalgesic chart when using different routes/drugs/doses to find the right dose.

Know immediate release versus extended release forms.

70
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Why is methadone good for detox?

It has a long half life that lasts longer than the action

71
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How to administer bronchodilators:

Give bronchodilator before inhaled steroid. Wait 2-5 minutes between medications. Wait 1-2 minutes between puffs.

72
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After using an inhaled steroid, what should the patient do?

Rinse their mouth with water to prevent fungal infection.

73
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What is the route of administration of thrombolytic drugs?

IV-it is always given as an IV to quickly break up clots that cause stroke but has risky side effects because ALL clots in the body break up and the patient could bleed out.

74
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With Heparin the _________ should be monitored and kept in the _________________ range.

aPTT

Norm=25-35 seconds

Therapeutic range =45-70 seconds

75
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With Heparin injections, what are the nursing activities?

What is the overdose antidote?

Do not rub

Rotate Sites

Do not aspirate

SubQ injections

IV infusion with a pump

Protamine Sulfate

76
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What ranges are we looking at when administering warfarin (Coumadin) and what are the therapeutic levels?

What is the overdose antidote?

INR=2-3.5

PT=18 Seconds (norm=11-13 seconds)

Vitamin K

77
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All antiplatelet, antifibrinolytic, thrombolytic and anticoagulants have the same adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for. What is it and what should be done?

Bleeding

Implement bleeding precautions such as use of an electric razor, minimize dangers, etc.

78
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Diuretics, like the Loop Diuretic furosemide (Lasix), should be administered ___________.

Early in the day

79
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If the serum potassium level is low what should you do when administering the next dose of diuretics?

HOLD it until the potassium level increases or hypokalemia can occur

80
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Potasssium supplements and eating potassium rich foods would all be advised for patients taking ___________.

Diuretics

81
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With potassium-sparing diuretics, like spironolactone, they can keep too much potassium in the body which is a condition called_________.

Hyperkalemia

82
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With all diuretics, what should be monitored?

Urine output

Weight

Edema

Blood Pressure (can go too low)

Potassium levels

83
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Loop Diuretics, like furosemide, can have a cross-sensitivity allergic reaction in patients allergic to _______ drugs.

Sulfa

84
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Any stimulating growth factor, like Filgrastim (Neupogen), should not be administered within 24 hours of __________________.

Antineoplastics (Chemotherapy)

85
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Filgrastim (Neupogen) stimulates the productions of _____________________.

WBC's

86
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When do you discontinue use of Filgrastim (Neupogen)?

When the Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) is greater than 1000/mm3 for 3 or more consecutive days.

87
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When monitoring Epoetin Alfa (Epogen), use the _____________ because it changes faster.

Hemoglobin level

88
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Epoetin Alfa (Epogen) will not create RBC's without ___________________________ in the body.

Adequate stores of iron

89
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If Epoetin Alfa (Epogen) is working, the patient will feel less ______________.

Fatigue (Oxygen levels will increase)

90
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What should patients taking insulin be educated about?

Types and Routes of administration

Site Rotation

Types of Insulin

Prevention and Treatment of hypoglycemia

91
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What are the causes of hypoglycemia in diabetes patients?

Excessive Exercise

Insufficient Food

Excessive Insulin

92
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Metformin should be discontinued __________ before any radiologic test with contrast and ____________.

If not, what condition is the patient at risk for?

48 Hours

The day of the procedure

Lactic Acidosis

93
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Metformin can commonly cause:

Metformin can infrequently cause:

GI Distress

Metallic Taste, Hypoglycemia

94
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When teaching a patient about the legalities regarding a prescription for methylphenidate (Ritalin), which statement is most accurate?

a.Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a C-I narcotic that can only be prescribed according to an approved protocol.

b.Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a C-II narcotic that cannot be refilled and can only be filled with a written prescription.

c.Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a C-III narcotic for which a prescription will expire in 6 months.

d. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a C-IV narcotic that is only allowed to be refilled five times per prescription.

b.Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a C-II narcotic that cannot be refilled and can only be filled with a written prescription.

Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is classified as a C-II narcotic.

C-II narcotics can only be dispensed with a written prescription and cannot be refilled.

95
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The nurse is assessing a patient's culture and race on admission to the hospital. Which concept is important for the nurse to understand regarding drug therapy as it relates to different races of individuals?

a.Polypharmacy

b. Polymorphism

c.Pharmacokinetics

d. Pharmacodynamics

b. Polymorphism

Drug polymorphism refers to the effect of a patient's age, gender, size, body composition, and other characteristics on the pharmacokinetics of specific drugs. The race of an individual may influence drug therapy decisions for the individual.

96
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During the implementation phase of the nursing process, which action will the nurse perform when administering medications?

a.Switch the route of administration based on drug availability.

b. Call the patient by name when entering the room to verify the drug is for the right person.

c.Check the patient's armband before administering the medication.

d.Prepare medications for all patients first, then administer by room to manage time appropriately.

c.Check the patient's armband before administering the medication.

Checking the patient's armband is the most accurate method of determining identity. All the other answers leave room for error.

97
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The nursing process is important as a well-established, research-supported framework for professional nursing practice. Which is the correct order for the steps of the nursing process?

a.Evaluation, Planning, Diagnoses, Assessment, Implementation

b.Planning, Assessment, Diagnoses, Implementation, Evaluation

c. Diagnoses, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation

d.Assessment, Diagnoses, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

d.Assessment, Diagnoses, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

The typical organization for the nurse process is assessment, nursing diagnoses, planning, implementation, and evaluation.

98
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The nurse should check a medication how many times before administration of a medication under the "right drug" part of the Six Rights?

a.One time

b. Three times

c.Five times

d.Depends on the drug being administered

b. Three times

The nurse should check the medication three times and confirm each time that the medication is the right drug before to administration of the medication.

99
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Pharmacokinetics involves the study of

a. physiologic interactions of drugs.

b.distribution rates among various body compartments.

c.interactions between various drugs.

d. adverse reactions to medications.

b.distribution rates among various body compartments.

Pharmacokinetics involves the study of how the drug moves through the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

100
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Highly protein-bound drugs

a. increase the risk of drug-drug interactions.

b. typically provide a short duration of action.

c.must be administered with 8 ounces of water.

d. have a decreased effect in patients with a low albumin level.

a. increase the risk of drug-drug interactions.

When administering two medications that are highly protein bound, the medications can compete for binding sites on plasma proteins. This competition results in either less of both or less of one of the drugs binding to the proteins, thus increasing the risk of toxicity.