P Post-test 4 (Aircraft Powerplant)

1. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will

A. decrease and the amperage output will increase.

B. remain constant and the amperage output will increase.

C. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease.

D. All of the above

B. remain constant and the amperage output will increase

2. When does battery current flow through the primary circuit of a battery ignition coil?

A. Only when the breaker points are open.

B. At all times when the ignition switch is on.

C. When the breaker points are closed and the ignition switch is on.

D. All of the above

C. When the breaker points are closed and the ignition switch is on

3. Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture

A. burns too fast.

B. ignites before the time of normal ignition.

C. is too rich.

D. All of the above

A. burns too fast

4. The Federal Aviation Regulations require the fuel flow rate for gravity systems (main and reserve) to be

A. 125 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine.

B. 125 percent of the maximum, except takeoff, fuel consumption of the engine.

C. 150 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine.

D. None of the above

C. 150 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine

5. At what RPM is a reciprocating engine ignition switch check made?

A. 1,500 RPM.

B. The slowest possible RPM.

C. Full throttle RPM.

D. All of the above

B. The slowest possible RPM

6. Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of crankshaft travel

A. during which both valves are off their seats.

B. between the closing of the intake valve and the opening of the exhaust valve.

C. during which both valves are on their seats.

D. All of the above

A. during which both valves are off their seats

7. An engine lubrication system pressure relief valve is usually located between the

A. oil cooler and the scavenger pump.

B. scavenger pump and the external oil system.

C. pump and the internal oil system.

D. None of the above

C. pump and the internal oil system

8. How does the aerodynamic twisting force affect operating propeller blades?

A. It tends to turn the blades to a high blade angle.

B. It tends to bend the blades forward.

C. It tends to turn the blades to a low blade angle.

D. All of the above

A. It tends to turn the blades to a high blade angle

9. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are usually what type(s)?

A. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.

B. Teflon and synthetic rubber.

C. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.

D. None of the above

A. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing

10. Where would one find type design information for an R1830-92 engine certificated under the Civil Air Regulations (CAR) and installed on a DC-3?

A. The Aircraft Specifications and Type Certificate Data Sheet.

B. The Aircraft Engine Specifications.

C. The Aircraft Engine Type Certificate Handbook.

D. All of the above

B. The Aircraft Engine Specifications

11. What speed must an eight-pole ac generator turn to produce 400-Hertz ac?

A. 400 RPM.

B. 1,200 RPM.

C. 6,000 RPM.

D. None of the above

C. 6,000 RPM

12. What precaution is usually taken to prevent electrolyte from freezing in a lead acid battery?

A. Place the aircraft in a hangar.

B. Remove the battery and keep it under constant charge.

C. Keep the battery fully charged.

D. All of the above

C. Keep the battery fully charged

13. A nine-cylinder engine with a bore of 5.5 inches and a stroke of 6 inches will have a total piston displacement of

A. 740 cubic inches.

B. 1,425 cubic inches.

C. 1,283 cubic inches.

D. All of the above

C. 1,283 cubic inches

14. To what altitude will a turbo charged engine maintain sea level pressure?

A. Critical altitude.

B. Service ceiling.

C. Pressure altitude.

D. None of the above

A. Critical altitude

15. If the hot clearance is used to set the valves when the engine is cold, what will occur during operation of the engine?

A. The valves will open early and close early.

B. The valves will open late and close early.

C. The valves will open early and close late.

D. All of the above

B. The valves will open late and close early

16. During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are checked for stretch

A. with a suitable inside spring caliper.

B. with a contour or radius gauge.

C. by placing the valve on a surface plate and measuring its length with a vernier height gauge.

D. All of the above

B. with a contour or radius gauge

17. If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct, the combustion process should be completed

A. 20 to 30° before top center at the end of the compression stroke.

B. when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the power stroke.

C. just after top center at the beginning of the power stroke.

D. None of the above

C. just after top center at the beginning of the power stroke

18. Which of the following determines oil and grease specifications for lubrication of propellers?

A. Airframe manufacturers.

B. Engine manufacturers.

C. Propeller manufacturers.

D. None of the above

C. Propeller manufacturers

19. Ignition occurs at 28 degrees BTDC on a certain four-stroke cycle engine, and the intake valve opens at 15 degrees BTDC. How many degrees of crankshaft travel after ignition does the intake valve open? (Consider one cylinder only.)

A. 707 degrees.

B. 373 degrees.

C. 347 degrees.

D. None of the above

B. 373 degrees

20. How many of the following are factors in establishing the maximum compression ratio limitations of an aircraft engine?

1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used.

2. Design limitations of the engine.

3. Degree of supercharging.

4. Spark plug reach.

A. Four.

B. Two.

C. Three.

D. None of the above

C. Three

21. During which of the following conditions of flight will the blade pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller be the greatest?

A. Approach to landing.

B. Climb following takeoff.

C. High-speed, high-altitude cruising flight.

D. All of the above

C. High-speed, high-altitude cruising flight

22. What is the difference between a low-tension and a high-tension engine ignition system?

A. A low-tension system produces relatively low voltage at the spark plug as compared to a high-tension system.

B. A high-tension system is designed for high-altitude aircraft, while a low-tension system is for low- to medium-altitude aircraft.

C. A low-tension system uses a transformer coil near the spark plugs to boost voltage, while the high-tension system voltage is constant from the magneto to the spark plugs.

D. All of the above

C. A low-tension system uses a transformer coil near the spark plugs to boost voltage, while the high-tension system voltage is constant from the magneto to the spark plugs

23. Which of the following is a primary engine instrument?

A. Tachometer.

B. Fuel flowmeter.

C. Airspeed indicator.

D. None of the above

A. Tachometer

24. Which of the following are included in a typical turbine engine ignition system?

1. Two igniter plugs.

2. Two transformers.

3. One exciter unit.

4. Two intermediate ignition leads.

5. Two low-tension igniter leads.

6. Two high-tension igniter leads.

A. 2, 3, 4.

B. 1, 4, 5.

C. 1, 3, 6.

D. None of the above

C. 1, 3, 6

25. Frequently, an aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) generator

A. is identical to the engine-driven generators.

B. supplements the aircraft's engine-driven generators during peak loads.

C. has a higher load capacity than the engine-driven generators.

D. All of the above

A. is identical to the engine-driven generators

26. The time in seconds required for exactly 60 cubic centimeters of oil to flow through an accurately calibrated orifice at a specific temperature is recorded as a measurement of the oil's

A. flash point.

B. specific gravity.

C. viscosity.

D. All of the above

C. viscosity

27. What type of oil do most engine manufacturers recommend for new reciprocating engine break-in?

A. Ashless-dispersant oil.

B. Straight mineral oil.

C. Semi-synthetic oil.

D. None of the above

B. Straight mineral oil

28. The application of carburetor heat will have which of the following effects?

A. The manifold pressure will be increased.

B. The mixture will become leaner.

C. The mixture will become richer.

D. All of the above

C. The mixture will become richer

29. A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on both sides of the impeller is a

A. double entry centrifugal compressor.

B. double entry axial-flow compressor.

C. single entry axial-flow compressor.

D. All of the above

A. double entry centrifugal compressor

30. If the oil in the oil cooler core and annular jacket becomes congealed, what unit prevents damage to the cooler?

A. Oil pressure relief valve.

B. Airflow control valve.

C. Surge protection valve.

D. None of the above

C. Surge protection valve

31. (1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome-plated cylinders.

(2) Chrome-plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders.

Regarding the above statements,

A. only No. 1 is true.

B. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

D. All of the above

C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true

32. What special procedure must be followed when adjusting the valves of an engine equipped with a floating cam ring?

A. Adjust valves when the engine is hot.

B. Adjust all exhaust valves before intake valves.

C. Eliminate cam bearing clearance when making valve adjustment.

D. All of the above

C. Eliminate cam bearing clearance when making valve adjustment

33. Why is expansion space required in an engine oil supply tank?

A. To eliminate oil foaming.

B. For oil enlargement and collection of foam.

C. For proper oil tank ventilation.

D. All of the above

B. For oil enlargement and collection of foam

34. Which of the following is NOT a function of the carburetor venturi?

A. Proportions the fuel/air mixture.

B. Regulates the idle system.

C. Limits the airflow at full throttle.

D. None of the above

B. Regulates the idle system

35. What test instrument could be used to test an ignition harness for suspected leakage?

A. A high tension lead tester.

B. A high voltage dc voltmeter.

C. A high amperage dc ammeter.

D. None of the above

A. A high tension lead tester

36. What part of an air-cooled cylinder assembly has the greatest fin area per square inch?

A. Cylinder barrel.

B. Rear of the cylinder head.

C. Exhaust valve port.

D. All of the above

C. Exhaust valve port

37. An aircraft's propeller system beta range

A. is used to produce zero or negative thrust.

B. is used to achieve maximum thrust during takeoff.

C. refers to the most fuel efficient pitch range to use at a given engine RPM.

D. All of the above

A. is used to produce zero or negative thrust

38. Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball bearing?

A. Rocker arm bearing (overhead valve engine).

B. Master rod bearing (radial engine).

C. Crankshaft main bearing (radial engine).

D. None of the above

B. Master rod bearing (radial engine)

39. Indentations on bearing races caused by high static loads are known as

A. fretting.

B. brinelling.

C. galling.

D. All of the above

B. brinelling

40. The fire detection system that uses a single wire surrounded by a continuous string of ceramic beads in a tube is the

A. Fenwal system.

B. Kidde system.

C. thermocouple system.

D. None of the above

A. Fenwal system.

41. What method is ordinarily used to make idle speed adjustments on a float-type carburetor?

A. An adjustable throttle stop or linkage.

B. An orifice and adjustable tapered needle.

C. An adjustable needle in the drilled passageway which connects the airspace of the float chamber and the carburetor venturi.

D. None of the above

A. An adjustable throttle stop or linkage

42. What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?

A. Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary flow clogs or is restricted.

B. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies.

C. Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the atomization of fuel.

D. None of the above

B. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies

43. Some high-volume turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with two-spool or split compressors. When these engines are operated at high altitudes, the

A. low-pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density air.

B. throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding of the high-pressure rotor due to the lower density air.

C. low-pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density air.

D. All of the above

A. low-pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density air

44. The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the order of their occurrence are

A. intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust.

B. intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust.

C. intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust.

D. None of the above

C. intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust

45. What is used to polish commutators or slip rings?

A. Very fine sandpaper.

B. Crocus cloth or fine oilstone.

C. Aluminum oxide or garnet paper.

D. All of the above

A. Very fine sandpaper.

46. Where is the throttle valve located on a float-type carburetor?

A. Between the venturi and the discharge nozzle.

B. After the main discharge nozzle and venturi.

C. After the venturi and just before the main discharge nozzle.

D. All of the above

B. After the main discharge nozzle and venturi

47. What operational force causes propeller blade tips to lag in the opposite direction of rotation?

A. Thrust-bending force.

B. Aerodynamic-twisting force.

C. Torque-bending force.

D. All of the above

C. Torque-bending force

48. Magneto pole shoes are generally made of

A. laminations of high-grade soft iron.

B. laminations of high-grade Alnico.

C. pieces of high-carbon iron.

D. None of the above

A. laminations of high-grade soft iron

49. In an airplane equipped with an alternate air system, if the main air duct air filter becomes blocked or clogged, the

A. system will automatically allow warm, unfiltered air to be drawn into the engine.

B. flow of air into the engine will be slowed or cut off unless alternate air is selected.

C. system will automatically allow warm, filtered alternate air to be drawn into the engine.

D. None of the above

A. system will automatically allow warm, unfiltered air to be drawn into the engine

50. Spark plug heat range is determined by

A. the reach of the spark plug.

B. its ability to transfer heat to the cylinder head.

C. the number of ground electrodes.

D. None of the above

B. its ability to transfer heat to the cylinder head