Auditing Practice Exam 2 MCQS

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41 Terms

1
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The primary objective of tests of controls is to determine whether

A. Financial statements follow GAAP

B. Internal controls operate as designed

C. Audit quality standards are met

D. Transactions are properly valued


Internal controls operate as designed

2
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 If assessed control risk is increased, maintaining the same overall audit risk requires the auditor to

A. Increase inherent risk

B. Reduce detection risk

C. Reduce substantive testing

D. Increase materiality



Reduce detection risk

3
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A system of internal control is best described as

A. Applicable only to public companies

B. A guarantee of regulatory compliance

C. Policies and procedures providing reasonable assurance of objectives

D. Designed and implemented by auditors



Policies and procedures providing reasonable assurance of objectives

4
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 Auditing standards require auditors to presume fraud risk exists in

A. Disclosures

B. Revenue recognition

C. Payroll accruals

D. Liability estimates



Revenue recognition

5
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 Communication of material weaknesses to governance must be

A. Oral only

B. Written only

C. Either oral or written

D. Informal



Written only

6
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The combination of audit procedures used to gather sufficient evidence in a cycle is called the

A. Testing mix

B. Evidence mix

C. Audit strategy

D. Procedure plan



Evidence mix

7
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 When control testing supports expected operation, the auditor should use

A. Lower assessed control risk

B. Higher assessed control risk

C. Unchanged assessed control risk

D. Either higher or lower risk



Lower assessed control risk

8
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Low performance materiality combined with high inherent and control risk will cause tests of details to

A. Decrease

B. Remain unchanged

C. Increase

D. Be eliminated



Increase

9
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Understanding internal control requires evaluating its

A. Design and operating effectiveness

B. Design and efficiency

C. Implementation and frequency

D. Operating effectiveness only



Design and operating effectiveness

10
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 Risk assessment procedures do NOT

A. Identify risk of misstatement

B. Support audit planning

C. Provide sufficient evidence for an opinion

D. Aid understanding of the entity



Provide sufficient evidence for an opinion

11
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Results of control tests primarily influence the auditor’s

A. Use of analytical procedures

B. Extent of tests of details

C. Audit report wording

D. Staffing decisions



Extent of tests of details

12
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 Before finalizing internal control assessment, the auditor must

A. Test controls only

B. Perform substantive testing only

C. Test controls and perform substantive tests

D. Rely solely on risk assessment



Test controls and perform substantive tests

13
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Two common indicators of revenue fraud include

A. Analytical anomalies and documentation issues

B. Asset theft and analytics

C. Missing evidence and vague responses

D. Analytical procedures and confirmations



Analytical anomalies and documentation issues

14
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Auditing automated controls electronically is known as

A. Auditing around the computer

B. Auditing through the computer

C. Parallel simulation

D. Embedded audit modules



Auditing through the computer

15
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 Which is NOT an advantage of generalized audit software?

A. Speed of testing

B. Minimal customization

C. Client-specific customization

D. Ease of learning



Client-specific customization

16
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Responsibility for internal control effectiveness under PCAOB standards rests with

A. The audit committee

B. The board of directors

C. Management

D. External auditors



Management

17
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 Implementing a new system in one area while others continue using the old system is called

A. Online testing

B. Parallel testing

C. Pilot testing

D. Control testing



Pilot testing

18
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When fraud risk indicators arise, auditors should

A. Withdraw immediately

B. Gather additional evidence and consult

C. Report directly to regulators

D. Ignore immaterial issues



Gather additional evidence and consult



19
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 Primary responsibility for preventing fraud through internal controls lies with

A. Auditors

B. Audit committees

C. Management

D. Regulators



Management

20
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Which situation most increases fraud risk?

A. Job rotation emphasis

B. Performance-based evaluations

C. Pressure to meet earnings expectations

D. Budget variance explanations



Pressure to meet earnings expectations

21
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Smaller organizations are more susceptible to fraud due to limited

A. Financial reporting standards

B. Compensation systems

C. Segregation of duties

D. Technology



Segregation of duties

22
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. Fingerprint access controls are an example of

A. Physical controls

B. IT controls

C. Preventive controls

D. Detective controls



Preventive controls

23
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 Which test yields the broadest range of audit evidence?

A. Tests of controls

B. Substantive tests of transactions

C. Risk assessment procedures

D. Tests of details of balances



Substantive tests of transactions

24
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 If control risk was underestimated, the auditor should

A. Lower inherent risk

B. Increase control risk

C. Lower acceptable audit risk

D. Increase inherent risk



Increase control risk

25
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 Effective analytical procedures may allow the auditor to

A. Eliminate balance testing

B. Reduce other substantive procedures

C. Avoid transaction testing

D. Increase sample sizes



Reduce other substantive procedures

26
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Which represents a material weakness in internal control?

A. Monthly bank reconciliations

B. Audit committee turnover

C. CEO retirement

D. CFO embezzlement indictment



CFO embezzlement indictment

27
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Control deficiencies are evaluated based on the

A. Amount and classification only

B. Likelihood only

C. Amount, likelihood, and classification

D. Classification only



Amount, likelihood, and classification


28
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Presentation and disclosure objectives are addressed during

A. Planning

B. Substantive testing

C. Completion and reporting

D. Control testing



Completion and reporting

29
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Firewalls primarily protect against

A. Internal data errors

B. Unauthorized external access

C. Programming mistakes

D. Poor documentation



Unauthorized external access

30
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The biggest internal control challenge for small entities is often

A. Lack of documentation

B. Inadequate segregation of duties

C. Unclear authority lines

D. Insufficient compensation



Inadequate segregation of duties

31
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 Most occupational frauds are uncovered through

A. Internal audits

B. Tips

C. Law enforcement

D. Confessions



Tips

32
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Ongoing evaluation of internal control effectiveness is called

A. Oversight

B. Monitoring

C. Verification

D. Risk assessment



Monitoring

33
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Which statement about assets and fraud risk is correct?

A. Fixed assets are rarely stolen

B. Repairs are sometimes capitalized improperly

C. Intangibles pose no fraud risk

D. Assets need not be inventoried



Repairs are sometimes capitalized improperly

34
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Risk that affects the auditor after the engagement concludes is

A. Audit risk

B. Control risk

C. Engagement risk

D. Inherent risk



Engagement risk

35
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 Encryption is used to

A. Restrict internal access

B. Secure transmitted and stored data

C. Prevent hacking

D. Replace firewalls



Secure transmitted and stored data

36
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 Risk of misstatement before considering controls is

A. Control risk

B. Inherent risk

C. Material risk

D. Detection risk



Inherent risk

37
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Tests of details of balances focus primarily on

A. Expense accounts

B. Balance sheet accounts

C. Revenue accounts

D. Cash flow items



Balance sheet accounts

38
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 When inherent risk is low, the auditor should generally

A. Increase evidence

B. Expand planning

C. Assign senior staff

D. Do none of the above



Do none of the above

39
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Understanding controls helps auditors primarily to

A. Detect fraud

B. Assess inherent risk

C. Assess risk of material misstatement

D. Perform analytics



Assess risk of material misstatement

40
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 Identified fraud risks must be treated as

A. Immaterial

B. Significant risks

C. Ignored unless proven

D. Reasons to withdraw



Significant risks

41
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Fraud categories include

A. Financial reporting only

B. Asset misappropriation only

C. Both financial reporting and asset misappropriation

D. Neither



Both financial reporting and asset misappropriation