iPTX 3 exam 3 - infective endocarditis, iPTX 3 exam 3 - Bacterial Meningitis, iPTX 3 exam 3 - Med Chem: Antifungal Drugs, iPTX 3 exam 3 - Superficial Fungal Infections, iPTX 3 exam 3 - Invasive Fungal Infections, iPTX3 EX4 L4 (MEDCHEM NON-HIV ANTI-VI…

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Last updated 10:53 PM on 10/10/26
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841 Terms

1
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T or F:

Infective Endocarditis (Inf. Endo) is the fourth most common life-threatening infection following sepsis, pneumonia, and intra-abdominal abscess

True

2
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T or F:

Mortality rates vary with infecting organisms

True

3
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What is the meidan length of stay for Inf. Endo?

10 days

4
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What is the pathophysiology of Inf. Endo?

Bacteria adheres to an surface such as a compromised cardiac valve, platelest and fibrin deposit on the endothelial surface, pathogens in the blood adhere to the deposit, Biofilms and vegetation occur, inflammatory response occurs

5
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What are the risk factors for Inf. Endo?

Proesthetic heart Valve, Cardiac Implantable Electronic Device (CIED), Injection Drug Use, Structural Heart Disease, Persistent bacteremia, Repeated exposure to healthcare environments, poor dental hygiene.

6
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What are 4 examples of Structural heart disease?

Congenital Defect, Rheumatic Heart Disease, Mitral Valve Prolapse, Degenerative valvular lesions

7
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What is the most common cause of Inf. Endo?

S. aureus

8
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Which of the CoNs microbes are more virulent?

S. lugdunensis

9
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T or F:

Most CoNs are Methicillin-Susceptible

False

10
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what are the 2 examples of CoNs microbes that commonly cause Inf. Endo?

S. epidermidis, S. lugdenensis

11
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Which microbe group are most commonly associated with dental plaques?

Viridians Group Streptococci (VGS)

12
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What are the examples of VGS?

S. sanguis, S. oralis, S. salivarus, S. mutans, Gemella morbillorum

13
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What microbe group forms abscesses and metasasis to extracardiac sites?

S. anginosus group

14
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What microbe group commonly causes GI or genitourinary tract infections?

Group D streptococci

15
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What is an example of a Group D streptococi?

S. gallolyticus

16
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What is procedure is recommended with a concern for S. gallolyticus infection?

Colonoscopy

17
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What microbe is responsible for 97% of enterococcal IE (Inf. Endo) cases?

E. faecalis

18
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T or F:

E. faecium causes more enteroccoal Inf. Endo cases than E. faecalis

False

19
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What kind of ABx therapy is needed to terat enterococci Inf. Endo?

Synergistic combo therapy (Bactericidal)

20
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What microbes have a high risk of infection associated with IV catheters, cardiac devices and prosthetic valves?

Fungi

21
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What heart valve(s) is most involved with Left-sided IE?

Mitral, aortic

22
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What occurs as a result of Left-sided IE?

Peripheral emboli, neurological stroke features

23
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What heart valve(s) is most involved with Right-sided IE?

Tricuspid, pulmonary valves

24
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What occurs as a result of Right-sided IE?

Septic pulmonary emboli

25
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T or F:

Injection drug use is more common with Left-Sided IE

False

26
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T or F:

Left-sided IE has lower curable rates and higher mortality rates than Right-sided IE

True

27
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What is the main difference between subacute IE and acute IE regarding its symptom onset?

Subacute is gradual and over weeks, Acute is more sudden and over days

28
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What are differentiating symptoms of IE compared to a general infection?

SOB, worsening or new onset of HF

29
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What S/sx are associated with general infection?

Fever (> 38 C), leukocytosis (> 12,000), Hemodynamic instability ( < 90 mmHg SBP, < 65 mmHg MAP; > 90 bpm, > 22 breaths/min)

30
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What are the 3 types of vascular & immunologic phenomena involved with IE?

Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, Roth spots

31
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What diagnostic tool is used as the initial screening of IE?

Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE)

32
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What diagnostic tool is more preferred for patients with prosthetic valves or CIEDs?

Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)

33
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What are Janeway lesions more associated with?

Septic micro emboli; on the soles and palms

34
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What are Osler nodes associated with?

Vasculitis; on the fingers and toe tips

35
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What are Roth spots associated with?

Intra-retinal hemorrhage

36
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What 3 Major diagnostic categories are used in Duke-ISCVID criteria?

Microbiologic, imaging, surgical

37
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What are the different types of Minor diagnostic categories used in Duke-ISCVID criteria?

Predisposition to IE, Fever, vascular phenomena, immunologic phenomena, microbiologic evidence, physical exam findings

38
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What is the diagnositic definition of IE?

Pathologic criteria OR clinical criteria

39
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What are the 3 ways of clinical criteria is IE diagnosed?

2 major criteria OR 1 Major criteria + 3 Minor criteria OR 5 minor criteria

40
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what are the 2 clinical crtieria is IE possible in a patient?

1 major criterion + 1 minor criterion. OR 3 minor criteria

41
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What are the 4 ways diagnostics of IE is rejected?

Another diagnosis explaining S/sx, Lack of recurrence with ABx < 4 days, No evidence at surgery/autopsy with ABx < 4 days, does not meet possible criteria

42
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What are the benefits of having a multidisciplinary team for the treatment of IE?

Decreased short-term mortality rates, decreased time to surgery, increased surgery rates

43
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What does surgery help with in treating IE?

Prevents embolism, repairs damaged cardiac valves, restores cardiac function

44
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How many hours is considered early surgery intervention for IE?

48 - 72 hours

45
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T or F:

Early surgery is favored (48 - 72 hours) for IE, unless there was a hemorrhagic or major ischemic stroke

True

46
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What is the goal ABx therapy in IE?

Eradicate the causative pathogen(s), which may also require surgery

47
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What is prolonged treatment defined as for IE ABx treatment?

Cumulative pathogen-directed ABx therapy provided AFTER bacteremia clearance

48
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What ABx are the initial treatments for Native MSSA IE?

Naficillin, Oxacillin, Cefazolin

49
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what ABx are used as continuation regimens for Native MSSA IE?

Dalbavancin, Ortiavancin, Dicloxacillin + Rifampin, Linezolid + Rifampin

50
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what ABx are used as initial treatments for Native MRSA IE?

Vancomycin, Daptomycin (dosed 8 - 12 mg/kg), Ceftaroline, Linezolid

51
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What ABx are used as continuation regimens for Native MRSA IE?

Dalbavancin, Linezolid + Rifampin

52
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What is the treatment duration for Staphylococci Native Valve IE treatment?

4 weeks

53
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T or F:

Pathogen-directed treatment duration begins before bacteriemia clearance

False

54
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What ABx are used as initial treatments for MSSA Prosthetic Valve IE?

Naficillin OR Oxacillin OR Cefazolin + Rifampin

55
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What ABx are used as initial treatments for MRSA Prosthetic Valve IE?

Vancomycin OR Daptomycin (dosed 8 - 12 mg/kg) OR Ceftaroline OR Linezolid + Rifampin

56
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What is the treatment duration for MRSA Prosthetic Valve IE?

6 weeks

57
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What ABx are used as initial treatment for Streptococci IE?

Penicillin G, Ceftriaxone

58
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what are the ABx alternatives for initial treatment for Streptococci IE if a patient is allergic to penicillin?

Vancomycin, Linezolid

59
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What injectable ABx are used for continuation regimen for Streptococci IE?

Dalbavancin, Oritavancin

60
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What PO ABx are used for continuation regimen for Streptococci IE?

Amoxicillin + Linezolid, Linezolid + Rifampin, Linezolid + Moxifloxacin

61
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What ABx is used for initial treatment for Penicillin-intermediate IE?

Ceftriaxone

62
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What injectable ABx is used for continuation regimen of Penicillin-intermediate IE?

Dalbavancin, Oritavancin

63
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What PO ABx are used for continuation regimen of Penicillin-intermediate IE?

Linezolid + Rifampin, Moxifloxacin + Rifampin, Moxifloxacin + Clindamycin

64
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What ABx are used for initial treatment of Penicillin-Resistant IE?

Ceftriaxone + Gentamicin (for the first 2 weeks), Vancomycin

65
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What injectable ABx is used for continuation regimen of Penicillin-resistant IE?

Dalbavancin, Ortiavancin

66
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What PO ABx is used for continuation regimen of Penicillin-resistant IE?

Linezolid + Rifampin, Moxifloxacin + Rifampin, Moxifloxacin + Clindamycin

67
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What is the treatment duration of Streptococci IE treatment for a native valve?

4 weeks

68
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What is the treatment duration of Streptococci IE treatment for a prosthetic valve?

6 weeks

69
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What is the dosing of Daptomycin in the initial treatments for VRE?

10 - 12 mg/kg

70
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What is the treatment duration of Enterococci IE?

6 weeks

71
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T or F:

Clinical evidence is sufficient enough to support the use of rifampin in IE treatment

False

72
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In Dual B-Lactam therapy, ampicillin binds to PBP __ & ___

4, 5

73
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In Dual B-Lactam therapy, Ceftriaxone binds to PBP ___ & ___

2, 3

74
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What is the main advantage(s) of using Dual B-Lactam therapy?

Less nephrotoxicity, no therapeutic drug monitroing

75
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What are the ineligible criteria for Step-Down to PO therapy treatment?

BMI > 40, Reduced PO absorption, concomitant infection needing IV therapy, reduced medication adherence

76
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What are the ineligible criteria for Step-Down to Lipoglycopeptide treatment?

Cost, Availability, Drug interactions, Drug allergy

77
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What DDI does Oritavancin have?

Coagulation assays (increasing PT & aPTT times), inhibits warfarin metabolism

78
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T or F:

UFH is CI for 120 after dalbavancin administration

False

79
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T or F:

ABx prophylaxis is suggested in all dental procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue or periapical region of teeth OR perfortation of the oral mucosa and 4 criteria

True

80
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What are the 4 criteria for patients that need ABx prophylaxis for dental procedures?

Prosthetic cardiac valve, previous/relaspe/recurrent IE, congenital heart disease, cardiac transplant recipients who develop cardiac valvulopathy

81
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What is the preferred ABx that is used for a patient that is able to do PO medication for dental ABX prophylaxis

Amoxicillin

82
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what are the preferred ABx that is used for a patient that cannot do PO medication for dental ABX prophylaxis?

Ampicillin, Cefazolin, Ceftriaxone

83
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What are the preferred ABx that is used for a patient with Penicillin/Amoxicillin allergy and that can take PO medication for dental ABX prophylaxis?

Keflex, Cefuroxime, Azithromycin, doxycycline

84
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What are the preferred ABx that is used for a patient with penicillin/amoxicillin allergy and CANNOT take PO medication for dental ABX prophylaxis?

Cefazolin, Ceftriaxone

85
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T or F:

Administer a single ABx dose 30 - 60 minutes AFTER the procedure

False

86
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what are the biggest risk factors with Meningitis?

Extremes in age (< 1 yr and > 65 yr), unvaccinated individuals, anatomical/functional asplenia

87
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What is bacterial meningitis?

inflammation/infection affecting the meninges with positive bacterial cultures

88
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What is a common type of aseptic meningitis?

Drug-induced Aseptic Meningitis (DIAM)

89
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What are the most common causes of DIAM?

NSAIDS, IVIG, aminopenicillins, sulfonamide ABx

90
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what is the most common microbe(s) that cause community-acquired meningitis in ages 2 - 50?

S. pneumoniae, N. meningitis

91
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What is the predisposing factor of healthcare-associated bacterial meningitis?

Common Bacterial Pathogens

92
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what are the risk factors for Listeria monocytogenes?

Extremes in ages, alcoholism, malignancy, use of chornic corticosteroids, immunocompromised, diabetes, cirrhosis, pregnancy, CKD

93
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What is the pathogenesis of bacterial meningitis?

Microbes colonize nasopharynx --> invasion of intravascular space --> avoids immune system detection in bloodstream --> infection of choroid plexus epithelial cells --> bacteria multiples in CSF --> massive production of CSF cytokines and chemokines

94
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What is the meninges composition for Outermost to Innermost?

Dura mater --> Arachnoid mater --> subarachnoid space (CSF) --> Pia mater

95
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What are the classid triad of the S/sx of meningitis?

Fever, Nuchal rigidity (neck stiffness), AMS

96
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What are the main S/Sx for encephalitis?

Profound AMS (confusion, behavioral abnormalities), focal/generalized seizures, focal neurological disturbances (ataxia, aphasia)

97
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What are the 2 types of physical examinations for bacterial meningitis?

Brudzinksi's Sign, Kernig's Sign

98
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What is Brudzinski's sign?

Severe neck stiffness causes the patient's hips/knees to flex when the neck is flexed

99
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What is Kernig's sign?

Severe stiffness of the hamstrings that causes an inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to a 90 degree angle

100
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T or F:

Neonates and Infants present with more specific S/sx and either positive Brudzinski/Kernig's sign

False