MLS ascp high yield micro

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Last updated 2:26 AM on 10/1/26
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138 Terms

1
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What is a GPC that is Catalase +, Coag +, salt tolerant, beta hemolytic

Staph aureus and intermedius, in GPC clusters

2
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What does Staph aureus and intermedius cause?

Scaled skin syndrome from enterotoxins, hyaluronidase, TSS from tampons. However, 50% of us carry this organism on our skin and nares

3
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What is MRSA and what do you treat it with

When beta lactamase inactivates penicillin/ampicllin. Treat these strains with vancomycin

4
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What is a GPC that is catalase +, coag =, oxidase +, bacitracin sensitive

Micrococcus- yellow colonies

5
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What is a GPC thats catalase +, coag =, oxidase =, bacitracin =

Coag neg staph- s. Epidermidis/ s. Saprophyticus

6
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How do you tell Staph epidermidis and staph saprophyticus apart (coag neg staphs)

S. Epi is novobivin sensitive (ZOI >16mm) while S. Saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant

7
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What does Staph saprophyticus cause

Urinary tract infections (UTI) in sexually active females

8
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What does staph epidermidis cause

Hospital acquired opportunistic pathogen gets into surgical wounds; in via catheters to cause UTI’s, possesses glycocalyx (capsule/slime layer/biofilm)

<p>Hospital acquired opportunistic pathogen gets into surgical wounds; in via catheters to cause UTI’s, possesses glycocalyx (capsule/slime layer/biofilm)</p>
9
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What GPC is catalse =, alpha hemolytic, bile solubility + and optochin disc sensitive >14 mm

Strep pneumonia, lancet shaped/in pairs, glistening wet domed colonies

10
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What protects strep pneumoniae from phagocytosis?

Polysaccharide capsule

11
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What does strep pneumoniae cause

Causes pneumonia and meningitis in adults and otitis media in children

12
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What GPC is catalase =, alpha hemolytic, optochin disc resistant, and bile esculin negative

Strep viridins

13
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What does strep viridans cause

Normal flora of upper respiratory tract but cases dental infections and if it gets into bloodstream, it can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis

14
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What GPC is catalse =, alpha/beta hemolytic, optochin disc resistant, bile esculin +, PYR (6.5% NaCl) +

Enterococcus

15
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What GPC is catalase =, alpha/beta hemolytic, optochin disc resistant, bile esculin +, PYR -

Streptococcus Group D

16
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What GPC is catalase negative, beta hemolytic, PYR +, bacitracin sensitive

Strep pyogenes (group A)

17
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What does strep pyogenes (gp A) cause

Strep throat, scarlet fever

18
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What GPC is catalase =, beta hemolytic, PYR =, bacitracin resistant, hippurite +, CAMP+

Strep agalactiae (gp B)

19
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What can strep agalctiae (gp B) cause

Normal flora of genitourinary tract0 can transmit to baby causing neonatal sepsis, meningitis, or pneumonia.

20
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Why is strep B antiphagocytic

Because of its sialic acid capsule

21
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What GPB is spore forming, beta hemolytic and motile

Bacillus sp. “box cars”, causes food poisoning

22
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What GPB is a spore former, non hemolytic and not motile

Bacillus anthrasis- anthrax “box cars” “medusa head colonies”. Livestock hides → skin contact can produce “black escher” ulcers

23
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What GPC is not spore forming, but is brancing

Nocardia- beaded, branching chains, partially acid fast, immunocompromised suffer invasive pulmonary and disseminated infections

24
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What GPC is not spore forming, not branching, catalase +, motile, and bile esculin +

Listeria- umbrella growth in motility agar at room temp but not 35C, often found in dairy products

<p>Listeria- umbrella growth in motility agar at room temp but not 35C, often found in dairy products</p>
25
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Why do neonates and immunocompromised fall ill to Listeria

They suffer from septicemia and meningitis because this is an intracellular organism and cell mediated immunity is required to fight it

26
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What GPB is not spore forming, not branching, catalase +, not motile, bile esculin =

Corynebacterium- cuneiform or chinese letters morphology, metachromatic granules with loefflor methylene blue, black colonies with brown halo on Tindale agar or black colonies on cysteine-tellurite

<p>Corynebacterium- cuneiform or chinese letters morphology, metachromatic granules with loefflor methylene blue, black colonies with brown halo on Tindale agar or black colonies on cysteine-tellurite</p>
27
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What characteristics do all Haemophilus species have

Gram negative coccobacillus, non motile, normal flora of upper respiratory tract

28
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Which Haemophilus sp is X factor (hemin) +, V factor (NAD) +, non hemolytic

H. Influenza- some produce B-lactamase and thus are resistant to penicillin ampicillin

29
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What does H. Influenza type b cause in children

Meningitis, most common cause. We use Hib vaccine to combat it

30
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What does H. Influenza aegyptius cause

Pink eye

31
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Which haemophilus is X factor (hemin) +, V factor (NAD) +, B-hemolytic on horse blood

H. Haemolyticus

32
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Which haemophilus is X factor (NAD) =, V factor (NAD) +, non hemolytic

H. Parainfluenzae

33
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Which Haemophilus is X facotr (hemin) =, V factor (NAD) =, non hemolytic

H. Aphrophilus- HACEK member and thus associated with endocarditis

34
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Which Haemophilus is X factor (hemin) +, V factor (NAD) =, non hemolytic

H. Ducreyi

35
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What does H. Ducreyi cause

STD chancroid which results in genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes/buboes

36
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What plate will all Haemophilus grow on

Chocolate agar bc it supplies both X and V factor, also horse or rabbit blood agar. They dont grow on sheep blood agar because it contains NADase, which inactivates NAD

37
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What is “Satelliting”

When grown in media containing blood, Staph aureus produces NAD (V factor) as a metabolic byproduct. It also hemolyzes blood cells, releasing hemin (X factor) so Haemophilus is able to grow on SBA close to SA colonies

38
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What qualities do all Enterobacteriaceae share

All gram neg bacilli, oxidase neg, catalase pos, able to reduce nitrate → nitrite, facultative anaerobes, ferment glucose

39
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a lactose fermenter, MR +, citrate -, indole +, oxidase =

E. Coli

40
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a lactose fermenter, MR +, citrate +

Citrobacter

41
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Which enterobacteriaceae Is a lactose fermenter, MR =, motile

Enterobacter

42
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Which enterobacteriaceae Is a lactose fermenter, MR =, motile, lysine +

E. Aerogines

43
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Which enterobacteriaceae Is a lactose fermenter, MR =, motile, lysine =

E. Cloacae, e. Sakazakii

44
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a lactose fermenter, MR =, non-motile

Klebsiella

45
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a lactose fermenter, MR =, non-motile, indole +

Klebsiella oxytoca

46
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a lactose fermenter, MR =, non-motile, indole =

Klebsiella pneumoniae

47
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non-fermenter, MR +, motile, PAD +, H2S +

Proteus

48
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non-fermenter, MR +, motile, PAD +, H2S +, indole +

Proteus vulgaris

49
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non-fermenter, MR +, motile, PAD +, H2S +, indole =

Proteus mirabilis

50
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non fermenter, MR+, motile, PAD +, H2S =, citrate +

Providencia

51
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non-fermenter, MR+ motile, PAD +, H2S =, citrate =

Morganella morgan

52
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Which enterobacteriaceae Is a non fermenter, MR+, motile, PAD =, H2S +, indole +

Edwarsiella tarda

53
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Which enterobacteriaceae Is a non fermenter, MR +, motile, PAD =, H2S +, indole =

Salmonella

54
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non fermenter, MR +, motile, PAD=, H2S =

Yersinia

55
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non fermenter, MR +, motile, PAD=, H2S = , ODC CIN +

Yersinia enterolitica

56
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non fermenter, MR +, motile, PAD=, H2S = , ODC CIN =, motility @25C +

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

57
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non fermenter, MR +, motile, PAD=, H2S = , ODC CIN =, motility @25C =

Yersinia pestis

58
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non fermenter, MR +, non-motile

Shigella

59
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Which enterobacteriaceae is a non fermenter and MR =

Serratia

60
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Which curved GNR has a “corkscrew motility”, oxidase +, catalase +, hippurate +, urease =, 42C +, Naldixic S, Cephalothin R

Campylobacter jejunie, most common cause of bacterial diarrhea

61
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Which curved GNR is oxidase +, catalase +, hippurite =, urease =, 42C =107.6 °F, Naldixic R, Cephalothin S

Campylobacter fetus

62
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Which curved GNR is oxidase +, catalase +, hippurate =, urease +, Naldixic R, cephalothin S

Helicobacter pylori, urease gets converted to ammonia which serves as a protective cloud around H. Pyloria, allowing it to survive in the acid pH of stomach

63
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Which curved GNR causes “rice water stools” and extreme dehydration b/c of toxin, oxidase +, sucrose + → yellow colonies on TCBS, positive string test

Vibrio cholerae

64
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Which curved GNR is from salt water, oxidase +, sucrose = → green colonies on TCBS, halophilic requires Na+

Vibrio vulnificus and vibrio parahemolyticus

65
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Which GNR is from freshwater and saltwater, oxidase +

Aeromonas

66
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Which GNR is associated with freshwater seafood poisoning, oxidase +

Pleisomonas shigelloides

67
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What are qualities that all GN diplococci share

Oxidase +, catalase +, all grow on chocolate agar, modified thayer-martin, martin lewis, NYC agar, coffee bean shaped

68
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Which GN diplococci is glucose negative, DNAase +, hockey puck colonies, grows on blood and choc

Moraxella catarhalis

69
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Which GN diplococci is glucose positive, maltose negative, superoxol positive

Neisseria gonorrhea, presumptive if within neutrophils of male discharge

70
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Which GN diplococci is glucose +, maltose +, lactose negative

Neisseria meningitidis, common cause of meningitis, meningococcal septicemia

71
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Whcih gram negative diplococci is glucose +, maltose +, lactose +

Neisseria lactamica- only lactose utilizer

72
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Which GPR obligate anaerobe is a spore former, double zone of beta hemolysis on BAP, + reverse camp, causes gas gangrene in wounds and food poisoning

Clostridium perfringens- subterminal spores

73
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Which GPR obligate anaerobe is a spore former, antibiotic induced, pseudomembranous colitis, Dx by demonstrated A/B toxins by EIA, grows on CCFA egg yolk agar

Clostridium dificile- subterminal spores

74
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Which GPR obligate anaerobe spore ingestion occurs with infants who ingest contaminated honey or soil, toxin ingestion results in flaccid paalysis,

Clostridium botulinum- subterminal spores

75
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Which GPR is an obligate anaerobe, spore former, wounds infected by soil containing these “tennis racket” organisms results in lockjaw, DPT vaccine prevents this

Clostridium tetani- terminal spores

76
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Which GPR non spore former obligate anaerobe has sulfur granules and molar tooth colonies

Actinomyces israelii

77
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Which GPR is an obligate anaerobe frequently recovered from blood cultures as a contaminant (b/c its part of skin flora), non spore former

Propionibacterium acnes

78
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Which GPC obligate anaerobe is susceptible to SPS disc

Peptostreptococcus

79
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What is the gram negative obligate anaerobe cocci

Veilonella

80
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What GNR is an onligate anaerobe, growth in bile esculin +, Vancomycin R, Kanamycin R, Penicillin R

Bacteroides

81
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What GNR with spindle shaped slender tapered ends is an obligate anaerobe, growth in bile esculin =, vancomycin R, kanamycin S, penicillin S

Fusobacterium

<p>Fusobacterium</p>
82
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What GNR is an obligate anaerobe, growth in bile esculin =, vancomycin S, kanamycin R, penicillin S

Porphyromonas- black on blood agar and brick red fluorescence in UV light

83
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What GNR is an obligate anaerobe, growth in bile esculin =, vancomycin R, kanamycin R, penicillin R

Prevotella- black on blood agar and brick red fluorescence in UV light

84
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What are spirochetes

Helically curved bacilli, detected by dark field microscopy, diagnosed by serology and silver staining

<p>Helically curved bacilli, detected by dark field microscopy, diagnosed by serology and silver staining</p>
85
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How is Treponema pallidum transmitted

Person-person transmission

86
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What are the stages of syphilis

  1. Chancre at place of inoculation

  2. Skin and mouth rash

  3. CNS disorders


87
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What does treponema pallidum cause

Syphilis

88
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How is syphilis diagnosed

By serology, specific tests (FTA-AB, TP-PA) and confirmatory tests (RPR)

89
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How is borrelia transmitted

Tick borne

90
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What does borrelia recurrentis cause

Epidemic relapsing fever

91
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What does borrelia burgdorferi cause

LYME disease

92
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What are the stages of lyme disease

  1. Bullseye rash (erythema migrans)

  2. Flu symptoms

  3. CNS/heart involvement, arthritis


93
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How is Leptospira transmitted

Animal pee borne

94
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What does Leptospirosis/Weil’s disease cause

Jaundice- culture on fletcher’s or stuart’s media, found early in the blood/CDF but after the second week its in the urine

95
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Which oral flora (HACEK) is oxidase negative, causes endocarditis and periodontitis

Actinobacillus

96
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Which oral flora (HACEK) is oxidase +, and causes endocarditis

Cardiobacterium hominis

97
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Which oral floral (HACEK) is oxidase +, colonies are agar pitting and have a bleach odor, associated w/fight bite, clenched fist

Eikenella corrodens

98
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Which oral flora (HACEK) is oxidase +, agar pitting, associated w/joint damage

Kingella

99
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What color will you see on the slant of TSI if lactose/sucrose is fermented

Yellow

100
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What color will you see on the butt of TSI if glucose is fermented

Deep yellow