COA Exam

changing the base curve of a contact lens changes the fitting characteristics of that lens due to a change in Sagittarius depth. Increasing the base curve radius of a contact lens while maintaining the same diameter will cause the lens to fit

flatter and looser

what type of corneal astigmatism. Does a keratometry reading of 42.25/44.75 × 90 indicate?

with the rule

What is the central field of vision?

a 25-30-degree area of vision around the fixation point

a latent deviation that can only be observed when binocular fusion is disrupted is called a(n)

phoria

what is the term used to refer to symptoms due to uncorrected refractive error?

Asthenopia

To photograph the posterior pole, the center focus is

between the macula and the optic disc

a person with a fold of skin overlying the nasal area of the eye lids has

epicanthus

a fluorescein angiogram is used for

viewing detail, such as blockages in fundys blood vessels

which instrument is BEST suited to evaluate the refractive states of the eye

retinoscope

which is the purpose of dilating the eye?

Allow a more complete posterior segment exam

what is the abbreviation for “gram”

g

which ocular tissue produces A-scan spikes

lens

dioptric power of the cornea is determines by what type of reading

keratometry

the calibration of the Goldmann applanation tonometer should be checked at which settings?

0,2,6

an ophthalmologist asks you to educate a patient on catract sx with intraocular lens (IOL) implantation. which of the following is correct?

a. a cataract is a film that grows over the eye

b. an implant replace the eyes crystalline lens

c. a cataract results from increased intraocular pressure (IOP)

d. an implant periodically needs to be removed and cleaned

B

the ophthalmologist asks for the room and equipment to be prepared for a patient who will undergo a minor surgical procedure. what may be the procedure that is going to be performed if electrolysis has been selected as the preferred treatment?

a. trichiasis

b. chalazion excision

c. skin tumor removal

d. conjunctival lesion removal

trichiasis

how soon should apirin and other blood thinners be discontinued prior to cataract sx?

a. 1 week

b. 2 weeks

c. 3 weeks

d. 4 weeks

1 week

which of the following organisms is MOST likely to cause dendritic ulcer?

a. adenovirus

b. herpes simplex virus

c. pneumococcus

d. staphlyococcus aureus

herpes simplex complex

what is an important question to ask a patient that complains of a “red-eye”

a. do you have blurred vision?

b. do you see flashing lights?

c. do you wear glasses?

d. do you see floaters

a

which part of the patient examination is performed by asking specific questions in an orderly sequence?

a. history

b. diagnosis

c. measuremennt

d. assessment

a

which of the following conditions is not hereditary?

a. migraines

b. diabetes

c. nystagmus

d. conjunctivitis

d

which is the main reson for the patients visit to the ophthamologist recorded?

a. chief complain

b. family history

c. past medical hostory

d. past ocular history

a

what is a contraindication to contact lens wear?

a. seizure disorders

b. strabismus as a child

c. high blood pressure

d. cataracts

a

which of the following is a symptom?

a. flakes on the lashes

b. flashes of light

c. red eye

d. swollen lid

b

axial length is provided by which measurement?

a. precorneal tear film to the posterior vitreous face

b. anterior corneal surface to the macula

c. anterior corneal surface to the optic disc

d. anterior pole to the posterior pole

b

which of the following is the best method for kinetic testing of the central visual field

a. amsler grid

b. confrontation testing

c. harrington-flocks screener

d. tangent screen

d

which statement correctly refers to the letters on a snellen chart?

a. because they subtend the same amount of arc, each letter is equally recognizable

b. even though they each subtend the same amount of arc, some letters are easier to recognize than others

c. different letters subtend different amounts of arc, yet each letter is equally recognizable

d. different letters subtend different amounts of arc, thus some letters are easier to recognize than others

b

what is the recommended distance used for assessing distance acuity?

a. 3’

b. 10’

c. 20’

d. 40’

c

if poor vision is simply due to refractive error, the acuity should improve with use of a(n)

a. placido disc

b. pinhole disc

c. occluder over non-dominant eye

d. occluder over dominant eye

b

of the various lasers used in ophthalmology, which type has the shortest wavelength?

a. argon

b. excimer

c. krypton

d. carbon dioxide

b

measuring visual acuity with a potential acuity meter is useful in patients with

a. glaucoma

b. cataracts.

c. optic neuritis

d. age-related macular degeneration

b

in an industrial injury in which the patient complains of a foreign body sensation, a 20/60 vision is recorded by the assistant. what is the next step the assisant should take?

a. instill a fluorescein dye

b. patch the eye

c. return the patient to the waiting room

d. try a pinhole test to see if the vision will improve

d

which of the following is a measure of distance of visual acuity?

a. 20/20

b. 40 arc seconds

c. d-15

d. jaeger 2

a

what is a probable cause of blurred distance vision that is improved by squinting?

a. esotropia

b. glaucoma

c. uncorrected myopia

d. uncorrected presbyopia

c

symptoms associated with a red, irritated, blodshot eye are most likely due to

a. retinal detachment

b. cataracts

c. conjunctivitis

d. open angle glaucoma

c

the cones of the human eye are sensitive to which colors?

a. red, green, and blue

b. green, blue, and yellow

c. blue, yellow, and red

d. red green and black

a

under what heading should the onset of current symptoms be recorded?

a. current medications

b. past history

c. physical signs

d. present illness

d

in applanation tonometry, excessiv e width of the mires can indicate

a. improper alignment of the prism

b. a need for recalibration

c. too little fluorescein

d. too much fluorescein

d

what is the MAIN advantage of the applanation tonometer compared with the indentation tonometer

a. applanation is more modern technique

b. applanation tonometry causes less patient discomfort

c. it is more accurate

d. the IOP change is larger as compared to indentation

c

if the amount of light information transmitted from the brain to one eye differs from that of the other eye, the pt has a(n)

a. afferent pupillary defect

b. adies pupil

c. tonic pupil

d. third nerve palsy

a

shining a bright light into one eye normally causes both pupils to constrict equally. the pupillary reaction in the illuminated eye is called

a. indirect light reflex

b. consensual light reflex

c. direct light reflex

d. near light reflex

c

visual field loss due to optic nerve cupping is related to which condition?

a. glaucoma

b. tropia

c. phoria

d. nystagmus

a

what is the term for an area of complete or partial blindness in an otherwise normal visual field

a. scotoma

b. synechhiae

c. stye

d. stroma

a

killing if the HIV and other viruses on the applanation prism is BEST accomplished by soaking in

a. diluted betadine

b. gentamicin solution

c. isopropyl alcohol

d. sodium hypochlorite (chlorine bleach)

d

what drug is used during tonometry to anesthetize the eye

a. proparacaine

b. paredrine

c. phenylephrine

d. tropicamide

a

the measurement used to determine the distance between the optical enters of spectacle lenses is the

a. pupillary distance

b. axial length

c. vertex distance

d. refractive error

a

what part of the spectacle frame connects the two lenses?

a. temple

b. cover

c. rim

d. bridge

d

what test uses prisms to center corneal reflex?

a. hess

b. worth four-dot

c. hirschberg

d. krimsky

d

which tool is a series of red cylinders to assess phoria

a. worth four-dot

b. ishihara plates

c. maddox rod

d. marcus gunn

c

what examination distinguishes a constant tropia from an intermittent tropia?

a. alternating cover test with prism

b. the cover-uncover test

c. the krimsky test

d. the hirschberg test

b

which process is usefull for measuring corneal astigmatism?

a. lensometry

b. keratometry

c. tonometry

d. biometry

b

the purpose of keratometry is to meausre the

a. thickness of the corneal stroma

b. curvature of the anterior corneal surface

c. diameter of the horizontal cornea

d. diameter of the vertical cornea

b

which type of tonometer is mounted on a slit lamp?

a. applanation

b. indentation

c. perkins

d. air puff

a

the three principle types of ophthalmic imaging are

a. specular, pachymetry, and contrast sensitivity

b. external, slit lamp, and fundus

c. slit lamp, pachymetry, and ultrasonography

d. contrast sensitivity, viewing blockages, and viewing vessels

b

the fact that most glasses have a downward tilt to minimize oblique astigmatism is called

a. interpupillary distance.

b. pantoscopic tilt

c. oblique astigmatism

d. image displacement

b

a patients prescription from a referring doctor is written in minus cylinder notation while your ophthalmologist works in plus cylinder. transpose the following rx: +2.25 -0.75 × 165, +3.75 -1.25 × 03

a. +1.50 +0.75 × 075 , +2.50 +1.25 × 093

b. +1.50 +0.75 × 165 , +2.50 +1.25 × 003

c. +1.50 -0.75 × 165 , +2.50 -1.25 × 003

d. -1.50 +0.75 × 75 , -3.75 +1.25 × 93

a

which organ is included in the cardiovascular system?

a. heart

b. lungs

c. brain

d. kindeys

a

a firmly aplied unilateral eye pad will

a. limit the movement in both eyes

b. limit the movement of the patched eye

c. limit the movement of the patched eyelid

d. reduce pressure on the globe

c

calibration of the applantation tonometer is checked by

a. a qualified service technician

b. using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing arm at 0, 2, and 6

c. using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing arm at 0, 3, and 5

d. having a second technician verify IOP measurements on several patients to confirm tonometry accuracy

b

the purpose of glare testing (BAT) is to determine if visual acuity varies with different

a. refractive errors

b. pinhole sizes

c. dark adaptations

d. lighting conditions

d

color deficient individuals can be

a. denied a driver’s license

b. improved by drug therapy

c. detected by visual field examination

d. disqualified from certain occupations

d

Health care professionals who have open lesions, dermatitis, or other skin irritations should not participate in direct patient care activities or handle

a. contaminates equipment

b. gowns and masks

c. sealed instruments

d. disposable gloves

a

How often are the forehead and cheek rests on the phoropter cleaned?

a. after each patient with liquid detergent

b. periodically with a 1:10 dilution of liquid bleach

c. with an alcohol wipe after each patient

d. after eaach patient by a sterilization process only

c

The application of coding facilitates the processing of insurance claims. The assigned code, as it refers to procedures and services, must be supported by

a. all billing practices

b. the medical records

c. the policies and procedures manual

d. the length of time the appointment took

b

what are the principles that dictate appropriate or inappropriate behaviors

a. ethics

b. decency

c. morality

d. standards

a

obtaining informed consent for a procedure

a. is having the patient sign the consent form

b. begins at the preoperative visit

c. is not needed if the procedure is medically necessary

d. is a process involving education of the patient

d

why should laminated acuity projector slides NOT be cleaned under running water?

a. retained moisture might short out the projector

b. the letters, numerals, and/or characters will be washed off the slide

c. the specially heated glass of the projector slide will lose its heat-resistant properties

d. water beads can pool between the two layers of glass

d

which type of imaging provides a cross-sectional view of the retina that is useful in evaluating glaucoma?

a. optical coherence tomography

b. indocyanine green photography

c. wavefront analysis

scanning laser interferometry

a

Informed consent occurs

a. when the patient signs the consent form

b. when the patient acknowledges understanding of the treatment recommended

c. as a process of patient education and participation in the decision-making process with documentation in record of consent to treat

d. when a reasonable patient verbally agrees to the recommended treatment

c

The strength of the middle segment in the trifocal lens is

a. -1.00D weaker than the reading segment add

b. 50% of the strength of the reading segment add

c. difficult to measure

d. stronger magnification than the reading segment add

b

Extended wear contact lenses are made of materials that allow greater permeability of

a. water

b. oxygen

c. carbon dioxide

d. proteins

b

What is a symptom of hyperthyroidism

a. low voice

b. dry skin

c. weight gain

d. shortness of breath

d

scattered light rays produce which visual phenomenon?

a. diplopia

b. photopsia

c. glare

d. metamorphosia

c

color vision defects may be

a. refractive

b. subjective

c. congenital or acquired

d. more common in women

c

a latent deviation that can only be observed when binocular fusion is disrupted is called a(n)

a. tropia

b. hemianopia

c. phoria

d. ametropia

c

the name of the oil-secreting glands found in the posterior margin of the eyelid is the

a. gland of moll

b. gland of wolfring

c. lacrimal gland

d. meibomian gland

d

enucleation is the

a. inflammation of the ciliary body

b. complete or partial separation of the retina from choroid

c. complete surgical removal of the eyeball

d. aberration of rays of light

c

almost all patients who enter the ophthalmologist’s office require a determination of what status regarding their eyes?

a. diabetic retinopathy

b. glaucoma

c. refractive error

d. strabismus

c

what is measured during schirmer testing?

a. tear production

b. corneal thickness

c. pupillary reflexes

d. corneal curvature

a

in which of the following ocular conditions is the direction of gaze a factor in intraocular pressure determination

a. chronic angle glaucoma

b. thyroid ophthalmopathy

c. central retinal vein occlusion

d. iritis with secondary glaucoma

b

a lens with the focal length of 2 meters has a power of

a. 0.50 D.

b. 1.00 D.

c. 2.00 D.

d. 5.00 D.

a

evaluating the range and the symmetry of motion of both eyes together is known as

a. ductions

b. versions

c. phorias

d. tropias

b

the three-color receptors found in cones are

a. blue, green, and yellow

b. red, green, blue

c. red, green, and yellow

d. red, yellow, and blue

b

what os the term for the concentration of a chemical in a pharmaceutical solution

a. stability

b. sterility

c. tonicity

d. toxicity

c

how many layers comprise the tear layer

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

a

which of the following is the MOST common complication of patching an eye?

a. corneal abrasion

b. elevated intraocular pressure

c. dilation of the pupil

d. tear flow reduction

a

universal precautions require that equipment or devices that only come in contact with a patients intact skin should undergo

a. sterilization before every use

b. daily sterilization

c. surface disinfection

d. cleaning with detergent

d

in what phase is the “choroidal flush” seen?

a. pre-arterial

b. arterial

c. arteriovenous

d. reciculatory

a

what is first seen (recorded) in fluorescein angiography?

a. arterial phase

b. capillary phase

c. choroidal flush

d. venous phase

c

advances in digital imaging technology facilitated the practical use of what type of dye

a. trypan blue

b. rose bengal

c. indocyanine green

d. gentian violet

c

what is the best way to perform the worth 4-dot test on a child?

a. tell the child there are four lights and ask which colors they see

b. tell the child to alternately close one eye and the other

c. ask which color the child sees

d. give the child the flashlight before they put the glasses on

c

what is the ONLY accurate method for measuring distance?

a. pupil gauge

b. light reflex method

c. ruler

d. dark reflex method

b

on the back of a frame are a few figures such as 46×22. what do these numbers represent?

a. bridge and lens size

b. pupillary distance and segment height

c. lens and bridge size

d. segment height and pupillay distance

c

which of the following has been designed to measure visual acuity by bypassing optical medical defects?

a. ETDRS acuity charts

b. snellen charts

c. HOTV

d. laser interferometry

d

what is the term for “eye up”?

a. hypotropia

b. esotropia

c. hypertropia

d. exotropia

c

what is the name of the condition where a fibrovascular growth forms on the conjunctiva to a portion of the cornea?

a. pterygium

b. pinguecula

c. exenteration

d. entropion

a

evisceration is the

a. surgical removal of the contents of the globe

b. abnormal turning of the eye outward

c. tendency of the eye to turn inward

d. turning outward of the eyelid

a

part of the rules for transposition is to change the axis of the cylinder by how many degrees?

a. 45

b. 90

c. 180

d. 270

b

which of the following organisms is likely to cause a corneal ulcer

a. adenovirus

b. pneumococcus

c. herpes simplex virus

d staphylococcus aureus

c

near vision charts should be held how many inches from the eye

a. 10-12

b. 14-16

c. 18-20

d. 22-24

b