BOC study guide (Blood Bank)

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Last updated 11:36 PM on 9/27/26
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196 Terms

1
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The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick for a male blood donor is

13.0 g/dL

2
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A cause for indefinite deferral of blood donation is

Positive test for Trypanosoma cruzi

3
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Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation

A 22-year old college students who has a temperature of 99.2oF and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating

4
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Which of the following constitutes permanent deferral status of a donor

Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years ago

5
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According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?

Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously

6
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In order to be a plateletpheresis donor, the platelet count must be at least

150,000/uL

7
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Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing

Povidone iodine

8
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A donor who has just donated 2 units of Apheresis RBCs will be deferred from further blood donation for a minimum of how many weeks

16

9
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Which of the following infectious agents relies solely on donor questioning to avoid transmission from transfused blood products

Plasmodium falciparum

10
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Which of the following practices at the time of blood collection helps minimize bacterial contamination of platelet products

Diversion pouch

11
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Which of the following travel-related responses will results in donor deferral

Resident in England for 6 months during 1990

12
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According to AABB standards, what is the minimum hemoglobin level for an autologous donor

11.0 g/dL

13
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What is/are the minimum pretransfusion testing requirement(s) for autologous donations collected and transfused by the same facility

ABO and Rh typing only

14
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Which of the following must be included on the label of a unit of RBC leukocytes reduced

Unique collection facility identifier

15
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All donor blood testing must include

Serological test for syphilis

16
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The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is

anti-HIV-1/2

17
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Which of the following practices has been useful in reducing the incident of Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)

Use of fresh frozen plasma from male donors

18
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Which of the following infectious agents must be tested fir using a nucleic acid testing (NAT) assay

HBV

19
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What is the primary reason that infectious agents can be transmitted following blood transfusion

Donor in the window period of early infection

20
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The transport temperature for RBC leukocytes reduced is

1-10 oC

21
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The transport temperature for apheresis platelets is

20-24 oC

22
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A unit of RBCs expiring in 35 days is split into five small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in

35 days

23
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when platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open benchtop, the ambient air temperature must be recorded

Every 4 hours

24
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Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed

Fresh frozen plasma, -20°C

25
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6 units of red blood cells are issued to the OR at 9:00 AM in a cooler, validated to maintain a temperature of 1 to 10°C for two hours. 40 minutes later, the cooler contained the units of blood is returned to the blood bank as surgery was cancelled. What should be done with these units

Inspect units and establish that appropriate temperature has been maintained

26
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Acceptable storage temperature for red blood cells, frozen is

-80°C

27
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Red blood cells, leukocytes reduced must be stored at

1-6°C

28
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If the seal is entered on a unit of red blood cells stored at 1 to 6°C, what is the maximum allowable storage, in hours

24 hours

29
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cryoprecipitated AHF must be stored

Less than or equal to -18°C

30
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Plasma frozen within 24 hours after phlebotomy and thawed for transfusion has an expiration of

24 hours

31
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Apheresis platelets must be stored at

20 to 24°C

32
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cryoprecipiatated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at 18°C or below has a shelf life of

12 months

33
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thawed plasma must be stored at

1-6°C

34
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During storage, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in a unit of

Red blood cells

35
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Upon inspection, a unit of apheresis platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal period the technologist should

Quarantine for gram staining culture

36
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Upon expiration, a unit of thawed plasma frozen within 24 hours is converted to thawed plasma. This thawed plasma can be stored for an additional

Four days

37
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The transfusion service is preparing aliquots for a unit of red blood cell leukocytes reduced with the aid of a sterile connecting device for a pediatric patient. When checking the weld for one of these outlets, it is noted that the weld is incomplete and leaking. This unit is then resealed with an acceptable weld. What is the expiration date of this unit

24 hours

38
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during the preparation of platelets from whole blood, the blood should be

Cooled towards 20-24°C

39
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red blood cells leukocyte reduced must be prepared by a method known to reduce the leukocyte count to

Less than 5.0x10^6

40
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The unit of red blood cells that expires in 32 days has just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will

Be reduced by four days

41
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Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling

4 hours

42
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According to the AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing

24 hours

43
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Cryoprecipitated AHF

Is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies

44
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Apheresis platelet products should be irradiated

The direct donation given by a mother for her son

45
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Irradiation of a unit of red blood cells is done to prevent the replication of donor

Lymphocytes

46
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Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of fresh frozen plasma in 37°C water baths because they prevent

the entry ports from becoming contaminated with water

47
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Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy

Fresh frozen plasma

48
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Which of the following is proper precaution for preparation of platelets from whole blood

light spin followed by a hard spin

49
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Of the following blood components, which one should be used to prevent HLA alloimmunization of the recipient

Leukocyte reduced red blood cells

50
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Quality control apheresis granulocytes must be demonstrate which of the following granulocyte counts in 75% of units tested

1.0 x10^10

51
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An important determination of platelet viability during storage is

Plasma pH

52
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According to AABB standards, at least 90% of all apheresis platelet unit tested shall contain a minimum of how many platelets

5.5×10^10 platelets per unit and at least 90% of the units tested

53
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According to AABB standards, platelets prepared from whole blood shall have at least

5x10^10th platelets per unit in at least 90% of the units tested

54
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According to the AABB standards what is the minimum pH required for apheresis platelets at the end of storage period

6.2

55
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What percentage of red blood cells must be retained when preparing red blood cell leukocytes reduced

85%

56
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In a quality assured program cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many international units of factor VIII

80

57
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The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n)

Haplotype

58
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Most blood group systems are inherited as

Autosomal codominant

59
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The meaning of an XG(a+) man and an XG(a-) woman will only produce

Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters

60
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In a random population, 16% of the people are RH negative (rr) what percentage of the RH positive population is heterozygous for r

48%

61
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Which phenotype could not result from the meaning of a Jk(a+b+) female and a Jk(a-b+) male

Jk(a-b-)

62
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Would you define phenotypes as the result of homozygous inheritance of the corresponding genes

Fy(a-b+)

63
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Which of the following antibodies is usually clinically insignificant

Anti-P1

64
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A blood donor has a genotype hh, AB using anti-A and anti-B antisera the donor's red cells will type as group

O

65
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An individual has been sensitized to the K antigen and has produced anti K. What is the most probable Kell system genotype

KK

66
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Anti-Fy3 will fail to react with which of the following enzyme treated red cells

Fy(a-b-)

67
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A mother has the red cell phenotype (D+C+E+c-e+) with anti-c in her serum. The father has the phenotype (D+C+E+c+e+). The baby is RH negative and not affected with hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the baby's most probable RH genotype

r^1r^1

68
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In an emergency situation, RH negative red cells are transfused into an RH positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe the first antibody most likely develop is

anti-c

69
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The red cells of a non secretor (se/se) will most likely type as

Le(a+b-)

70
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Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f

rr

71
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A woman types as RH positive period she has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by hemolytic disease in the newborn. What is the father's most likely RH phenotype

R1r

72
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Which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African American donation population

Fy(a-b-)

73
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Which of the following is the immunodominant sugar responsible for the A antigen

N-Acetylgalactosamine

74
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Which of the following is considered to be a high prevalent antigen

Vel

75
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The reason that group O individuals have the most amount of H antigen on their red cells compared to other ABO phenotypes is

H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes

76
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The enzyme responsible for conferring each activity on the red cell membrane is alpha-

L-fucosyl transferase

77
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Even on the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype (Oh)will always have naturally occurring

Anti-H

78
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Which of the following antibodies in the Lutheran system is most likely to be IgG and detected as a direct agglutinin

anti-Lu^a

79
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Which of the following antibodies is neutralized by pooled human plasma

anti-Ch

80
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Antibodies from which of the following blood group systems are notorious for causing delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions

Kidd

81
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HLA antibodies are

Induced by multiple transfusions

82
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Genes of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

Contribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity

83
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I saw immunization to platelet antigen HPA-1a and the placental transfer of maternal antibodies would be expected to cause newborn

Thrombocytopenia

84
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What intrigues will be found in the saliva of an individual with a genotype Sese Lele AO HH

Le^a, Le^b, A, H

85
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Which of the following genes is not in the MHC class I region

HLA-DR

86
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The phenomenon of an RH+ person whose serum contains anti-D is best explained by

missing antigen epitopes

87
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When the red cells of an individual failed to react with anti-U, they usually failed to react with

anti-S

88
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The following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A

M,N

89
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Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is associated with antibody specificity towards which of the following

P antigen

90
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Define is a characteristic of anti-i

Found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis

91
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Case of cold agglutinin disease, the patient's serum will most likely react 4+ at immediate spin with

All cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells

92
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Cold agglutination disease is associated with an antibody specificity towards which of the following

I

93
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Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i

Reacts best at room temperature of 4°C

94
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In chronic granulomatous disease granulocyte function is impaired. An association exists between this clinical condition and a depression of which of the following antigens

Rh

95
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The antibodies of the kid blood system

react best by the indirect antiglobulin test

96
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proteolytic enzymes treatment of red cells usually destroys which

Fy^a

97
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Anti Fy^a is

Capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions

98
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Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups

Duffy

99
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Which is linkage disequilibrium in reference to HLA haplotypes

The clones of HLA genes in the same haplotype more often than would be expected based on the gene frequencies

100
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Anti K is identified in a patient's serum. If random cross matches are performed on 10 donor units, approximately how many would be expected to be compatible

9