Salesforce Certified Platform App Builder: Part V: App Deployment - 10%

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/35

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 4:08 PM on 9/17/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai
Chat

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

36 Terms

1
New cards

An app builder wants to configure a sandbox environment for users to perform user acceptance testing of the latest features from developers. The sandbox should include about 500MB worth of data configured via a template. Also, the sandbox should be refreshed weekly.

Which sandbox meets the requirements?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Full sandbox

B-Developer Pro sandbox

C-Developer sandbox

D-Partical Copy sandbox

The correct answer is D.

Why it's correct:

A Partial Copy sandbox is the ideal solution for this. It is designed for user acceptance testing (UAT) and includes a copy of all of your organization's metadata. It also allows you to create a data template to select and copy a subset of your production data, up to 5GB, which meets the 500MB requirement. It also has a weekly refresh interval, which meets the requirement of being refreshed weekly.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Full sandbox: A Full sandbox contains a complete copy of all your production data and metadata. It's too large and has a refresh interval of 29 days, which doesn't meet the weekly refresh requirement.

B) Developer Pro sandbox: A Developer Pro sandbox is designed for development and testing. It only copies metadata and has a data storage limit of 1GB, which is too small for the 500MB data requirement.

C) Developer sandbox: A Developer sandbox is the smallest sandbox type. It only copies metadata and has a data storage limit of 200MB, which is too small for the 500MB data requirement.

2
New cards

Which two are key considerations when using unmanaged packages? Choose 2 answers

Choose ALL answers that apply.

A-A namespace is required to create an Unmanaged package.

B-The person who created the Unmanaged package has no control over the installed components.

C-A namespace is not required to create an Unmanaged package.

D-The person who created the Unmanaged package can change or upgrade installed components.

B and C

A namespace is not required to create an Unmanaged package.

The person who created the Unmanaged package has no control over the installed components.

Unmanaged packages are typically used to distribute open-source projects or application templates to provide developers with the basic building blocks to get started. Once installed in an org, the components can be edited and customized to suit the needs of the recipient org, and the original developer does not retain any control over these components.

Why the others are wrong:

A) A namespace is required to create an Unmanaged package. This is incorrect. A namespace is only required for managed packages, not for unmanaged ones.

D) The person who created the Unmanaged package can change or upgrade installed components. This is incorrect. Once the package is installed, the creator has no control over the components. Upgrades are only possible with managed packages.

3
New cards

UC wants to test code against a subset of production data that is under 5GB. Additionally, UC wants to refresh this sandbox every weekend.

Which type of sandbox should be used to accomplish this?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Partial Copy

B-Developer

C-Developer Pro

D-Full Copy

The correct answer is A.

Why it's correct:

A Partial Copy sandbox is the ideal choice. It is designed for testing with a subset of production data, with a data limit of up to 5GB, which meets the requirement. It also has a refresh interval of 5 days, making it the only option that can be refreshed every weekend.

Why the others are wrong:

B) Developer: A Developer sandbox is too small, with a data storage limit of 200MB.

C) Developer Pro: A Developer Pro sandbox is also too small, with a data storage limit of 1GB.

D) Full Copy: A Full Copy sandbox is too large and has a refresh interval of 29 days, which does not meet the weekly refresh requirement.

4
New cards

CK increased its Salesforce development efforts so that it now has multiple custom development efforts happening in parallel. CK's developers and admins perform the customizations and have complained that working in one sandbox has led to many problems. They requested a solution in which they can work in at least 20 different sandboxes at once, that all start with the same base configuration and data.

What should an app builder use to solve the problem?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Partial copy sandboxes

B-Sandbox refreshes

C-Sandbox cloning

D-Full copy sandboxes

The correct answer is C.

Why it's correct:

Sandbox cloning is the ideal solution for this scenario. It allows an app builder to quickly and easily create a new sandbox by cloning an existing one. This means all 20 of the new sandboxes can start with the same base configuration and data, which is a key part of the requirement. This is the most efficient and scalable way to create a large number of sandboxes with a consistent starting point.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Partial copy sandboxes: While a partial copy sandbox would contain a subset of data, it would not be a quick solution. You would have to manually create 20 of them, and it would not be as efficient as cloning an existing sandbox.

B) Sandbox refreshes: Refreshing a sandbox updates it with the latest data and metadata from production. It does not create new sandboxes.

D) Full copy sandboxes: Full copy sandboxes contain a complete copy of all production data, which is too large and has a refresh interval of 29 days, making it unsuitable for this scenario.

5
New cards

An app builder at CK has been working on changes to a custom Shoe Sales app in a sandbox and is ready to deploy their changes to production with a change set. Part of the work included updates to a permission set.

What should the app builder take into consideration when deploying the change set to production?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Changes to field-level security in the permission set will not be applied.

B-The existing permission set will be completely overwritten.

C-The deployed permission set will only contain changes related to the change set.

D-The deployed permission set will merge with the existing permission set.

The correct answer is 'D'

6
New cards

An app builder is asked to create a sandbox for a developer. The developer will be testing robust sample data sets and will need to store up to 250 MB of data. The sandbox will be refreshed each day.

Which type of sandbox should the app builder create?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Partial copy sandbox

B-Full sandbox

C-Developer pro sandbox

D-Developer sandbox

The correct answer is C.

Why it's correct:

A Developer Pro sandbox is the most suitable for this request. It provides a storage limit of 1GB, which is more than enough for the 250MB data requirement. It also has a refresh interval of one day, which meets the daily refresh requirement.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Partial copy sandbox: A partial copy sandbox contains a subset of production data, with a data limit of up to 5GB, which is too large for the 250MB data requirement. It also has a refresh interval of 5 days, which doesn't meet the daily refresh requirement.

B) Full sandbox: A full sandbox contains a complete copy of all production data. It's too large for the 250MB data requirement and has a refresh interval of 29 days, which doesn't meet the daily refresh requirement.

D) Developer sandbox: A developer sandbox is the smallest sandbox type. It only copies metadata and has a data storage limit of 200MB, which is too small for the 250MB data requirement.

7
New cards

What should an app builder do to upgrade an unmanaged package that has been installed into production?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Uninstall the current version and install the new version.

B-Install the new version to a Developer org then deploy to production.

C-Click the update link on the Installed Package page.

D-Install the new version in a sandbox then deploy to production.

The correct answer is 'D'

8
New cards

Where can an app builder add components to the utility bar?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Lightning Record Page

B-Lightning App Builder

C-App Manager

D-Developer Console

The correct answer is C.

Why it's correct:

The App Manager is the correct place to add components to the utility bar.1 You can edit a Lightning app from the App Manager, and a section in the app's settings is dedicated to configuring the utility bar.2 This is where you can add, remove, and reorder utility bar components.3

Why the others are wrong:

A) Lightning Record Page: The Lightning Record Page is where you edit the layout of a specific record. You can't add components to the utility bar from here.

B) Lightning App Builder: The Lightning App Builder is where you customize Lightning pages. You can't add components to the utility bar from here.

D) Developer Console: The Developer Console is where you write code. You can't add components to the utility bar from here.

9
New cards

UC deployed an app in a large change set from a Developer Sandbox to a Developer Pro Sandbox used for testing. After testing, changes had to be made to several of the components in the change set.

How should an app builder move the new changes to the Developer Pro Sandbox?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Refresh the test sandbox and re-deploy the change set.

B-Clone the change set and re-deploy.

C-Rename the change set, add the changes and re-deploy.

D-Update the change set and re-deploy.

The correct answer is 'D'

The app builder should update the change set and re-deploy. This allows for the inclusion of the new changes made to the components after testing in the Developer Sandbox before they are moved to the Developer Pro Sandbox.

10
New cards

An app builder at NTO created a sandbox template for Accounts, Projects, and Project Milestones to reconfigure some flows for the project management app.

Which type of testing environment should the app builder create?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Developer

B-Partial Copy

C-Developer Pro

D-Scratch Org

The correct answer is B.

Why it's correct:

A Partial Copy sandbox is the ideal solution for this scenario. It contains a copy of the organization's metadata and a subset of production data, which can be configured with a sandbox template. This allows the app builder to select the specific objects and records they need for testing (Accounts, Projects, and Project Milestones) while keeping the sandbox size manageable.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Developer sandbox is incorrect. A Developer sandbox only copies metadata and has a very small data storage limit (200MB), making it unsuitable for a scenario that requires a subset of production data.

C) Developer Pro sandbox is incorrect. A Developer Pro sandbox also only copies metadata, with a larger data limit of 1GB, but it still does not copy any production data.

D) Scratch Org is incorrect. A Scratch Org is a temporary, configurable, and source-driven environment that is ideal for development and testing new features. It is not designed to be a long-term testing environment with a subset of production data, and it does not use a sandbox template.

11
New cards

NTO wants to broadcast an email to 7000 contacts in Salesforce on a regular basis but realizes Salesforce's mass email functionality has a limitation on the number of emails that can be sent each day.

What action should the app builder take?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Request Salesforce increase the number of maximum daily emails.

B-Develop Apex code and Lightning web component to send daily emails.

C-Research and evaluate products available on AppExchange to send mass emails.

D-Export Contacts to a CSV file and use an email client to send the emails.

The correct answer is C.

Why it's correct:

Salesforce's mass email functionality has a limit on the number of emails that can be sent each day (typically 5,000 for standard organizations). To send a large volume of emails on a regular basis, the best solution is to research and evaluate products on the AppExchange. Many third-party applications are designed specifically for mass email marketing and are built to integrate with Salesforce while bypassing its native email limits.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Request Salesforce increase the number of maximum daily emails. This is incorrect. The daily email limit is a hard-coded limit that Salesforce does not typically increase for individual organizations.

B) Develop Apex code and Lightning web component to send daily emails. This is incorrect. Building a custom solution with Apex is a complex and inefficient way to handle mass emails. Additionally, any Apex code you write would still be subject to the daily email limits.

D) Export Contacts to a CSV file and use an email client to send the emails. This is a manual and time-consuming process that would not be considered an automated or scalable solution. It also wouldn't provide the tracking and reporting that a dedicated marketing tool would.

12
New cards

An app builder installs an unmanaged package in a full copy sandbox that is an exact match for production, and now they are ready to install it in production. When the app builder attempts to install the package in production, it fails.

Why did the package fail to install?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Incorrect license types

B-Package features not compatible

C-Object limits exceeded

D-Apex unit test failures

The correct answer is 'B'

https://developer.salesforce.com/forums/?id=9060G0000005o3BQAQ#:~:text=This%20occurs%20when%20you%20try,upgraded%20to%20the%20current%20release

13
New cards

An app builder at UMS has been working on a new custom app in a sandbox that has been upgraded to the next major Salesforce version, and their production instance is still on the current Salesforce version. The development is complete and they are ready to deploy a change set.

What should the app builder consider when planning the deployment?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-It will fail if there is a feature only available in the next version.

B-The change set components will be upgraded to the next version in production.

C-The change set will be automatically deployed when production is upgraded.

D-The deployment is not possible due to different versions.

The correct answer is 'D'

https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=000385976&type=1

14
New cards

At UC, each admin and developer use a separate developer pro sandbox. Configuration and code are then migrated to a partial data sandbox for combination and initial testing. Once approved the configuration and code are then migrated to a full copy sandbox for final load and regression testing before going to production.

When should the full copy sandbox be refreshed?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-After each major release to production.

B-After each push from the partial data sandbox.

C-After a new user is added to production.

D-After user acceptance testing is complete.

The correct answer is 'A'

https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=sf.create_test_instance.htm&type=5

15
New cards

A production org includes custom objects containing confidential information. A sandbox is needed that includes data records, excludes all of the confidential objects, and can be refreshed weekly.

What steps should an app builder take to meet these requirements?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Create a Full Copy Sandbox and use a sandbox template.

B-Create a Developer Pro Sandbox and schedule Data Loader to download selected object data weekly.

C-Create a Developer Sandbox and schedule Data Loader to download selected object data weekly.

D-Create a Partial Copy Sandbox and use a sandbox template.

The correct answer is D.

Why it's correct:

A Partial Copy Sandbox is the correct solution. It's the only sandbox type that meets all three requirements: it copies metadata and a subset of production data, it allows you to create a sandbox template to filter out confidential objects, and it can be refreshed every five days, which meets the weekly refresh requirement.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Create a Full Copy Sandbox and use a sandbox template: A Full Copy sandbox is too large and has a refresh interval of 29 days, which does not meet the weekly refresh requirement.

B) Create a Developer Pro Sandbox and schedule Data Loader to download selected object data weekly: This is a manual and inefficient process. A Developer Pro sandbox only copies metadata, so an app builder would have to manually import the data every week, which is not an automated or streamlined solution.

C) Create a Developer Sandbox and schedule Data Loader to download selected object data weekly: A Developer sandbox is too small (200MB) and only copies metadata. This is not a viable solution for a large amount of data.

16
New cards

UC is adding drone delivery to service offerings, and the developer has written and tested code prior to deployment to production, and the change set is ready to go. The development window will occur when the developer is on vacation.

What can the app builder do to ensure a smooth deployment to production?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Remove Apex classes from inbound change set.

B-Validate the inbound change set.

C-Use a metadata package set.

D-Validate the outbound change set.

The correct answer is B.

Why it's correct:

Validating the inbound change set is a critical step to ensure a smooth deployment. Validation is a test deployment that runs all tests and checks for errors without actually deploying the components. By performing a validation, the app builder can identify any potential issues, such as Apex unit test failures or component dependencies, before the developer goes on vacation. If the validation is successful, the app builder can be confident that the deployment will be successful during the development window.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Remove Apex classes from inbound change set. This is incorrect. The Apex classes are the core of the new functionality and should not be removed. The goal is to deploy them successfully, not to remove them.

C) Use a metadata package set. A metadata package set is not a standard Salesforce term. The correct term is change set or a package.

D) Validate the outbound change set. An outbound change set is the change set in the source org (the sandbox). The change set must be validated in the target org (the production org) before deployment.

17
New cards

An app builder has created a change set and deployed a report from their development sandbox to a partial sandbox for User Acceptance Testing. When the app builder runs the report, no data is returned.

What can be a reason for this?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Reports have to be deployed with Salesforce DX.

B-Reports have to be manually re-created in each environment.

C-Data is deployed when added to a change sets.

D-Data is unable to be deployed with change sets.

The correct answer is D.

Why it's correct:

Change sets are designed to deploy metadata (the configuration and structure of your Salesforce org), not data (the records themselves). When an app builder deploys a report from a sandbox to a partial sandbox, the report's structure is copied, but the records that the report is based on are not. The report in the partial sandbox will run against the data that exists in that sandbox, which, in this case, is likely no data or a different subset of data than what was in the development sandbox, which is why the report is blank.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Reports have to be deployed with Salesforce DX. This is incorrect. Reports are a standard component that can be deployed with change sets.

B) Reports have to be manually re-created in each environment. This is incorrect. The point of a change set is to automate the deployment of reports and other metadata.

C) Data is deployed when added to a change sets. This is incorrect. Change sets can only deploy metadata, not data.

18
New cards

The developer at UC wants to test code in a sandbox environment. In order to ensure the code works properly, the sandbox needs to have at least half a gigabyte of data. The sandbox will need to be refreshed after each three-day sprint.

What type of sandbox should the App Builder provision to the developer?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Partial Data

B-Full Copy

C-Developer Pro

D-Developer

The correct answer is C.

Why it's correct:

A Developer Pro sandbox is the best choice for this. It is designed for development and testing with a larger data storage limit than a regular developer sandbox (1 GB of data and files), which is more than enough for the half-gigabyte (500MB) data requirement. It also has a refresh interval of one day, which perfectly meets the requirement of refreshing the sandbox after each three-day sprint.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Partial Data: A Partial Copy sandbox copies a subset of production data, with a data limit of up to 5 GB. However, its refresh interval is 5 days, which doesn't meet the three-day sprint requirement.

B) Full Copy: A Full Copy sandbox contains a complete copy of all production data, which is much larger than what's needed. Its refresh interval is also 29 days, which is too long for the three-day sprint requirement.

D) Developer: A Developer sandbox is too small, with a data storage limit of only 200 MB. It would not be able to accommodate the half-gigabyte data requirement.

19
New cards

What are two reasons to create an unmanaged package?

Choose 2 answers

Choose ALL answers that apply.

A-Publishing an application for sale on the AppExchange

B-Distributing open-source projects on the AppExchange

C-Distributing upgradeable components to other Salesforce orgs

D-Deploying from a Developer Edition environment

The correct answers are B and D.

Why they're correct:

B) Distributing open-source projects on the AppExchange. Unmanaged packages are often used for open-source projects and templates. The components are fully editable by the installer, which is ideal for a developer who wants to distribute a basic building block that others can customize and extend.

D) Deploying from a Developer Edition environment. You can create and upload unmanaged packages from any Salesforce org, including a Developer Edition environment. This allows a developer to create a package in their own environment and then share it with other orgs.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Publishing an application for sale on the AppExchange. Unmanaged packages are not intended for sale. They are free and do not have the intellectual property protection or security reviews that a managed package has.

C) Distributing upgradeable components to other Salesforce orgs. Unmanaged packages cannot be upgraded. To get a new version of an unmanaged package, you must uninstall the old one and then install the new one.

20
New cards

An app buider wants to deploy a new version of an auto lauched flow to production in an active state so that the new functionality is immediately available to users.

What should the app builder take into consideration when planning the deployment?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Verify there is an Apex test that provides test coverage for the Flow.

B-Verify there is a static resource that provides test coverage for the Flow.

C-Include the Process Builder calling the Flow in the deployment.

D-Include the profiles that access the flow in the deployment.

The correct answer is A.

Why it's correct:

To deploy a new version of a flow in an active state to a production environment, you must have an Apex test that provides test coverage for the Flow. The Apex test acts as a unit test for the flow, ensuring it works correctly before it goes live. This is a crucial step in the deployment process, as it is required to meet the 75% code coverage threshold.

Why the others are wrong:

B) Verify there is a static resource that provides test coverage for the Flow. This is incorrect. A static resource is used to store content like images, stylesheets, and JavaScript. It does not provide test coverage for a flow.

C) Include the Process Builder calling the Flow in the deployment. This is incorrect. The flow and the process are separate components. You can deploy the flow by itself and then deploy the process separately.

D) Include the profiles that access the flow in the deployment. This is incorrect. While the profiles that access the flow are important, they do not provide test coverage for the flow.

21
New cards

Properly installing managed packages helps prevent conflicts with customizations made by customers and partners.

What functionality should be used to set up packages?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Namespace

B-Help setting

C-Description

D-Allow sharing

The correct answer is A.

Why it's correct:

A namespace is a unique alphanumeric identifier (1-15 characters) that distinguishes your managed package and its contents from other packages and customizations in a Salesforce org. When you create a managed package, every component (objects, fields, code) is automatically prefixed with this namespace. This ensures that your package's components won't conflict with any existing or future customizations made by the customer, which is the primary purpose of a managed package.

Why the others are wrong:

B) Help setting is incorrect. This is not a standard term for configuring a package. Help settings are typically used to provide documentation or guidance to end users.

C) Description is incorrect. A description is a text field that explains what a package does. It's important for users, but it doesn't prevent conflicts.

D) Allow sharing is incorrect. This is not a package setting. Sharing is a security model that controls record access. It has no functionality for setting up a managed package.

22
New cards

UC has deployed custom tabs to production via change sets, without including the profile settings. What is true about the visibility of custom tabs in Enterprise Edition?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Custom tabs are default off for all users.

B-Custom tabs are default on for all users.

C-Custom tabs are NOT deployed.

D-Custom tabs are hidden for all users.

The correct answer is D.

Why it's correct:

When a new custom tab is deployed to a production org without including the profile settings, the tab is hidden for all users by default. This is a safety measure to prevent newly deployed features from disrupting the user experience or exposing sensitive data without an administrator's explicit action. To make the tab visible, an administrator must manually update the profile settings.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Custom tabs are default off for all users. "Default off" means the tab is available in the user's settings, but they have to manually add it to their navigation. "Hidden" means it is not available at all, which is the default behavior when profile settings aren't included.

B) Custom tabs are default on for all users. This would only be true if the profile settings were included in the change set and the tab was set to "Default On" in those settings.

C) Custom tabs are NOT deployed. The custom tabs are deployed to the production org, but they are not visible to users until an administrator manually updates the profile settings.

23
New cards

UMS has made a great app that leadership wants to share with the world for free via AppExchange.

What should an app builder consider about the type of package when uploading to AppExchange?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Managed packages provide intellectual property protection on Apex code.

B-Managed packages need a per-user charge on AppExchange.

C-Unmanaged packages can be set up to prevent user customizations.

D-Unmanaged packages allow for patches on programmatic changes but not Apex.

The correct answer is A.

Why it's correct:

Managed packages provide intellectual property protection for components like Apex code. When a managed package is installed, the Apex code is obfuscated, which means it cannot be viewed or modified by the user. This is a crucial feature for a company that wants to protect its code and sell an application on the AppExchange.

Why the others are wrong:

B) Managed packages need a per-user charge on AppExchange. Managed packages do not need a per-user charge. The developer can set up various pricing models, including a one-time flat fee or a per-org subscription.

C) Unmanaged packages can be set up to prevent user customizations. Unmanaged packages are the opposite of this. They are designed for customization and open-source projects, and once installed, the components are fully editable by the user.

D) Unmanaged packages allow for patches on programmatic changes but not Apex. Unmanaged packages cannot be patched. To get a new version of an unmanaged package, you must uninstall the old one and install the new one.

24
New cards

DreamHouse Realty (DHR) recently acquired CK, a company that is still on Salesforce Classic. DHR is keeping the CK Salesforce org; however, it will migrate this org to Lightning Experience.

Where should the app builder find prebuilt resources to help with this project and overall adoption?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Import Wizard

B-Flow Builder

C-AppExchange

D-Lightning Object Creator

The correct answer is C.

Why it's correct:

AppExchange is the ideal place to find prebuilt resources. It is Salesforce's marketplace where you can find thousands of solutions, including components, templates, and tools designed to help with the Lightning Experience migration and user adoption.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Import Wizard is a tool for importing data. It has no functionality for providing resources to help with a Lightning migration.

B) Flow Builder is a tool for building automation. It has no functionality for providing resources to help with a Lightning migration.

D) Lightning Object Creator is a tool for creating a custom object from a spreadsheet. It has no functionality for providing resources to help with a Lightning migration.

25
New cards

Due to the complexity of the UC sandbox release schedule and requirements, it is advised that change sets are used as often as possible to migrate from one environment to another.

Which three common items can an app builder move when using a change set? Choose 3 answers

Choose ALL answers that apply.

A-Web-to-lead

B-Standard fields

C-Custom object

D-Apex class

E-Custom field

The correct answers are C, D, and E.

Why they're correct:

C) Custom object: A custom object and its associated metadata (fields, page layouts) can be added to a change set and deployed to another Salesforce org. This is a very common use case for change sets.

D) Apex class: An Apex class is a standard component that can be deployed with a change set. All Apex code must have a minimum of 75% code coverage from unit tests to be deployed to a production environment.

E) Custom field: A custom field is a standard component that can be deployed with a change set. You can deploy a single custom field or a whole set of them.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Web-to-lead: This is incorrect. The Web-to-Lead form is not a component that can be deployed with a change set. It must be manually recreated in the target org.

B) Standard fields: This is incorrect. You cannot deploy standard fields with change sets. You can only deploy customizations to them, like help text or picklist values.

26
New cards

An app builder is preparing to deploy a new app from the sandbox to production using change sets.

What two considerations should an app builder keep in mind during this process? Choose 2 answers

Choose ALL answers that apply.

A-Change sets do not include all components and may have to perform some changes manually.

B-Users should be logged out of production when receiving inbound change sets.

C-Salesforce Connect automatically establishes a link between environments.

D-Transactions will revert if the deployment errors.

The correct answers are A and D.

Why they're correct:

A) Change sets do not include all components and may have to perform some changes manually. Change sets cannot be used to deploy all types of metadata. Some components, such as Web-to-Lead settings, must be manually re-created in the target org. This is a key limitation that an app builder must keep in mind.

D) Transactions will revert if the deployment errors. Change sets are a transactional process. If the deployment fails for any reason, the entire transaction will be rolled back, and the production org will remain unchanged. This is a crucial safety feature that prevents a failed deployment from causing a partial or corrupted state in the org.

Why the others are wrong:

B) Users should be logged out of production when receiving inbound change sets. Users do not need to be logged out of production to receive an inbound change set. The deployment process does not affect a user's session.

C) Salesforce Connect automatically establishes a link between environments. Salesforce Connect is a feature for integrating with external data sources. It has no functionality for linking a sandbox and production environment for deployments.

27
New cards

UC have changes that need to be deployed from Sandbox to Production.

Where should an app builder look to verify that a Change Set can be deployed?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Inbound Change Sets

B-Outbound Change Sets

C-Deployment Settings

D-Deployment Status

The correct answer is A.

Why it's correct:

An app builder should look in the Inbound Change Sets menu to verify that a change set can be deployed. In the production org, change sets that have been uploaded from a sandbox appear on this page. From here, the app builder can review the components, validate the change set, and then deploy it to production.

Why the others are wrong:

B) Outbound Change Sets: An outbound change set is created in the source org (the sandbox). It is used to bundle the changes and upload them to production. You don't verify a deployment from the outbound change set menu.

C) Deployment Settings: This is where you set up and manage the deployment connections between orgs, but it's not where you go to verify or deploy an inbound change set.

D) Deployment Status: This is where you monitor the status of a deployment that is in progress or has already been completed. It is not where you go to verify a deployment before it starts.

28
New cards

UMS wants to automate a welcome email to new clients and include a customized survey about their buying experience. An app builder is tasked with this project and has very little time to build the solution from scratch.

What should the app builder do to meet the deadline and custom requirements?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Work with a developer to create custom apex code and a Visualforce survey to meet criteria.

B-Build the survey declaratively and use a workflow rule to send it to the customer as an external message to meet criteria.

C-Choose a managed package from AppExchange that closely meets the requirements of the project and restricts programmatic development.

D-Select an unmanaged package from AppExchange that closely meets the requirements of the project that allows programmatic development.

The correct answer is 'D'

29
New cards

CK recently implemented the application lifecycle management process to its release management strategy.

Which category handles bug fixes and simple changes?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Rollback

B-Major

C-Patch

D-Minor

The correct answer is C.

Why it's correct:

In application lifecycle management, a patch is the category that handles bug fixes and simple changes. Patches are small, incremental updates to fix a specific bug or a minor issue without introducing any new functionality or breaking changes. This ensures that the application remains stable and functional.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Rollback: A rollback is an action you take to revert to a previous version of an application after a deployment has failed. It is not a category of change.

B) Major: A major release involves significant changes, new features, or architectural changes that may not be backward-compatible. This is not for simple bug fixes.

D) Minor: A minor release adds new functionality in a backward-compatible way. While it is a smaller change than a major release, it's more significant than a patch.

30
New cards

An app builder needs to deploy a new account detail page layout from sandbox to production.

Which three components should an app builder include in the Change Set to ensure it deploys successfully and visually as expected? Choose 3 answers

Choose ALL answers that apply.

A-Custom fields

B-Lightning App Builder

C-System administrator profile

D-Custom actions

E-Detail page layout

The correct answers are A, D, and E.

Why they're correct:

A) Custom fields: If the page layout references any new custom fields, those fields must be included in the change set. Without them, the page layout will be missing components and the deployment will fail.

D) Custom actions: Any custom actions, like quick actions or buttons, that are on the page layout must be included. If they are not, the page layout will deploy with errors.

E) Detail page layout: The detail page layout is the core component of the request, so it must be included in the change set. This is the component that defines the fields, related lists, and actions on the page.

Why the others are wrong:

B) Lightning App Builder: The Lightning App Builder is the tool used to build the page. It's not a component that can be deployed in a change set.

C) System administrator profile: You don't need to include the System Administrator profile in a change set. You only need to include the profiles that are affected by the changes. The system administrator profile has access to everything by default.

31
New cards

An app builder has deployed a change set from a sandbox to production. There is a long delay in the deployment.

What can be causing the delay?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Profiles are incuded in the change set.

B-A field type change is inluded in the change set.

C-Roles are included in the change set.

D-Dependent fields are included in the change set.

The correct answer is B.

Why it's correct:

A field type change is a common cause of deployment delays. When a field type is changed, Salesforce must convert the data in all existing records in the target org. This can be a time-consuming process, especially in a large production org with a lot of data.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Profiles are incuded in the change set. Including a profile in a change set does not cause a significant delay. Salesforce simply merges the profile's permissions with the existing profile in the target org.

C) Roles are included in the change set. Including roles in a change set does not cause a significant delay. Salesforce simply adds the new roles to the role hierarchy.

D) Dependent fields are included in the change set. Including dependent fields in a change set does not cause a significant delay. Salesforce simply adds the fields and their dependencies to the target org.

32
New cards

A sales manager at CK wants the team to spend more time in the field and less time manually entering the information found on the business cards they collect.

What should an app buider do to help achieve this goal without sacrificing data quality?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Use Flow to create a data entry wizard to automate data entry.

B-Post daily to the Chatter feed any relevant fields that need to be populated.

C-Research and evaluate data enrichment products on the AppExchange to automate data entry.

D-Use a cominaton of workfow rules and formula fields to populate key fields for the sales user.

The correct answer is C.

Why it's correct:

Data enrichment products on the AppExchange are specifically designed to address this problem. These tools can automatically scan a business card or a few key data points (like a name and company) and then fill in the rest of the contact information (phone, email, address, etc.) by pulling from external databases. This automates data entry for the sales rep while ensuring data quality.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Use Flow to create a data entry wizard to automate data entry. A Flow would require the sales rep to manually enter the data into a wizard, which is not an automated solution and would not save them time.

B) Post daily to the Chatter feed any relevant fields that need to be populated. A Chatter post is not an automation tool. It would not save the sales rep any time, and it would not ensure data quality.

D) Use a combination of workflow rules and formula fields to populate key fields for the sales user. This would not work for this scenario. A workflow rule can't pull information from a business card, and a formula field can only display information that is already in Salesforce.

33
New cards

An app builder needs a custom solution and is considering using either AppExchange or their local developer community. Ease of updates is the primary consideration.

What should the app builder consider?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-A managed package from AppExchange

B-An open-source unmanaged package

C-An open-source custom development

D-An unmanaged package from AppExchange

The correct answer is A.

Why it's correct:

A managed package from AppExchange is the best choice because it is designed for ease of updates. The developer of a managed package can create and publish new versions, and the users can install the updates with a single click. This is a core feature that distinguishes managed packages from unmanaged ones.

Why the others are wrong:

B) An open-source unmanaged package: An unmanaged package is not upgradeable. To get a new version, you must uninstall the old one and then install the new one, which is a destructive and time-consuming process.

C) An open-source custom development: This is the opposite of an easy-to-update solution. The developer would have to manually apply every change, which is a complex and time-consuming process.

D) An unmanaged package from AppExchange: As with an open-source unmanaged package, an unmanaged package from AppExchange is not upgradeable.

34
New cards

DreamHouse Realty is rethinking its sandbox utilization strategy after acquiring CK. The Salesforce COE already utilizes a partial and a full sandbox, which it refreshes on their own regular schedules. Teams are expanding and have to begin each of their small projects in a sandbox before committing to the larger pool for collaborative testing while still keeping costs down.

What type of sandbox should each team member use?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Full sandbox

B-Partial sandbox

C-Developer pro sandbox

D-Developer sandbox

The correct answer is D.

Why it's correct:

A Developer sandbox is the best choice for this. It is a dedicated environment for a single developer or team member to work in isolation. It contains a copy of the production org's metadata, but no data, which is ideal for small projects and development. With a data storage limit of 200MB, it's also the most cost-effective option, which meets the requirement of keeping costs down.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Full sandbox: A Full sandbox is too large and expensive for a single developer or team member to use. It contains a complete copy of all production data and metadata.

B) Partial sandbox: A Partial sandbox is also too large and expensive. It contains a subset of production data and is typically used for collaborative testing.

C) Developer pro sandbox: A Developer Pro sandbox is designed for a larger team or for a single developer who needs a larger data storage limit (1GB). It is more expensive than a Developer sandbox and is not necessary for a small project.

35
New cards

UC has a time-sensitive need for a custom component to be built in 4 weeks. UC developers require additional enablement to complete the work and are backlogged by several months.

What option should an app builder suggest to meet this requirement?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-Build a screen flow page.

B-Use an AppExchange solution.

C-Use a Bolt solution.

D-Build a Lightning record page.

The correct answer is B.

Why it's correct:

An AppExchange solution is the best option because it provides a pre-built custom component that can be installed quickly to meet a time-sensitive need. This approach avoids the need for developers to build the solution from scratch, which would not be feasible given their backlog and the 4-week deadline.

Why the others are wrong:

A) Build a screen flow page: A screen flow page would be a solution, but it would not be a "custom component" in the traditional sense. It's also a declarative solution, and the prompt implies a more complex, programmatic solution.

C) Use a Bolt solution: A Bolt solution is a pre-built app or template that can be used to quickly build an app. It's a valid solution, but the AppExchange is a broader marketplace that offers more options.

D) Build a Lightning record page: A Lightning record page is where you place components. It is not the component itself.

36
New cards

A recently refreshed partial sandbox at CK has no data in the custom object Fresh_Kicks__c. Checking in production, there are two million rows of data in the object.

What can be a reason the data is missing?

Choose only ONE best answer.

A-The selected objects in the sandbox template.

B-The sandbox is still populating data.

C-The sandbox was refreshed too early.

D-The partial sandbox is at capacity.

The correct answer is A.

Why it's correct:

A Partial Copy sandbox is designed to only copy a subset of production data. The data that is copied is determined by a sandbox template, which an administrator must configure. If the Fresh_Kicks__c object was not selected in the sandbox template, then no data from that object would be copied to the refreshed sandbox, which is why the data is missing.

Why the others are wrong:

B) The sandbox is still populating data. A sandbox refresh will notify the user when the process is complete. If the sandbox is ready, the data should be present.

C) The sandbox was refreshed too early. The refresh timing would not affect whether a specific object's data is copied. The sandbox template is what controls which data is copied.

D) The partial sandbox is at capacity. If the sandbox was at capacity, the refresh would fail. It would not result in a successful refresh with missing data.