A&P 2 Mock Exam 1

Which of the following represents an endocrine secretion?

None of the above

T/F: Target cells respond to a hormone because they have specific receptors for that hormone.

True

Which of the following is TRUE of steroid hormones?

They are lipid‑soluble

T/F: Amino acid–based hormones bind to intracellular receptors.

False

“Insulin lowers blood glucose levels” means:

Insulin signals target cells to increase glucose uptake

T/F: Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones bind to intracellular receptors because they are lipid‑soluble.

True

Why do amino acid–based hormones bind to extracellular receptors?

They cannot cross the plasma membrane

Which hormone type produces rapid responses (seconds to minutes)?

Amino acid–based hormones

T/F: The correct order of the cAMP pathway is: Hormone binds receptor → Adenylate cyclase activated → cAMP produced → Protein kinases activated

True

T/F: Exocrine glands release their secretions into ducts, not into the bloodstream.

True

Which of the following correctly describes negative feedback?

The response decreases once homeostasis is restored

T/F: Positive feedback causes a cascading increase in both stimulus and response.

True

Which endocrine stimulus is triggered by blood levels of ions or nutrients?

Humoral stimulus

T/F: Hormonal stimulus means one hormone triggers the release of another hormone.

True

Which hormone raises blood glucose levels?

Glucagon

Which cells in the pancreas secrete insulin?

Beta cells

T/F: Glucagon is secreted during the post‑absorptive state (between meals).

True

Which process describes glucagon’s effect on the liver?

Glycogenolysis

Why do we crave something sweet after a meal?

Insulin secretion increases before blood glucose rises

T/F: Insulin receptors are embedded in the cell membrane of target cells.

True

Which condition results from lack of insulin production due to autoimmune destruction of beta cells?

A. Type 2 diabetes

B. Diabetes insipidus

C. Type 1 diabetes

D. Gestational diabetes

C. Type 1 diabetes

Which condition is strongly associated with obesity, heredity, and insulin resistance?

Type 2 diabetes

T/F: Hyperglycemia can lead to dehydration because high blood glucose makes plasma hypertonic.

True

Under which circumstance should a diabetic NOT take insulin?

Post‑absorptive state (6–8 hours after eating)

Which bony structure protects the pituitary gland?

Sella turcica

T/F: Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary and is controlled by positive feedback during labor.

True

Which hormone is responsible for water conservation by preventing diuresis?

ADH

T/F: ADH secretion increases when a person becomes dehydrated.

True

Which of the following correctly describes diabetes insipidus?

Causes large amounts of dilute urine

T/F: Alcohol consumption inhibits ADH secretion.

True

Oxytocin stimulates which of the following?

Milk let‑down reflex

T/F: Oxytocin and ADH are synthesized in the posterior pituitary.

False

Which structure transports oxytocin and ADH from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary?

Hypothalamic–hypophyseal tract

T/F: Oxytocin is involved in affectionate behavior and bonding.

True

Why can head injury cause diabetes insipidus?

It damages hypothalamic neurons that make ADH

What percentage of whole blood is plasma?

A. 10%

B. 55%

C. 45%

D. 1%

B. 55%

The buffy coat contains which formed elements?

Platelets and WBCs

Hematocrit represents the percentage of blood composed of:

RBCs

Which is NOT a function of blood?

Producing hormones

Plasma is composed of approximately:

90% water

The most abundant plasma protein is:

Albumin

Hypoproteinemia leads to:

A. Increased plasma osmotic pressure

B. Edema

C. Dehydration of tissues

D. Increased RBC count

B. Edema

The main cation in plasma is:

Na⁺

The main cation inside cells (ICF) is:

K⁺

Which formed element is a complete cell?

WBC

RBCs lack which organelle?

All of the above

The biconcave shape of RBCs helps with:

A. Protein synthesis

B. Gas exchange

C. DNA replication

D. Hormone secretion

B. Gas exchange

Hemoglobin can carry how many oxygen molecules?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

D. 4

Each heme group contains:

A. Calcium

B. Iron

C. Sodium

D. Potassium

B. Iron

RBCs produce ATP by:

A. Aerobic respiration
B. Glycolysis
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
D. The Krebs cycle

B. Glycolysis

Hematopoiesis occurs in:

Red bone marrow

The stem cell that gives rise to all formed elements is the:

Hemocytoblast

Reticulocytes are:

A. Mature RBCs
B. Immature RBCs
C. Platelet precursors
D. WBC precursors

B. Immature RBCs

Erythropoietin (EPO) is primarily produced by the:

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidneys
D. Bone marrow

C. Kidneys

Which condition stimulates EPO release?

Hypoxia

The average lifespan of an RBC is:

120 days

Bilirubin is excreted in the feces as:

Stercobilin

Iron is transported in the blood by:

Transferrin

Which anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency?

Pernicious anemia

Polycythemia vera is caused by:

Bone marrow cancer

Leukocytes leave the bloodstream by:

Diapedesis

The most abundant WBC is the:

Neutrophil

Which WBC attacks parasitic worms?

A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
D. Lymphocyte

B. Eosinophil

Which WBC releases histamine?

Basophil

Monocytes become which cell type in tissues?

Macrophages

Lymphocytes are responsible for:

A. Clotting
B. Gas transport
C. Immune responses
D. Producing bilirubin

C. Immune responses

Platelets are fragments of:

Megakaryocytes

A normal WBC count is approximately:

4,800–10,800/µL

Which electrolyte differs most between plasma and intracellular fluid?

K⁺

Which condition results from RBC destruction?

Hemolytic anemia

Which WBC has a multilobed nucleus?

Neutrophil

Which WBC is the least abundant?

Basophil

Which plasma protein is essential for clotting?

Fibrinogen

What happens when EPO levels increase?

Hematocrit increases

Which condition is caused by low RBC count or low hemoglobin?

Anemia