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active resorption of dental hard tissue by odontoclasts
tooth resorption
tooth resorption is commonly found where
1. mandibular third premolars
2. first molars
3. maxillary third and fourth
tooth resorption is found in what age
4-6 years
what are the stages of tooth resorption
Stage 1: lesions extend only into the cementum
Stage 2: lesions progress through the cementum into the dentin of the root or crown but the pulp is not affected. Proliferative gingiva may cover these defects
Stage 3: Lesions progress into the pulp chamber. Most of the crown retains its integrity
Most of the tooth retains its integrity
Stage 4: Lesions destroy a significant amount of the crown
4a: crown and root equally affected
4b: crown more severely affected than root
4c: root is more severely affected than crown
Stage 5: Lesions have significant root replacement resorption with coverage of the gingiva. There will not be any clinically apparent tooth tissue
what are the tooth resorption radiographic appearance types
Type 1: There is a focal or multifocal radiolucency with otherwise normal radiopacity and normal periodontal ligament space
Type 2: There is a narrowing or disappearance of the periodontal ligament space in at least some areas and decreased radiopacity
Type 3: Includes type 1 and 2 appearance in the same tooth. Tooth has areas of normal and narrow or lost periodontal space. There is focal to multifocal area of decreased radiolucency and generalized decreased radiopacity in other areas of the tooth
what are the 6 basic points to evaluating the occlusion of a normal bite
1. the "scissor" incisor relationship
2. canine interlock
3. premolar interdigitation
4. alignment of developmental grooves at the carnassial teeth
5. consistent freeway space between arcades
6. head symmetry
what malocclusion is type 1 where the jaws are perfect but a tooth is out alignment
dental malocclusions (neutroclusion)
what causes neutroclusion
1. retained deciduous teeth, lance canines
2. anterior or posterior crossbites (base narrow canines)
what malocclusion is type 2 and 3 where it is caused by
skeletal malocclusion
malocclusion term where the tooth is away from midline
distoversion (DV)
malocclusion term where the tooth is toward the midline
mesioversion (MV)
malocclusion term where the tooth is toward the tongue
linguoversion (LV)
malocclusion term where the tooth is toward the lips
labioversion (LABV)
malocclusion term where the tooth is toward the cheek
buccoversion (BV)
when an animal has a normal occlusion except that one or more mandibular teeth are in a more buccal or labial position than the opposing maxillary tooth
crossbite
crossbite that is anterior and usually the incisors
rostral crossbite (CB/R)
crossbite that is posterior and usually the premolars or molecules
caudal crossbite (CB/C)
what may be caused by a structural narrowing of the mandible eruption of the mandibular canines in an upright position where indention and ulceration occurs on the palate
mal-1 base narrow canines
how is base narrow canines corrected
ball therapy
malocclusion class where a skeletal defect results when the mandible is shorter than normal (overbite)
class 2 malocclusion (MAL-2)
what is the main concern of mandibular distoclusion
mandibular canines striking the hard palate
class 3 malocclusion when the mandible is longer than normal (underbite)
mandibular mesioclusion
mandibular mesioclusion are normal in what breeds
1. bulldogs
2. pugs
3. persians
when the mandible is too long with mandibular incisor positioned labial to the maxillary incisors
mandibular prognathism
when the maxilla is shorter and the premolars are overcrowded and rotated but the mandible is normal
maxillary brachynathism
class 4 malocclusion where one quadrant of the mouth did not develop properly where the incisors do not align correctly
asymmetrical skeletal malocclusion (wry bite)
asymmetrical skeletal malocclusion can be caused by what
1. genetics
2. traumatic injury
what are the three classifications of MAL-4
1. rostrocaudal asymmetry
2. side-to-side asymmetry
3. dorsoventral asymmetry
the joining of two teeth that have different tooth buds
fusion (T/FUS)
what occurs when the tooth bud is partially divided and attempts to create two teeth
gemini (T/GEM)
the angulation of the roots or the crown of the tooth
dilacerated roots
dilacerated roots are most often found where
multirooted teeth
development issue that occurs when there is an infolding of the dental papilla before calcification of the dental tissue, usually found in dogs
dens invaginatus (T/DENS) / Dens in dente
dens invaginatus most commonly occurs in what teeth
1. maxillary canine
2. mandibular 1st and 2nd premolars
when a tooth that has not erupted may be retained in the gingiva or alveolar bone
dentigerous cyst
the cyst is lined with what from the enamel epithelium of the tooth forming organ where the cyst can develop rapidly and be very invasive, destroying the adjacent teeth and the alveolar boner
enamel epithelial cells
dentigerous cysts are commonly seen in what breeds
brachycephalic
pediatric dental concerns help detect what
dental issues
causes the teeth to be very brittle, discolored, and easily fractured
dentinogenesis imperfecta
supernumerary teeth that are abnormally found in the anterior region of the mouth
peg teeth
causes swelling on one side of the ventral portion of the mandible in large breed dogs where the periosteal bone formations is though to be an inflammatory condition that spontaneously resolves
mandibular periostitis ossificans
an abnormal growth of tissue resulting from uncontrolled, progressive multiplication of cells
tumor
what tumors are usually more aggressive locally
benign
tumors that are aggressive locally and metastasize to other sites in the body
malignant
what are the most common malignant tumors in the dog
1. melanoma
2. squamous cell carcinoma
3. fibrosarcoma
the most common malignant to the cat is what
squamous cell carcinoma
approximately what percent of oral tumors in dogs are benign
5%
the presence of loose teeth in a patient with otherwise good dentition warrants what
oral neoplasia
what are symptoms of oral masses
1. haltiosis
2. drooling
3. swelling
4. dysphagia
5. anorexia
6. mandibular or retropharyngeal lymph node enlargement
7. disinterest in chew toys
8. blood staining
9. exophthalmos
10. facial asymmetry
11. nasal discharge
12. pawing at mouth
what is caused by a virus that may be transferred from dog to dog usually occurs in dogs younger than 2 years that usually goes away on its own; looks like wart
canine viral oral papillomatosis (OM/PAP)
caused by self inflicted trauma as a result of animals chewing on the inside of the cheek or tongue
cheek chewers granulomas
how are cheek chewers granulomas treated
1. excise tissue
2. extract maxillary 4th upper premolars and mandibular molar
gingival enlargement (hyperplasia) is common in what breeds
1. bockers
2. cocker spaniels
mass containing fibrous tissue in the gingiva
peripheral odontogenic fibroma (fibromatous epulides)
a mass of cells that include enamel, dentin, cementum, and small tooth-like structures
odontomas
tooth-like structures
denticles
odontomas develop in dogs younger than how old
1 year
what is the odontomas treatment
excision
appears as severe ulcers of plaques and is frequently seen in cats than dogs
eosinophilic granuloma
eosinophilic granulomas are located where
1. upper lip
2. palate
3. glossopalatine arches
tumor that is primarily composed of proliferating epithelial cells of dental origin and is very destructive even though it is benign
acanthomatous ameloblastoma

the most commonly found tumors in older dogs that is very invasive and highly catastatic to lymph nodes, lungs, and bones
malignant melanomas
most common tumor in cats where there is a gray to pink, ulcerated, cauliflower like appearance
squamous cell carcinoma (OM/SCC)
second most common tumor in cats, and third in dogs where the base is broad
fibrosarcoma (OM/FS)
tumor that is found on the maxilla or mandible that can be present as a soft tissue mass that is red or friable
osteosarcoma (OM/OS)