✨✨✨Combine Quizlets (Ch. 16 & 17) (@Kaitlyne_Griffin)

1. When primary teeth are being exfoliated and permanent teeth move in to take their places, which occurs between the ages of 6 and 12 years, this is considered:

a) mixed dentition.

b) secondary dentition.

c) tertiary dentition.

d) primary dentition.

A

2. What organization defines dental caries as a "localized, posteruptive, pathologic process of external origin involving softening of the hard tooth tissue and proceeding to the formation of a cavity"? a) American Dental Association

b) World Health Organization

c) Centers for Disease Control

d) International Association of Dental Research

B

3. All of the following are requirements for the development of a carious lesion, except:

a) microorganisms.

b) fermentable carbohydrates.

c) biofilm.

d) susceptible tooth surface.

C

4. Which of the following is an example of a compound cavity?

a) Occlusal cavity

b) Mesial-occlusal cavity

c) Facial cavity

d) Mesial-occlusal-distal cavity

B

5. A) Incipient lesions involve subsurface demineralization, which appears as a white area with no breakthrough to the enamel surface. B) Untreated incipient lesions are not visible by observation and are regular to gentle application of the side of an explorer tip or blunt probe.

a) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

b) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

B

6. What are the two types of dental caries described by location?

a) Attrition and erosion

b) Panoramic and extraoral

c) Pit and fissure, and smooth surface

C

7. A form of caries found in young children is known as:

a) smooth surface.

b) early childhood.

c) incipient.

d) pit and fissure.

B

8. All of the following are predisposing factors for early childhood caries, except: a) prolonged at-will breastfeeding.

b) pacifier dipped in or filled with a sweet agent, such as honey.

c) nursing bottle that contains sweetened milk or other fluid sweetened with sucrose.

d) nursing bottle filled with water.

D

9. A soft, progressive lesion of cementum and dentin that involves bacterial infection and invasion is known as:

a) root caries.

b) incipient lesion.

c) pit and fissure caries.

d) smooth surface caries.

A

10. A defect that occurs as a result of a disturbance in the formation of the organic enamel matrix is known as:

a) enamel bypoplasia.

b) attrition.

c) erosion.

d) abrasion.

A

11. The wearing away of a tooth as a result of tooth-to-tooth contact is known as:

a) erosion.

b) attrition.

c) abrasion.

d) enamel hyperplasia.

B

12. The loss of tooth substance by a chemical process that does not involve known bacterial action is known as:

a) erosion.

b) attrition

C) bruxism

D) enamel hyperplasia

A

13. A) Trauma to the face may involve fractured bones and teeth in addition to soft tissue injuries. B) The line of fracture may be horizontal, diagonal, or vertical. a) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

b) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

C

14. A) Dry each tooth or group of teeth with compressed air for aiding in the recognition of carious lesions. B) When conducting a visual examination, only look for translucency and no color changes.

a) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

b) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

B

15. All of the following are variations in color and translucency, except:

a) chalky white.

b) grayish-whit discoloration.

c) grayish-white color spreading.

d) grayish-orange.

D

16. All of the following are factors that influence a patient's response to a pulp test, except:

a) the degree of pulpal degeneration

b) the patient's pain threshold.

c) the patient's reaction to pain.

d) opposite metal restorations.

D

17. A) Cold testing may be accomplished with an air blast, cold drink, ice stick, ethyl chloride in a spray or on a cotton swab, or a carbon dioxide dry-ice stick. B) Heat testing is accomplished by warming a temporary stopping (gutta-percha) and applying it to a tooth dried with a cotton sponge.

a) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

b) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

C

18. A root surface lesion starts near the after gingival recession has exposed the root surface.

A) cementoenamel junction

b) dentinoenamel junction

c) enamocementum junction

d) cementodentin junction :

A

19. Arrested root caries displays as:

a) soft. b) hard.

c) leathery

. d) All of these are correct.

B

20. Distoclusion (Class II) occurs when:

a) the buccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar is mesial to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first permanent molar.

b) the buccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first permanent molar.

c) the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first permanent molar occludes with the buccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar.

d) None of these are correct.

B

21. During an exam you notice that your patient's left mandibular second premolar (#20) is facial to the maxillary left second premolar (#13); this condition is called:

a) overbite.

b) underbite.

c) overjet.

d) crossbite.

D

22. During your exam you noticed that the incisal edges of #8 and #9 occlude with the cervical third of the facial surfaces of #24 and #25; this would be identified as:

a) deep overjet.

b) end-to-end bite.

c) edge-to-edge bite.

d) deep overbite.

e) crossbite.

D

23. Having a prominent maxilla and a mandible positioned posterior to its normal relationship would be classified as:

a) mesognathic.

b) crossbite.

c) prognathic.

d) retrognathic.

D

24. A patient who has a Class III occlusion would most likely have a profile that is:

a) mesognathic.

b) crossbite.

C)prognathic.

d) retrognathic.

C

25. When molars and premolars occlude cusp to cusp as viewed mesiodistally, this is classified as:

a) crossbite.

b) edge-to-edge bite.

c) overjet.

d) end-to-end bite,

D

26. When incisor surfaces of maxillary teeth occlude with incisor surfaces of mandibular teeth as viewed mesiodistally, this is classified as:

a) crossbite.

b) edge-to-edge bite.

c) overjet.

d) end-to-end bite.

B

27. When there is a lack of occlusal or incisal contact between certain maxillary and mandibular teeth because either or both have failed to reach the line of occlusion, this is classified as:

a) crossbite.

b) overjet.

c) open bite.

d) primate space.

C

28. The horizontal distance between the labioincisal surfaces of the mandibular incisors and the linguoincisal surfaces of the maxillary incisors is:

a) overjet.

b) overbite.

c) crossbite.

d) open bite.

A

29. The vertical distance by which the maxillary incisors overlap the mandibular incisors is classified as:

a) overjet.

b) overbite.

c) crossbite.

d) open bite.

B

30. The determination of the classification of occlusion is based on the principles of: a) occlusion.

b) radiographs.

c) Edward Angle.

d) G. V. Black.

C

31. A primary canine relation that does not exhibit any primate spaces is classified as: a) normal occlusion.

b) crossbite.

c) open bite.

d) closed arches.

D

32. Occlusal contacts that are made outside of the normal range of function in occlusion are called:

a) functional contacts.

b) parafunctional contacts.

c) primary contacts.

d) proximal contacts.

B

33. The purpose of a proximal contact is: a) to prevent food impaction.

b) to stabilize the position of teeth in the dental arch,

c) to prevent drifting.

d) All of these are correct.

D

34. Which of the following is not a purpose of study models?

a) To be used as visual aids

b) To assist in forensic examinations

c) To serve as a temporary record

d) To assist with dental charting

C

35. A) A bite registration is needed when occluding relations interfere with direct occlusion of study models. B) A bite registration relates the maxillary and mandibular models correctly.

a) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

b) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

C

1. The acquired pellicle forms on:

a) restorations.

b) exposed tooth surfaces.

c) dental calculus.

d) dental crowns.

e) All of these are correct.

E

2. After all external material has been removed from tooth surfaces, the acquired pellicle is fully formed within:

a) 5 minutes.

b) 60 minutes.

c) 30 to 90 minutes.

d) 90 to 180 minutes.

C

3. The significance of the acquired pellicle is that:

a) it is protective.

b) it is a lubricant.

c) it provides a nidus for bacteria.

D)it is a mode of calculus attachment.

e) All of these are correct.

E

4. Gram-positive cocci enter the bacterial biofilm in how many hours?

a) Within 24 hours

b) 24 to 48 hours

c) 48 to 72 hours

d) None of these are correct.

A

5. When biofilm is left undisturbed on the tooth surface, gingivitis develops within: a) 1 day.

b) 2 days.

c) 7 hours.

d) 10 to 21 days.

D

6. Biofilm occurs least frequently:

a) on proximal surfaces.

b) at the gingival margin.

c) around the gingival third of the tooth.

d) on anterior surfaces.

D

7. The planktonic "free-floating" biofilm contains which of the following?

a) Epithelial cells

b) Platelets

c) Erythrocytes

d) Leukocytes

D

8. Critical pH for enamel demineralization averages:

a) 4.5 to 5.5

b) 6.2 to 7.0.

c) 6.0 to 6.4.

d) None of these are correct.

A

9. Your patient John informs you that he only drinks one can of soda all day because he sips it slowly throughout the day. During OHI you tell him:

a) "Large amounts of sucrose eaten at mealtimes is more cariogenic."

b) "Small amounts of sucrose eaten at frequent intervals is less cariogenic."

c) "Small amounts of sucrose eaten at frequent intervals is more cariogenic."

d) None of these are correct.

C

10. Which one of the following is a lbosely adherent mass of bacteria and cellular debris and is white or grayish-white in appearance?

a) Dental plaque

b) Material alba

c) Calculus

d) Acquired pellicle

B

11. A) Microbial biofilm plays a major role in the initiation and progression of both dental caries and periodontal infections. B) Periodontal diseases and dental caries are nontransmissible diseases.

a) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

b) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

A

12. Which statement is false concerning the pellicle?

a) Pellicle can take on extrinsic stain and become gradations of brown, gray, or other colors.

b) When stained with a disclosing agent, pellicle appears thick.

c) The pellicle plays an important protective role in the maintenance of oral health.

d) The pellicle acts as a nidus of attachment for the bacteria and subsequent calculus on the tooth surfaces.

B

13. The initial layer of subgingival biofilm is composed of:

a) F. nucleatum.

b) Tannerella.

c) T. forsythia,

d) actinomyces.

D

14. Which of the following is an organic element of biofilm?

a) Phosphorus

b) Proteins

c) Calcium

d) Magnesium

B

15. Which of the following statements is true of dental calçulus?

a) Dental calculus can form on dentures. b) Dental calculus can only form on the crown or root of the tooth.

c) Dental calculus cannot form on bridges.

d) Dental calculus cannot form on occlusal surfaces of the tooth.

A

16. The steps for calculus formation, in chronological order, are:

A) biofilm formation, mineralization, pellicle formation.

b) mineralization, pellicle formation, biofilm formation.

c) pellicle formation, biofilm formation, mineralization.

d) mineralization, biofilm formation, pellicle formation.

C

17. Which one of the following is the most highly mineralized tissue in the body?

a) Cementum

b) Bone

c) Dentin

d) Enamel

D

18. Tactile examination for subgingival calculus can be detected by using which of the following tools?

a) Explorer

b) Probe

c) Radiographs

d) Explorer and probe

D

19. Calculus-control ("tartar-control") dentifrices contain:

a) a calcium and phosphorus system.

b) a pyrophosphate or zinc system.

c) sodium fluoride.

d) a stannous fluoride system.

B

20. A) Heavy calculus formers have higher salivary levels of calcium and phosphorus than do light calculus formers. B) Light calculus formers have higher levels of pyrophosphate.

a) Statement A is true and statement B is false.

b) Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c) Both statements are true.

d) Both statements are false.

C

21. How early can mineralization of both supra- and şubgingival calculus begin?

a) It can begin immediately after deep scaling and root planning.

b) It can begin in 12 to 24 hours.

c) It can begin in 24 to 72 hours.

d) It will not begin if an oral irrigation system is used.

C

22. Your patient, Mr. Jones, wants to know what you think about the new bleaching toothpaste that has just come into the stores. He wants to buy some but he wants to know if it will be good for him or possibly harm his teeth. He asks you what he should do and you advise him:

a) "Give the toothpaste a try and if there is any discomfort discontinue usage."

b) "Ask family and friends if they have had any problems with the product's usage."

c) "Buy the product and use just a small amount at first until you are used to it."

d) "Buy only products that contain the ADA seal of acceptance on the package."

D

23. Calculus occurs most frequently on:

a) lingual surfaces of maxillary molars.

b) facial surfaces of maxillary molars.

c) lingual surfaces of maxillary incisors.

d) None of these are correct.

B

24. Which of the following is an inorganic component of calculus?

a) Desquamated epithelial cells

b) Mucin from saliva

c) Leukocytes

d) Calcium

D

25. Your patient, James Olsen, is in for his 6-month recare appointment. He informs you that he has been unable to remove the plaque from his upper and lower central incisors no matter how hard he tries. His health history states that he has areas of fluorosis and suspect caries on posterior molars. Which of the following could make Mr. Olsen more susceptible to calculus formation?

a) Pitted enamel

b) Carious defects

c) Both pitted enamel and carious defects d) Neither pitted enamel or carious defects

C

26. Your patient, Kathy, is in for her maintenance appointment; she recently purchased some tartar-control toothpaste, and it seems to be working for her. She asks you, "How does it prevent tartar from forming?" You respond:

a) "It prevents the buildup of saliva."

b) "It prevents pellicle formation."

c) "It contains fluoride, which helps to prevent decalcification."

d) "It contains pyrophosphate."

D

28. What is the primary use of the dental endoscopy in deep pockets?

a) To detect pocket depths

b) To explore for irregular surfaces

c) To detect hardness of dentin

d) To detect burnished calculus

D

29. Which one of the following is not a chemotherapeutic agent for prevention of calculus?

a) Pyrophosphates

b) Brushite

c) Zinc citrate

d) Tricolsan

B

30. Apatite is a crystalline mineral component of bones and teeth that contains calcium and:

a) haapalait

b) magnesium.

c) phosphate.

d) None of these are correct.

C

31. Which of the following types of stain is considered an intrinsic stain?

a) Coffee stain

b) Tobacco stain

c) Fluorosis

d) Black-line stain

C

32. Dental fluorosis is:

a) abnormal dentin formation.

b) overuse of antibiotics by pregnant mothers.

c) enamel hypomineralization resulting from ingestion of excessive fluoride during tooth mineralization.

d) yellowing of the teeth associated with the aging process.

C

33. Stains occurring directly on the tooth surface can be removed by:

a) scaling and polishing.

b) gingival probing.

c) using a mouthrinse containing alexidine.

d) regular flossing.

A

27. Calculus is a(n) —factor in pocket development.

a) irrigating

b) predisposing

c) dissuading

d) halting

B

34. Extrinsic stains may be caused by:

a) coffee, tea, and tobacco.

b) food.

c) bacteria,

d) some medications.

e) All of these are correct.

E

35. Chlorhexidine and alexidine are:

a) used to treat local hypoplasia.

b) used widely in metallic salts.

c) used in mouthrinses and are effective against plaque formation.

d) chemicals present in metallic dust, which industrial workers may inhale.

e) used in prophylaxis jets.

C

36. White spots on a single tooth due to ameloblastic disturbance are called:

a) local enamel bypoplasia.

b) dentinogenesis imperfecta

. c) decalcification.

d) dental fluorosis.

A

37. The betel leaf is commonly used by people of all ages in Eastern countries. Which of the following is true of betel leaf?

a) The betel leaf causes decalcification.

b) The betel leaf has a caries-inhibiting effect.

c) The betel leaf causes a yellow stain on the tooth

. d) The betel leaf causes a green stain on the tooth.

B

38. Which of the following statements is true of pulpless teeth?

a) All pulpless teeth discolor.

b) Not all pulpless teeth discolor.

c) Pulpless teeth can cause frequent pain. d) None of these are correct.

B

39. Which of the following is true regarding the use of tetracycline antibiotics?

a) Discoloration of the teeth may be generalized or limited to specific parts of individual teeth.

b) Tetracycline antibiotics are absorbed by the lungs.

c) Administering tetracycline antibiotics to a pregnant mother during the third trimester of pregnancy may result in discoloration of the mother's teeth.

d) Discoloration is always the same regardless of the type of tetracycline used.

A

41. Which of the following restorative material ions does not eventually contact debris at the junction of the tooth and the restoration and form sulfides, which are products of corrosion?

a) Silver

b) Porcelain

c) Mercury

d) Tin

B

44. Jill Carter is a 27-year-old female; she presents herself for a maintenance exam and prophylaxis. Her last recall visit was 6months ago, and, at that time, the dentist prescribed a brush-on fluoride gel to control caries. Jill states, "I am upset by the stains on my teeth; I don't drink coffee or smoke." She asked the RDH where this stain came from, what it is called, and how it will be removed. After carefully reviewing the medical history with Jill (she is not taking any medications) and a thorough examination, the RDH concludes she has staining. The type of stain is most likely:

a) brown stain.

b) orange stain

. c) metallic stain.

d) tetracycline stain.

A

43. Use of —can result in a greenish discoloration of teeth.

a) beta blockers

b) antilipemics

c) antibiotics

d) antihypertensives

C

42. Discoloration of the teeth of a child can result when tetracycline is administered to the mother during the —-trimester of pregnancy.

a) first

b) second

c) third

d) Tetracycline does not cause discoloration.

C

40. Copper amalgam used for filling primary teeth may impart a(n). —color.

a) bluish-black

b) orange

c) bluish-green

d) brown

C

45. Jill Carter is a 27-year-old female; she presents herself for a maintenance exam and prophylaxis. Her last recall visit was 6 months ago, and, at that time, the dentist prescribed a brush-on fluoride gel to control caries. Jill states, "I am upset by the stains on my teeth; I don't drink coffee or smoke." She asked the RDH where this stain came from, what it is called, and how it will be removed. After carefully reviewing the medical history with Jill (she is not taking any medications) and a thorough examination, the RDH concludes she has staining. Her stain is most likely caused by:

a) chromogenic bacteria.

b) too much iron in her diet.

c) formation of stannous sulfide.

d) food debris.

C

46. Brown stain that result from the formation of stannous sulfide are:

a) intrinsic.

b) extrinsic.

c) chlorophyll.

d) metallic.

B

47. True or False? Subgingival biofilm includes more predominantly gram-positive anaerobic and motile organisms of periodontal diseases.

False

48. Supragingival biofilm develops as a result of downgrowth of subgingival biofilm.

False