Anatomy and Physiology (Openstax) Exam 1: Chapters 1-4, Ouachita Baptist University, Dr. Johnson, Fall 2018 Diagram

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155 Terms

1
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Which of the following specialties might focus on studying all of the structures of the ankle and foot?

a. microscopic anatomy

b. muscle anatomy

c. regional anatomy

d. systemic anatomy

c. regional anatomy

2
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A scientists wants to study how the body uses foods and fluids during a marathon run. This scientist is most likely a(n) ____________.

a. exercise physiologist

b. microscopic anatomist

c. regional physiologist

d. systemic anatomist

a. exercise physiologist

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The smallest independently functioning unit of an organism is a(n) __________.

a. cell

b. molecule

c. organ

d. tissue

a. cell

4
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A collection of similar tissues that performs a specific function is an __________.

a. organ

b. organelle

c. muscular system

d. organ system

a. organ

5
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The body system is responsible for structural support and movement is the ___________.

a. cardiovascular system

b. endocrine system

c. muscular system

d. skeletal system

d. skeletal system

6
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Metabolism can be defined as the __________.

a. adjustment by na organism to external or internal changes

b. process by whereby all unspecialized cells become specialized to perform distinct functions

c. process whereby new cells are formed to replace worn-out cells

d. sum of all chemical reactions in an organism

d. sum of all chemical reactions in an organism

7
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Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an important molecule because it _________.

a. is the result of catabolism

b. release energy in uncontrolled bursts

c. stores energy for use by body cells

d. All of the above

c. stores energy for use by body cells

8
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Cancer cells can be characterized as "generic" cells that perform no specialized body function. Thus cancer cells lack ___________.

a. differentiation

b. reproduction

c. responsiveness

d. both reproduction and responsiveness

a. differentiation

9
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Humans have the most urgent need for a continuous supply of ___________.

a. food

b. nitrogen

c. oxygen

d. water

c. oxygen

10
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Which of the following statements about nutrients is true?

a. All classes of nutrients are essential to human survival.

b. Because the body cannot store any micronutrients, they need to be consumed nearly every day.

c. Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are micronutrients.

d. Macronutrients are vitamins and minerals.

a. All classes of nutrients are essential to human survival.

11
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C.J. is stuck in her car during a bitterly cold blizzard. Her body responds to the cold by __________.

a. increasing the blood to her hands and feet

b. becoming lethargic to conserve heat

c. breaking down stored energy

d. significantly increasing blood oxygen levels

c. breaking down stored energy

12
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After you eat lunch, nerve cells in your stomach respond to the dissension (the stimulus) resulting from the food. They relay this information to _______________.

a. a control center

b. a set point

c. effectors

d. sensors

a. a control center

13
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Stimulation of the heat-loss center cause _____________.

a. blood vessels in the skin to constrict

b. breathing to become slow

c. sweat glands to increase their output

d. All of the above

c. sweat glands to increase their output

14
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Which of the following is an example of a normal physiological process that uses a positive feedback loop?

a. blood pressure regulation

b. childbirth

c. regulation of fluid balance

d. temperature regulation

b. childbirth

15
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What is the position of the body when it is in the "normal anatomical position?"

a. The person is prone with upper limbs, including palms, touching sides and lower limbs touching at sides.

b. The person is standing facing the observer, with upper limbs extended out at a ninety-degree angle from the torso and lower limbs in a wide stance with feet pointing laterally.

c. The person is supine with upper limbs, including palms, touching sides and lower limbs touching at sides.

d. None of the above.

d. None of the above.

normal anatomical position: that of the body standing upright, with the feet at shoulder width and parallel, toes forward. The upper limbs are held out to each side, and the palms of the hands face forward.

16
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To make a banana split, you halve a banana into two long, thin, right and left sides along the ___________.

a. coronal plane

b. longitudinal plane

c. midsagittal plane

d. transverse plane

a. coronal plane

17
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The lumbar region is _________.

a. inferior to the gluteal region

b. inferior to the umbilical region

c. superior to the cervical region

d. superior to the popliteal region

d. superior to the popliteal region

18
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The heart is within the _________.

a. cranial cavity

b. mediastinum

c. posterior (dorsal) cavity

d. All of the above

b. mediastinum

19
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In 1901, Wilhelm Röntgen was the first person to win a Noble Prize for physics. For what discovery did he win?

a. nuclear physics

b. radiopharmaceuticals

c.the link between radiation and cancer

d. X-rays

d. X-rays

20
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Which of the following imaging techniques would be best to use to study the uptake of nutrients by rapidly multiplying cancer cells?

a. CT

b. MRI

c. PET

d. ultrasonography

c. PET

21
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Which of the following imaging studies can be used most safely during pregnancy?

a. CT scans

b. PET scans

c. ultrasounds

d. X-rays

c. ultrasounds

22
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What are two major disadvantages of MRI scans?

a. release of radiation and poor quality images

b. high cost and the need for shielding from magnetic signals

c. can only view metabolically active tissues and inadequate availability of equipment

d. release of radiation and the need for a patient to be confined to metal tube for up to 30 minutes

b. high cost and the need for shielding from magnetic signals

23
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Name at least three reasons to study anatomy and physiology.

It is essential for any career in the health professions. It can also help you make choices that promote your health, respond appropriately to signs of illness, make sense of health-related news, and help you in your roles as a parent, spouse, partner, friend, colleague, and caregiver.

24
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For whom would an appreciation of the structural characteristics of the human heart come more easily: an alien who lands on Earth, abducts a human, and dissects his heart, or an anatomy and physiology student performing a dissection of the heart on her very first day of class? Why?

the student because she can relate much more than an alien could.

25
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Name the six levels of organization of the human body.

chemical, cellular, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism

26
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The female ovaries and the male testes are part of which body system? Can these organs be members of more than one organ system? Why or why not?

Yes, the two organs are both part of the reproductive system and the endocrine system. The ovaries and the testes produce both gametes for the reproductive system and sex hormones for the endocrine system.

27
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Explain why the smell of smoke when you are sitting at a campfire does not trigger alarm, but the smell of smoke in your residence hall does.

When you are sitting at a campfire, your sense of smell adapts to the smell of smoke. Only if that smell were to suddenly and dramatically intensify would you be likely to notice and respond. In contrast, the smell of even a trace of smoke would be new and highly unusual in your residence hall, and would be perceived as danger.

28
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Identify three different ways that growth can occur in the human body.

Increase in existing cell number, in the amount of non-cellular material (mineral deposits in bone resulting in increased bone density), and in existing cell size.

29
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When you open a bottle of sparkling water, the carbon dioxide gas in the bottle form bubbles. If the bottle is left open, the water will eventually "go flat." Explain these phenomena in terms of atmospheric pressure.

In a sealed bottle of sparkling water, carbon dioxide gas is kept dissolved in the water under a very high pressure. If you open the bottle, the pressure of the gas above the liquid changes from artificially high to normal atmospheric pressure. The dissolved carbon dioxide gas expands, and rises in bubbles to the surface. When a bottle of sparking water is left open, it eventually goes flat because its gases continue to move out of solution until the pressure of the water is approximately equal to atmospheric pressure.

30
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On his midsummer trek through the desert, Josh ran out of water. Why is this particularly dangerous?

The body responds to high environmental heat by sweating. Water is required for sweating that comes from the fluids present in the body, including blood plasma. Josh is going to become at risk for heat stroke as he becomes dehydrated; sweat is not going to be produced adequately to cool the body. Blood pressure would also drop due to water loss from blood plasma.

31
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Identify four components of a negative feedback loop and explain what would happen is secretion of a body chemical controlled by a negative feedback system became too great.

stimulus, sensor, control center, and effector. If too great a quantity of the chemical excreted, sensors would activate a control center, which would in turn activate an effector. In this case, the effector (the secreting cells) would be adjusted downward.

32
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What regulatory process would your body use if you were trapped by a blizzard in an unheated, uninsulated cabin in the woods?

homeostasis

33
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Which medical imaging technique is most dangerous to use repeatedly, and why?

CT scanning subjects patients to much higher levels of radiation than X-rays, and should not be performed repeatedly.

34
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In which direction would an MRI scanner move to produce sequential images of the body in the frontal plane, and in which direction would an MRI scanner move to produce sequential images of the body in the sagittal plane?

If the body were supine or prone, the MRI scanner would move from top to bottom to produce frontal sections, which would divide the body into anterior and posterior portions, as in "cutting" a deck of cards. Again, if the body were supine or prone, to produce sagittal sections, the scanner would move from left to right or from right to left to divide the body lengthwise into left and right portions.

35
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If a bullet were to penetrate a lung, which three anterior thoracic body cavities would it enter, and which layer of the serous membrane would it encounter first?

ventral, thoracic, pleural cavities; pleura membrane

36
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Explain why ultrasound imaging is the technique of choice for studying fetal growth and development.

it is the least invasive technique among the others; no exposure to the fetus or mother to magnetic fields, radiation, or radiopharmaceuticals.

37
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What kind of catabolism occurs in the heart?

fatty acid catabolism

38
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Together, just four elements make up more than 95 percent of the body's mass. These include ________.

a. calcium, magnesium, iron, and carbon

b. oxygen, calcium, iron, and nitrogen

c. sodium, chlorine, carbon, and hydrogen

d. oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

d. oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

39
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The smallest unit of an element that still retains the distinctive behavior of that element is an ________.

a. electron

b. atom

c. elemental particle

d. isotope

b. atom

40
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The characteristic that gives an element its distinctive properties is its number of ________.

a. protons

b. neutrons

c. electrons

d. atoms

a. protons

41
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On the periodic table of the elements, mercury (Hg) has an atomic number of 80 and a mass number of 200.59. It has seven stable isotopes. The most abundant of these probably have ________.

a. about 80 neutrons each

b. fewer than 80 neutrons each

c. more than 80 neutrons each

d. more electrons than neutrons

c. more than 80 neutrons

42
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Nitrogen has an atomic number of seven. How many electron shells does it likely have?

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. four

b. two

43
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The most abundant elements in the foods and beverages you consume are oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen. Why might having these elements in consumables be useful?

These four elements—oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen—together make up more than 95 percent of the mass of the human body, and the body cannot make elements, so it is helpful to have them in consumables.

44
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Oxygen, whose atomic number is eight, has three stable isotopes: 16-O, 17-O, and 18-O. Explain what this means in terms of the number of protons and neutrons.

Oxygen has eight protons. In its most abundant stable form, it has eight neutrons, too, for a mass number of 16. In contrast, 17-O has nine neutrons, and 18-O has 10 neutrons.

45
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Magnesium is an important element in the human body, especially in bones. Magnesium's atomic number is 12. Is it stable or reactive? Why? If it were to react with another atom, would it be more likely to accept or to donate one or more electrons?

Magnesium's 12 electrons are distributed as follows: two in the first shell, eight in the second shell, and two in its valence shell. According to the octet rule, magnesium is unstable (reactive) because its valence shell has just two electrons. It is therefore likely to participate in chemical reactions in which it donates two electrons.

46
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Which of the following is a molecule, but not a compound?

a. H2O

b. 2H

c. H2

d. H+

c. H2

47
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A molecule of ammonia contains one atom of nitrogen and three atoms of hydrogen. These are linked with ________.

a. ionic bonds

b. nonpolar covalent bonds

c. polar covalent bonds

d. hydrogen bonds

c. polar covalent bonds

48
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When an atom donates an electron to another atom, it becomes

a. an ion

b. an anion

c. nonpolar

d. all of the above

a. an ion

49
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A substance formed of crystals of equal numbers of cations and anions held together by ionic bonds is called a(n) ________.

a. noble gas

b. salt

c. electrolyte

d. dipole

b. salt

50
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Which of the following statements about chemical bonds is true?

a. Covalent bonds are stronger than ionic bonds.

b. Hydrogen bonds occur between two atoms of hydrogen.

c. Bonding readily occurs between nonpolar and polar molecules.

d. A molecule of water is unlikely to bond with an ion.

a. Covalent bonds are stronger than ionic bonds.

51
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Explain why CH4 is one of the most common molecules found in nature. Are the bonds between the atoms ionic or covalent?

A carbon atom has four electrons in its valence shell. According to the octet rule, it will readily participate in chemical reactions that result in its valence shell having eight electrons. Hydrogen, with one electron, will complete its valence shell with two. Electron sharing between an atom of carbon and four atoms of hydrogen meets the requirements of all atoms. The bonds are covalent because the electrons are shared: although hydrogen often participates in ionic bonds, carbon does not because it is highly unlikely to donate or accept four electrons.

52
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In a hurry one day, you merely rinse your lunch dishes with water. As you are drying your salad bowl, you notice that it still has an oily film. Why was the water alone not effective in cleaning the bowl?

Water is a polar molecule. It has a region of weakly positive charge and a region of weakly negative charge. These regions are attracted to ions as well as to other polar molecules. Oils are nonpolar, and are repelled by water.

53
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Could two atoms of oxygen engage in ionic bonding? Why or why not?

Identical atoms have identical electronegativity and cannot form ionic bonds. Oxygen, for example, has six electrons in its valence shell. Neither donating nor accepting the valence shell electrons of the other will result in the oxygen atoms completing their valence shells. Two atoms of the same element always form covalent bonds.

54
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The energy stored in a foot of snow on a steep roof is ________.

a. potential energy

b. kinetic energy

c. radiant energy

d. activation energy

a. potential energy

55
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The bonding of calcium, phosphorus, and other elements produces mineral crystals that are found in bone. This is an example of a(n) ________ reaction.

a. catabolic

b. synthesis

c. decomposition

d. exchange

b. synthesis

56
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AB → A + B is a general notation for a(n) ________ reaction.

a. anabolic

b. endergonic

c. decomposition

d. exchange

c. decomposition

57
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________ reactions release energy.

a. Catabolic

b. Exergonic

c. Decomposition

d. Catabolic, exergonic, and decomposition

d. Catabolic, exergonic, and decomposition

58
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Which of the following combinations of atoms is most likely to result in a chemical reaction?

a. hydrogen and hydrogen

b. hydrogen and helium

c. helium and helium

d. neon and helium

a. hydrogen and hydrogen

59
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Chewing a bite of bread mixes it with saliva and facilitates its chemical breakdown. This is most likely due to the fact that ________.

a. the inside of the mouth maintains a very high temperature

b. chewing stores potential energy

c. chewing facilitates synthesis reactions

d. saliva contains enzymes

d. saliva contains enzymes

60
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AB+CD→AD+BE

Is this a legitimate example of an exchange reaction? Why or why not?

It is not. An exchange reaction might be AB+CD→AC+BD or AB+CD→AD+BC. In all chemical reactions, including exchange reactions, the components of the reactants are identical to the components of the products. A component present among the reactants cannot disappear, nor can a component not present in the reactants suddenly appear in the products.

61
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When you do a load of laundry, why do you not just drop a bar of soap into the washing machine? In other words, why is laundry detergent sold as a liquid or powder?

Recall that the greater the surface area of the reactants, the more quickly and easily they will interact. It takes energy to separate particles of a substance. Powder and liquid laundry detergents, with relatively more surface area per unit, can quickly dissolve into their reactive components when added to the water.

62
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CH4 is methane. This compound is ________.

a. inorganic

b. organic

c. reactive

d. a crystal

b. organic

63
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Which of the following is most likely to be found evenly distributed in water in a homogeneous solution?

a. sodium ions and chloride ions

b. NaCl molecules

c. salt crystals

d. red blood cells

a. sodium ions and chloride ions

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Jenny mixes up a batch of pancake batter, then stirs in some chocolate chips. As she is waiting for the first few pancakes to cook, she notices the chocolate chips sinking to the bottom of the clear glass mixing bowl. The chocolate-chip batter is an example of a ________.

a. solvent

b. solute

c. solution

d. suspension

d. suspension

65
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A substance dissociates into K+ and Cl- in solution. The substance is a(n) ________.

a. acid

b. base

c. salt

d. buffer

c. salt

66
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Ty is three years old and as a result of a "stomach bug" has been vomiting for about 24 hours. His blood pH is 7.48. What does this mean?

a. Ty's blood is slightly acidic.

b. Ty's blood is slightly alkaline.

c. Ty's blood is highly acidic.

d. Ty's blood is within the normal range

b. Ty's blood is slightly alkaline.

67
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The pH of lemon juice is 2, and the pH of orange juice is 4. Which of these is more acidic, and by how much? What does this mean?

Lemon juice is one hundred times more acidic than orange juice. This means that lemon juice has a one hundred-fold greater concentration of hydrogen ions

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During a party, Eli loses a bet and is forced to drink a bottle of lemon juice. Not long thereafter, he begins complaining of having difficulty breathing, and his friends take him to the local emergency room. There, he is given an intravenous solution of bicarbonate. Why?

Lemon juice, like any acid, releases hydrogen ions in solution. As excessive H+ enters the digestive tract and is absorbed into blood, Eli's blood pH falls below 7.35. Recall that bicarbonate is a buffer, a weak base that accepts hydrogen ions. By administering bicarbonate intravenously, the emergency department physician helps raise Eli's blood pH back toward neutral.

69
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C6H12O6 is the chemical formula for a ________.

a. polymer of carbohydrate

b. pentose monosaccharide

c. hexose monosaccharide

d. all of the above

c. hexose monosaccharide

70
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What organic compound do brain cells primarily rely on for fuel?

a. glucose

b. glycogen

c. galactose

d. glycerol

a. glucose

71
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Which of the following is a functional group that is part of a building block of proteins?

a. phosphate

b. adenine

c. amino

d. ribose

c. amino

72
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A pentose sugar is a part of the monomer used to build which type of macromolecule?

a. polysaccharides

b. nucleic acids

c. phosphorylated glucose

d. glycogen

b. nucleic acids

73
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A phospholipid ________.

a. has both polar and nonpolar regions

b. is made up of a triglyceride bonded to a phosphate group

c. is a building block of ATP

d. can donate both cations and anions in solution

b. is made up of a triglyceride bonded to a phosphate

74
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In DNA, nucleotide bonding forms a compound with a characteristic shape known as a(n) ________.

a. beta chain

b. pleated sheet

c. alpha helix

d. double helix

a. beta chain

75
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Uracil ________.

a. contains nitrogen

b. is a pyrimidine

c. is found in RNA

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

76
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The ability of an enzyme's active sites to bind only substrates of compatible shape and charge is known as ________.

a. selectivity

b. specificity

c. subjectivity

d. specialty

b. specificity

77
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If the disaccharide maltose is formed from two glucose monosaccharides, which are hexose sugars, how many atoms of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen does maltose contain and why?

Maltose contains 12 atoms of carbon, but only 22 atoms of hydrogen and 11 atoms of oxygen, because a molecule of water is removed during its formation via dehydration synthesis.

78
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Once dietary fats are digested and absorbed, why can they not be released directly into the bloodstream?

All lipids are hydrophobic and unable to dissolve in the watery environment of blood. They are packaged into lipoproteins, whose outer protein envelope enables them to transport fats in the bloodstream.

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Because they are embedded within the membrane, ion channels are examples of ________.

a. receptor proteins

b. integral proteins

c. peripheral proteins

d. glycoproteins

b. integral proteins

80
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The diffusion of substances within a solution tends to move those substances ________ their ________ gradient.

a. up; electrical

b. up; electrochemical

c. down; pressure

d. down; concentration

d. down; concentration

81
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Ion pumps and phagocytosis are both examples of ________.

a. endocytosis

b. passive transport

c. active transport

d. facilitated diffusion

c. active transport

82
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Choose the answer that best completes the following analogy: Diffusion is to ________ as endocytosis is to ________.

a. filtration; phagocytosis

b. osmosis; pinocytosis

c. solutes; fluid

d. gradient; chemical energy

b. osmosis; pinocytosis

83
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What materials can easily diffuse through the lipid bilayer, and why?

Only materials that are relatively small and nonpolar can easily diffuse through the lipid bilayer. Large particles cannot fit in between the individual phospholipids that are packed together, and polar molecules are repelled by the hydrophobic/nonpolar lipids that line the inside of the bilayer.

84
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Why is receptor-mediated endocytosis said to be more selective than phagocytosis or pinocytosis?

Receptor-mediated endocytosis is more selective because the substances that are brought into the cell are the specific ligands that could bind to the receptors being endocytosed. Phagocytosis or pinocytosis, on the other hand, have no such receptor-ligand specificity, and bring in whatever materials happen to be close to the membrane when it is enveloped.

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What do osmosis, diffusion, filtration, and the movement of ions away from like charge all have in common? In what way do they differ?

These four phenomena are similar in the sense that they describe the movement of substances down a particular type of gradient. Osmosis and diffusion involve the movement of water and other substances down their concentration gradients, respectively. Filtration describes the movement of particles down a pressure gradient, and the movement of ions away from like charge describes their movement down their electrical gradient.

86
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Choose the term that best completes the following analogy: Cytoplasm is to cytosol as a swimming pool containing chlorine and flotation toys is to ________.

a. the walls of the pool

b. the chlorine

c. the flotation toys

d. the water

d. the water

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The rough ER has its name due to what associated structures?

a. Golgi apparatus

b. ribosomes

c. lysosomes

d. proteins

b. ribosomes

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Which of the following is a function of the rough ER?

a. production of proteins

b. detoxification of certain substances

c. synthesis of steroid hormones

d. regulation of intracellular calcium concentration

a. production of proteins

89
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Which of the following is a feature common to all three components of the cytoskeleton?

a. They all serve to scaffold the organelles within the cell.

b. They are all characterized by roughly the same diameter.

c. They are all polymers of protein subunits.

d. They all help the cell resist compression and tension.

c. They are all polymers of protein subunits.

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Which of the following organelles produces large quantities of ATP when both glucose and oxygen are available to the cell?

a. mitochondria

b. peroxisomes

c. lysosomes

d. ER

a. mitochondria

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Explain why the structure of the ER, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus assist their respective functions.

The structure of the Golgi apparatus is suited to its function because it is a series of flattened membranous discs; substances are modified and packaged in sequential steps as they travel from one disc to the next. The structure of Golgi apparatus also involves a receiving face and a sending face, which organize cellular products as they enter and leave the Golgi apparatus. The ER and the mitochondria both have structural specializations that increase their surface area. In the mitochondria, the inner membrane is extensively folded, which increases surface area for ATP production. Likewise, the ER is elaborately wound throughout the cell, increasing its surface area for functions like lipid synthesis, Ca++ storage, and protein synthesis.

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Compare and contrast lysosomes with peroxisomes: name at least two similarities and one difference.

Peroxisomes and lysosomes are both cellular organelles bound by lipid bilayer membranes, and they both contain many enzymes. However, peroxisomes contain enzymes that detoxify substances by transferring hydrogen atoms and producing H2O2, whereas the enzymes in lysosomes function to break down and digest various unwanted materials.

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The nucleus and mitochondria share which of the following features?

a. protein-lined membrane pores

b. a double cell membrane

c. the synthesis of ribosomes

d. the production of cellular energy

b. a double cell membrane

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Which of the following structures could be found within the nucleolus?

a. chromatin

b. histones

c. ribosomes

d. nucleosomes

a. chromatin

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Which of the following sequences on a DNA molecule would be complementary to GCTTATAT?

a. TAGGCGCG

b. ATCCGCGC

c. CGAATATA

d. TGCCTCTC

c. CGAATATA

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Place the following structures in order from least to most complex organization: chromatin, nucleosome, DNA, chromosome

a. DNA, nucleosome, chromatin, chromosome

b. nucleosome, DNA, chromosome, chromatin

c. DNA, chromatin, nucleosome, chromosome

d. nucleosome, chromatin, DNA, chromosome

a. DNA, nucleosome, chromatin, chromosome

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Which of the following is part of the elongation step of DNA synthesis?

a. pulling apart the two DNA strands

b. attaching complementary nucleotides to the template strand

c. untwisting the DNA helix

d. none of the above

b. attaching complementary nucleotides to the template strand

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Explain in your own words why DNA replication is said to be "semiconservative"?

DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because, after replication is complete, one of the two parent DNA strands makes up half of each new DNA molecule. The other half is a newly synthesized strand. Therefore, half ("semi") of each daughter DNA molecule is from the parent molecule and half is a new molecule.

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Why is it important that DNA replication take place before cell division? What would happen if cell division of a body cell took place without DNA replication, or when DNA replication was incomplete?

During cell division, one cell divides to produce two new cells. In order for all of the cells in your body to maintain a full genome, each cell must replicate its DNA before it divides so that a full genome can be allotted to each of its offspring cells. If DNA replication did not take place fully, or at all, the offspring cells would be missing some or all of the genome. This could be disastrous if a cell was missing genes necessary for its function and health.

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Which of the following is not a difference between DNA and RNA?

a. DNA contains thymine whereas RNA contains uracil

b. DNA contains deoxyribose and RNA contains ribose

c. DNA contains alternating sugar-phosphate molecules whereas RNA does not contain sugars

d. RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded

c. DNA contains alternating sugar-phosphate molecules whereas RNA does not contain sugars