OBGYN Protocols and Procedures

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77 Terms

1
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IVF transfers egg to ___ and ZIFT transfers egg to ___

uterus, fallopian tube

2
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Glucose screening is usually performed at ___ weeks

24-28

3
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Hypermenorrhea

Increased flow during cycle

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Hypomenorrhea

Abnormally decreased flow during cyle

5
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Oligomenorrhea

Menstruation that occurs in >35 day intervals

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Polymenorrhea

Menstruation that occurs in <21 day intervals

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Menorrhagia

Heavy and longer cycles

8
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Metrorrhagia

Irregular cycle, intermenstrual bleeding

9
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PUBS does not asses ___

L/S ratio → measured during amnio

10
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The BPD can first be measured at ___ weeks and is most accurate before ___ weeks

10-11, 20

11
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What procedure is performed to obtain a sample of the chorion frondosum for karyotyping?

CVS

12
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GA calculation

CRL (cm)+6

CRL (mm)+42

13
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A sample of amniotic fluid can be tested for increased levels of ____ that indicate the presence of neural tube defects

Acetylcholinesterase

14
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Which fetal anomalies would be expected in a mother with phenylketonuria?

Microcephaly, cardiac defects, and IUGR

15
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Which test can predict erythroblastosis fetalis through amniotic fluid?

Delta OD450

16
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Lithium use during pregnancy is most commonly associated with which cardiac defect?

Ebstein anomaly

17
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A fever, leukocytosis and pelvic pain would be most suggestive of:

Tubo-ovarian abscess

18
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Which hormones are monitored in the patient’s blood during ovarian stimulation for follicle production?

Estrogen and estradiol

19
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Which hormone is injected to cause follicles to mature and produce eggs?

hCG

20
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DUB is caused by ___ and AUB is caused by ___

abnormalities in the endocrine system, uterine lesions

21
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For TV ultrasound, the table should be in the ___ position and patient in the ___ position

Trendelenburg, lihotomy

22
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What is used during the procedure of endovaginal oocyte retrieval?

Saline solution

23
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If asked to measure the philtrum, what image will you use?

Midsaggital profile view

24
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What should be evaluated to rule out epispadias on a male fetus?

Kidneys, bladder, urethra

25
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Evaluating the fundal contour is most helpful in differentiating:

Bicornuate from septate

26
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Accuracy of fetal measurements in predicting GA in the 1st tri is within:

3-5 days

27
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The ___ view of the fetal head is most helpful for detecting facial defects with skeletal dysplasia

Midsaggital

28
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What is the best landmark for identifying the ovaries?

Internal iliac vessels

29
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What is the most important imaging plane used to evaluate the spine with suspected limb-body wall complex?

Coronal

30
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Spina bifida is best demonstrated using:

Transverse image of vertebrae

31
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Fetal lung volumetry performed with 3D ultrasound should be used to help diagnose:

Skeletal dysplasia (pulmonary hypoplasia)

32
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Transvaginal US can detect embryological changes about ___ earlier than transabdominal

1 week

33
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Expected findings with a positive Coombs test

Fetal anemia, immune hydrops, thickened placenta

34
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When is the best time to evaluate a premenopausal patient with suspected hyperplasia?

Around day 5 of the cycle just after menses stops

35
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Yolk Sac measurement

<6mm inner diameter

36
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CI is calculated by:

BPD/OFD

37
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Standard BPD provides the most accurate GA estimate before:

20 weeks

38
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When evaluating a patient for the antral follicle count, the TV exam should be performed:

Between day 2-4 of the cycle

39
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The best time to visualize a polyp on 2D US is in the ____ phase

Early proliferative

40
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BPP

Stress test - non reactive is 0 pts

Breathing - 30 seconds is 2 pts

Gross body movements - 3 is 2 pts

Muscle tone - 1 is 2 pts

AFI - >5xm is 2 pts

41
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Agenesis of the corups callosum can be ruled out with which view?

Transverse axial view of the fetal head with the beam perpendicular to the partietal bones

42
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If a patient with OHSS becomes pregnant, what procedure may be required for treatment?

Paracentesis

43
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Maternal cocaine abuse is associated with what critical findings on the fetal US?

Placental abruption and premature birth

44
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What medication is administered to cause the ovaries to produce follicles?

Clomid

45
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Fetal ascites is present on the exam. What should you do next?

Evaluate the fetal heart size and function

46
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Placental thinning is associated with:

IUGR, pre-eclampsia, smoking, HTN, poor maternal nutrition, drug/alcohol abuse

47
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What is true of sex-linked traits?

There is no corresponding X gene

If the mother has a good X gene, the daughters will only be carriers

X-linked recessive disorders are more likely than autosomal recessive disorders

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Quad screen blood test assess for:

MSAFP, hCG, estriol, and inhibin-A

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Autosomal dominant vs Autosomal recessive

Dominant - will occur if one defective gene is present

Recessive - will occur if both genes are defective

50
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What correctly describes the normal result for a contraction stress test?

The fetal heart rate increases with each uterine contraction induced by oxytocin

51
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If the mother carries an w-linked recessive gene and the father has the trait, what % chance do they have for a normal boy?

25% normal boy

25% chance of boy with the trait

25% girl with trait

25% girl carrying trait

0% chance normal girl

52
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Methotrexate is used:

To cause involution of early ectopic pregnancy and preserve fertility

53
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Pre-eclampsia is associated with:

1st tri - molar pregnancy

2nd/3rd - IUGR, oligo, aged placenta, fetal demise

3rd tri - IUGR

54
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The nuchal skin fold can be used to assess for:

Chromosomal abnormalities and neural tube defects

55
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Clinical findings for PID

Vaginitis, bleeding, discharge, pain, nausea, vomiting, dysuria, fever, leukocytosis , elevated CA-125

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US findings for PID

Enlarged uterus, echogenic endo, hydrosalpinx, pyosalpinx, adenxal fluid, hypervasularity of tubal walls

57
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Chorioangiomas are associated with:

Elevated MSAFP

58
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What is evaluated during triple screen blood test?

AFP, bHCG, estriol

59
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What offers the most accurate assessment for fetal age?

CRL (NOT gestational sac)

60
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A grade III placenta is abnormal in pregnancies less than ____

35 weeks

61
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A normal IUP should always be identified at bHC levels ___

>2000 TV

TA 4000/ 5500 should definitely see

62
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Gestational sac equation

mean GSD mm + 30

ex: 30×30×39 (30+30+39=99/3=33)

→ 33+30=63 days or 9 weeks

Accurate within 14 days

63
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When a patient undergoing ovarian hyperstimulation comes to record the mean follicle diameter, when should they come?

Mid to late follicular phase

64
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What will cause deceleration of the heart rate on a non-stress test?

Compression of the UC with fetal motion

65
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If a father has a dominant x-linked trait and the mother is normal, what is the chance that his son will have the same disorder?

0% chance for the son, 100% chance for daughter

66
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If a mother has a dominant x-linked trait and the father is normal, each child has a ___ chance of having the disorder

50%

67
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What is used to improve imaging of a fetus of an obese mother?

Place the patient in the modified sims position

68
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What will lead to an increase in levels of acetylcholinesterase or ACHE in the sample of amniotic fluid?

Spina bifida

69
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What will increase with dysgerminoma?

hCG, CA 125, LDH

70
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What question should be asked if a rhabdomyoma is noted?

Do you have a history of tuberous sclerosis?

71
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The vaginal cuff should not exceed ___ in a patient who has had a hysterectomy

2cm

72
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Endodermal sinus tumors have increased levels of:

AFP

73
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Small echogenic foci in the myometrium of a postmenopausal woman are usually caused by:

Diabetes

74
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Elevated estrogen is related to what ovarian mass?

Thecoma

75
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What is injected into the fetus during termination?

Potassium chloride

76
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Estrogen therapy causes an increased risk of:

Thrombosis

77
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Correct caliper placement for interocular measurement

inner edge to inner edge