Merrill's Ch 1 Self Test

1. ________ elevates the diaphragm and abdominal viscera, shortens the lung fields, depresses the sternum, and lowers the ribs and increases their angle near the spine.

a. Inspiration

b. Expiration

b. Expiration

2. ________ depresses the diaphragm and abdominal viscera, lengthens and expands the lung fields, elevates the sternum and pushes it anteriorly, and elevates the ribs.

a. Inspiration

b. Expiration

a. Inspiration

3. Which factors will minimize distortion?

a. CR-part alignment

b. Collimation

c. Milliampere-time (mAs)

d. SID

a. CR-part alignment

4. When imaging an obese patient, which landmarks are difficult to palpate? (Select all that apply)

a. Jugular notch

b. Anterior-superior iliac spine (ASIS)

c. Iliac crest

d. Greater trochanter

b. Anterior-superior iliac spine (ASIS)

c. Iliac crest

d. Greater trochanter

5. Based on the exterior dimensions of obese patients, larger IRs are needed to image these patients.

a. True

b. False

b. False

6. A PA projection radiograph of the hand should be displayed:

a. from the perspective of the x-ray tube and with the fingers pointing upward.

b. from the perspective of the x-ray tube and with the fingers pointing downward.

c. with the patient in the anatomic position and with the fingers pointing upward.

d. with the patient in the anatomic position and with the fingers pointing downward.

a. from the perspective of the x-ray tube and with the fingers pointing upward.

7. Who is responsible for obtaining a necessary clinical history when the radiologist is unable to see the patient?

a. Radiographer

b. Radiology nurse

c. Chief technologist

d. Department receptionist

a. Radiographer

8. To dispose of a hypodermic needle properly, it should be:

a. bent.

b. recapped.

c. broken to prevent its reuse.

d. placed in a puncture-proof container.

d. placed in a puncture-proof container.

9. Which of the following technical factors is most important to adjust and increase when imaging an obese patient?

a. mAs

b. kVp

c. Focal spot

d. Automatic exposure control (AEC)

b. kVp

10. Within the OR, who should remove sterile items that are in the way of the

radiographer?

a. Surgeon

b. Radiographer

c. Anesthesiologist

d. Circulating nurse

d. Circulating nurse

11. To prepare the patient for a radiographic examination of the abdomen, what are the three methods used for cleansing the patient's bowel?

a. Laxatives, enemas, and exercise

b. Limited diet, enemas, and exercise

c. Limited diet, laxatives, and enemas

d. Limited diet, laxatives, and exercise

c. Limited diet, laxatives, and enemas

12. Which type of muscle tissue produces peristalsis?

a. Cardiac

b. Striated

c. Smooth

c. Smooth

13. Which type of muscle tissue comprises skeletal muscle?

a. Cardiac

b. Striated

c. Smooth

b. Striated

14. Which pathologic condition requires a decrease in exposure factors from the routine procedure?

a. Edema

b. Pneumonia

c. Emphysema

d. Pleural effusion

c. Emphysema

15. Which change in exposure factors should be used to control voluntary motion that is a result of the patient's age or mental illness?

a. Increase the mA

b. Decrease the mA

c. Increase the exposure time

d. Decrease the exposure time

d. Decrease the exposure time

16. Which procedure best reduces the possibility of patient-controlled motion?

a. Increase the mA.

b. Increase the exposure time.

c. Give understandable instructions to the patient.

d. Use shorter SID.

c. Give understandable instructions to the patient.

17. Which side marker placement rule applies when performing an AP oblique radiograph of the cervical spine?

a. The R marker is typically used.

b. The L marker is typically used.

c. Always mark the side closest to the IR.

d. Always mark the side farthest from the IR.

c. Always mark the side closest to the IR.

18. Which piece of information is not required as part of the identification of radiographs?

a. Name of the patient

b. Date of the examination

c. Name of the radiographer

d. Name of the medical facility

c. Name of the radiographer

19. What is the primary purpose of collimating to the area of interest?

a. Lengthens the scale of contrast

b. Reduces the required mA

c. Reduces patient exposure

d. Compensates for an increase in OID

c. Reduces patient exposure

20. How is radiographic image quality affected when the radiation field is restricted to the area under examination only?

a. Increased image brightness

b. Increased radiographic contrast resolution

c. Reduced magnification

d. Decreased radiographic contrast resolution

b. Increased radiographic contrast resolution

21. Which would cause an artifact on a chest radiographic exam?

a. a bra

b. eyeglasses

c. hearing aids

d. denim jeans

a. a bra

22. Which change most improves spatial resolution when the sternum is imaged?

a. Increasing the OID

b. Decreasing the SID

c. Decreasing the source-to-object distance

d. Increasing the SID

d. Increasing the SID

23. The most common IR position is:

a. Crosswise

b. Diagonal

c. Parallel

d. Lengthwise

d. Lengthwise

24. Which computed radiography accessory houses the image storage phosphors that acquire the latent image?

a. Image reader

b. Control panel

c. Imaging plate

d. Video monitor

c. Imaging plate

25. What is the IR in direct digital radiography?

a. Phosphor imaging plate

b. Intensifying screen

c. Solid-state detector

d. Computer monitor

c. Solid-state detector

26. When using a fixed, large IR, how is collimation (field size) controlled?

a. Manually by the radiographer

b. Automatically by an automatic collimator

c. Electronically by shuttering

d. All of these control field size in direct digital imaging

a. Manually by the radiographer

27. Reasons to avoid using electronic side marker placement (annotation) in digital imaging include:

1. increased potential for errors in marking the correct side.

2. increased legal implications.

3. eliminating anatomy being obscured by the marker.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2, and 3

a. 1 and 2 only

28. The knowledge, skills, ability, and behaviors that are essential for providing optimal care to defined groups of patients is termed:

a. functional competence.

b. age-specific competence.

c. patient care competence.

d. chronologic competence.

b. age-specific competence.

29. When imaging obese patients, all of the following should be taken into consideration except for:

a. locating landmarks such as the jugular notch and pubic symphysis.

b. setting the collimator to the smallest dimensions.

c. selecting standard IR sizes and standard collimation settings for DR.

d. selecting larger IR sizes and larger collimation settings for DR.

d. selecting larger IR sizes and larger collimation settings for DR.

30. The approximate distance from the jugular notch to the pubic symphysis on a patient who is more than 6 feet (183 cm) tall is:

a. 15 inches (38 cm).

b. 21 inches (53 cm).

c. 22 inches (56 cm).

d. 24 inches (61 cm).

d. 24 inches (61 cm).

31. Maintain Radiography Practice Standards (which one?):

a. ASRT

b. ARRT

c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

a. ASRT

32. Maintain the Standard of Ethics (which one?):

a. ASRT

b. ARRT

c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

b. ARRT

33. Describe necessary education and certification (which one?):

a. ASRT

b. ARRT

c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

b. ARRT

34. Radiographer Scope of Practice can be found on their website (which one?):

a. ASRT

b. ARRT

c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

a. ASRT

35. Provides directives for infection control (which one?):

a. ASRT

b. ARRT

c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)