AP Psych midterm answer key

Answer Key

History and Approaches

Below are a set of scenarios and ideas that a psychologist from a particular perspective might use.  Choose the best perspective of the following:  

1. Identify and explain the significance of the following:

   1. Wilhelm Wundt: father of psychology

   2. Structuralism: TITCHENER analyze sensations, images, and feelings into their most basic elements

   3. Introspection: looking inward at one’s own mental processes

   4. Functionalism: underlying causes and practical consequences of certain behaviors and mental strategies – “stream of consciousness”

   5. Sigmund Freud: founder of psychoanalysis

2. When looking at why a person chooses to behave a particular way, I will examine how they think and process information.

   1. Psychodynamic

   2. Behavioral/Learning

   3. Cognitive

   4. Humanistic

   5. Biological

   6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

3. When looking at why a person chooses to behave a particular way, I will examine what happened in childhood and what kinds of issues the patient is fixated on.

   1. Psychodynamic

   2. Behavioral/Learning

   3. Cognitive

   4. Humanistic

   5. Biological

   6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

4. When looking at why a person chooses to behave a particular way, I will examine the brain chemistry and hormonal issues of the person.

   1. Psychodynamic

   2. Behavioral/Learning

   3. Cognitive

   4. Humanistic

   5. Biological

   6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

5. When looking at why a person chooses to behave a particular way, I will examine if the behavior helps the person reach his/her own potential.

   1. Psychodynamic

   2. Behavioral/Learning

   3. Cognitive

   4. Humanistic

   5. Biological

   6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

6. When looking at why a person chooses to behave a particular way, I will examine what consequences (pleasant or unpleasant) the person experienced.

   1. Psychodynamic

   2. Behavioral/Learning

   3. Cognitive

   4. Humanistic

   5. Biological

   6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

7. Examining how a person’s gender will affect their actions.

   1. Psychodynamic

   2. Behavioral/Learning

   3. Cognitive

   4. Humanistic

   5. Biological

   6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

8. The unconscious mind influences everything we do.

   1. Psychodynamic

   2. Behavioral/Learning

   3. Cognitive

   4. Humanistic

   5. Biological

   6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

9. How do people remember and forget?

   1. Psychodynamic

   2. Behavioral/Learning

   3. Cognitive

   4. Humanistic

   5. Biological

   6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

10. Depression is influenced by genetic predisposition and brain chemistry.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

11. Depression is influenced by how we perceive the work and how our thoughts can betray us.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

12. Depression is the result of not being able to express our anger toward those at whom we are angry, so we “swallow” it, leading to depression.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

13. Depression is the result of the depressive behavior being reinforced by important others in our lives.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

14. Depression is caused when an individual has a specific self-concept, but important others in our lives have different views of who we are and what we should be.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

15. When we watch important people in our lives being depressed, we imitate it.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

16. Recent research has found that being a part of any ethnic group changes the way our brains are wired. This has two answers.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

17. Examining the structures of the brains of schizophrenic twins and comparing them to their healthy twins.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

18. What makes people watch a commercial repeatedly, then go out and buy a product? There are multiple responses here.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

19. We are constantly trying to become who we are. Our lives are a process of growth.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

20. There seem to be a few things that motivate people: hunger, thirst, and sex. Examining the hormones of each uses this perspective.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological

21. Analyzing dreams is a part of this point of view.

    1. Psychodynamic

    2. Behavioral/Learning

    3. Cognitive

    4. Humanistic

    5. Biological

    6. Socio-cultural/social psychological
       

Research Methods

1. The four methods that describe behavior but cannot explain behavior:

   1. Case Study

   2. Naturalistic Observation

   3. Survey

   4. Correlation

2. This method is used to study subjects in their natural environment: Naturalistic Observation

3. Define—Case Study: detailed investigation into one or a few people

4. What are some of the dangers of using surveys? Question wording, sampling errors…

5. Which research method/analysis is most commonly used with surveys? correlation

6. What is the difference between validity and reliability? accuracy v. consistency

7. A positive correlation occurs when: both variables are directly related (both increase or decrease together)

8. A negative correlation occurs when: variables inversely related (one value increases and the other decreases)

9. The numerical indicator of strength of a relationship between two variables is known as: correlational coefficient

10. What would make a correlation strong? Correlational coefficient greater than +/- .5

11. The sign + or – in a correlation indicates what? Positive or negative correlation

12. How is an experiment different from the four descriptive methods mentioned above? Proves causation

13. What are the five steps to the Scientific Method?

    1. Ask a question.

    2. Construct a hypothesis

    3. Test your hypothesis by doing an experiment.

    4. Analyze your data and draw a conclusion

    5. Communicate your findings to others

14.  A specific description of the concepts involving the conditions of the scientific study is known as: operational definition

15. Define—Confounding variables: variables other than the independent that can affect the dependent variable.

16. What is the difference between the independent variable and dependent variable? Intendant variable is the factor being manipulated while the dependent variable is the measured effect of the independent variable

17. Who is part of the experimental group? Gets the IV

18. Who is a part of the control group? Does NOT get the IV, or perhaps a placebo

19. Why is random selection so important? Ensures that everyone has an equal chance of being selected for the survey because the participants are chosen at random, makes results representative
    

20. The use of a double-blind study limits: Avoids experimenter bias and expectancy effects

21. Define the following terms and describe how they are calculated:

    1. Mean: Mean – average of the scores – add them up and divide by total number of scores

    2. Median – middle score – when all scores are put numerically in order, the middle score

    3. Mode – the most frequently occurring score in the distribution

    4. Range – the lowest score subtracted from the higher score

    5. Standard Deviation – the average distance of scores around the mean

22. What does it mean if something is statistically significant? likelihood that the result occurred by chance

23. What is the difference between a positively skewed distribution and a negatively skewed distribution?

A positively skewed distribution the mean is greater than the mode or median and it has a longer tail to the right: A negatively skewed distribution the mean is less than the median and mode and it has a longer tail to the left:

Neurons

1.  Identify the type of neuron that…

1. Brings information to the brain SENSORY

2. Carries information from the brain to the muscles and glands MOTOR

3. Communicates information between neurons INTERNEURON

2. Most neurons in the human nervous system are INTERNEURONS

3. Identify the part of a neuron that…

   1. Processes nutrients and provides energy for the cell to function SOMA

   2. Covers axons MYELIN SHEATH

   3. Receives information from other neurons DENDRITES

   4. Carries information away from the cell body (long tube) AXON

   5. Is the location of the synaptic vesicles AXON TERMINAL BUTTONS

   6. Contains neurotransmitters SYNAPTIC VESICLES 

4. What is the tiny space between two neurons called? SYNAPSE

5. What part of the neuron increases the communication speed of a neuron? MYELIN SHEATH

6. What part of the neuron is linked to multiple sclerosis? MYELIN SHEATH

7. Using the numbers 1-4, identify the path that an impulse travels through a neuron. 

3 Axon 1 dendrites 4 axon terminals 2 soma

8. What cells provide structural support to neurons? GLIAL CELLS

9. Define action potential: A NEURAL IMPULSE; A BRIEF ELECTRICAL CHARGE THAT TRAVELS DOWN AN AXON. THE ACTION POTENTIAL IS GENERATED BY THE MOVEMENT OF POSITIVELY CHARGED ATOMS IN AND OUT OF CHANNELS IN THE AXON'S MEMBRANE.

10. Briefly describe how one neuron transmits an impulse to another neuron using the following terms correctly to describe the process of neural transmission: Axon, action potential, terminal branches of axon, neurotransmitter, synapse, receptor site, and dendrite.

Neurotransmitters

Identify the correct neurotransmitter to which each statement refers. 

1. Excessive levels have been linked to schizophrenia:  DOPAMINE

2. Low levels have been linked to Parkinson’s disease: DOPAMINE

3. Severe depletion of this neurotransmitter has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease:ACETYLCHOLINE

4. Reduce the perception of pain:ENDORPHINS

5. Abnormal levels are linked to depression:SEROTONIN 

6. Nerve gas kills by causing this neurotransmitter to build up in the synaptic gap:ACETYLCHOLINE

7. Involved in sleep::SEROTONIN 

8. Stimulate muscles to contract, including the heart and stomach muscles:ACETYLCHOLINE

9. Some antipsychotic drugs work by the activity of this neurotransmitter in the brain:DOPAMINE

10. Prozac increases the availability of this neurotransmitter in certain brain  regions:SEROTONIN 

11. The “runner’s high” associated with aerobic exercise has been attributed to this neurotransmitter: ENDORPHINS

12. Important in learning, memory and general intellectual functioning:ACETYLCHOLINE

13. Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that travel across the: SYNAPTIC GAP or SYNAPSE 

14. In what part of a neuron are neurotransmitters located? AXON TERMINAL BUTTONS

15. Prozac affects the availability of what neurotransmitter in the brain? SEROTONIN

16. Dr. Taylor discovers a chemical that is a very effective agonist for serotonin. Briefly explain how this chemical might affect human behavior, and identify the condition Dr. Taylor might treat with this chemical.

The Nervous Systems

1. List the 2 main divisions of the nervous system. CENTRAL AND PERIPHERAL 

2. List the 2 parts of the peripheral nervous system. AUTONOMIC AND SOMATIC

3. List the 2 parts of the autonomic nervous system. SYMPATHETIC AND PARASYMPATHETIC

4. What part of the autonomic nervous system is activated when a person is frightened? SYMPATHETIC

5. What part of the peripheral nervous system is involved in voluntary movements? SOMATIC

6. Give examples of the types of messages that travel through the following systems: somatic nervous system, sympathetic nervous system, parasympathetic nervous system, central nervous system. 

The Endocrine System

1. Describe what each of the following do:

   1. Endocrine system

   2. Hormones Chemical messengers of the endocrine system

   3. Pituitary gland  the body’s master gland 

   4. Adrenal gland this gland sits on top of your kidneys and releases norepinephrine

2. Which part of the brain controls the endocrine system? Hypothalamus

3. Why is the pituitary gland referred to as the body’s master gland?

Brain Imaging 

1. What does an electroencephalograph (EEG) measure? BRAIN WAVES

2. How has the production of lesions been useful in the advancing knowledge of the brain? Can remove harmed and unharmed areas to compare before/after

3. How does a CT scan examine the brain? X-ray of brain tissue

4. Explain how a PET scan measures brain activity. Radioactive material attaches to glucose and is tracked as it travels in the brain

5. What are some advantages of using a functional MRI (fMRI) instead of a PET scan to measure brain activity?  Less invasive, More detailed pictures

6. Which brain imaging technique would be used to measure the damage or size of a particular brain structure? PET

7. When George was reading a poem, researchers studied his brain activity by using a noninvasive procedure that tracked changes in his brain’s blood flow and blood oxygen levels.  Which brain imaging technique did the researchers use?  fMRI

8. Identify the method of studying the brain that each of the following refers to.  Write either EEG, PET or MRI

• PET Radioactive glucose is injected into the bloodstream

• EEG Used to identify different brain wave patterns while a person is sleeping

• MRI Requires a person to remain motionless in a long oblong chamber

9.   MRI or fMRI:

• MRI Identify Studies STRUCTURE of the brain

• fMRI Studies the FUNCTION of the brain

Brain Structures

1. What are the 4 lobes? FRONTAL, PARIETAL, TEMPORAL, OCCIPITAL 

2. List the two parts of the brain that are used to walk a straight line. MOTOR CORTEX AND CEREBELLUM 

3. List the 2 parts of the brain that are important to language. WERNICKE’S AREA AND BROCA’S AREA

4. List the 3 parts of the limbic system.HYPOTHALAMUS, AMYGDALA, HIPPOCAMPUS

5. What part of the brain processes sound? AUDITORY CORTEX

6. What part of the brain allows you to see the questions on this paper? VISUAL CORTEX

7. What part of the brain allows you to understand the words that you are reading? VISUAL CORTEX OR OCCIPITAL LOBE

8. What lobe is responsible for thinking of the answer to this question? PREFRONTAL CORTEX OR FRONTAL LOBE

9.  Which hemisphere controls left-hand touch? RIGHT

10. Which part of the brain allows you to feel a bug crawling on your arm? SOMATOSENSORY CORTEX OR PARIETAL LOBE

11. What part of the brain controls the endocrine system glands? HYPOTHALAMUS

12. What part of the brain is responsible for our ability to speak? BROCA’S AREA

13. Which hemisphere of the brain is more active are you are reading this question? LEFT

14. Which part of the brain is responsible for our level of consciousness? RETICULAR FORMATION

15. Which part of the brain is very important to a gymnast performing on a balance beam? CEREBELLUM AND, PONS 

16. Which hemisphere of the brain controls speech? LEFT

17. Which part of the brain creates new memories? HIPPOCAMPUS

18. Which hemisphere is most active while listening to music? RIGHT

Explain how each of the following parts of the brain are active while we drive a car?

Instructions: Three situations are described below. In each case, describe the parts of the brain activated in that situation.

1. Anne, the landscape artist, is standing at her easel, painting with her right hand as she looks out the window at her garden. She’s listening to classical music as she paints. Left hemisphere, visual cortex, auditory cortex, motor cortex, cerebellum, pons, etc. 

2. Crazy Eddie, the professional wrestler, is in the ring wrestling. The crowd is yelling and his opponent is taunting him. Eddie yells back at his opponent. The two of them are out of breath and sweating profusely. They continue their well-orchestrated series of wrestling moves. Motor cortex, cerebellum, pons, auditory cortex, hypothalamus, medulla, reticular formation, etc.

3. Jill is a student studying for a test. She is reading about violent behavior in males. She is snacking on popcorn and drinking soda. Wernicke's area, amygdala, hypothalamus, thalamus, frontal cortex, etc. 

Review Questions:

1. How would a cognitive neuroscientist explain the idea of “dual processing” in the context of a person deciding to swat a fly?  Students should discuss the decision to swat a fly in the context of dual-processing research. Specifically, they should refer to the finding that we have a two-track mind, and that it is likely that the unconscious level starts to move to swat the fly before the conscious level “decides” to move to swat the fly.

2. After a mild stroke, Mr. McGeorge showed some signs of aphasia. What pattern of symptoms would lead you to believe the damage occurred primarily in (a) Broca's area, (b) Wernicke's area, or (c) the angular gyrus? Students should describe symptoms that may indicate damage to Broca's area (such as inability to produce speech) or to Wernicke's area (such as the ability to speak but the inability to make meaningful speech) or the angular gyrus (such as the inability to read aloud). 

3. After suffering a head injury in an auto accident, Alyssa says that she remembers what her mother looks like, and she can accurately recall many of her mother's distinctive facial features. However, when she is shown pictures of her mother, Alyssa is unable to recognize who it is, even though she can see clearly. Use your understanding of the functioning brain to account for Alyssa's strange pattern of experience. Students should identify that the head injury may have caused brain damage in the right hemisphere, because research indicates that the ability to recognize the faces of others in pictures is located in the right hemisphere.

Split Brain Research

1. What part of the brain is cut in a split brain patient? CORPUS CALLOSUM 

2. Why is this surgery done? To reduce epileptic seizures

3. If a word is briefly flashed on the left side of a computer screen, can a split brain patient say what the word is?  Explain why or why not.  Identify three specific parts of the brain in your answer.  In a procedure, called Split Brain, the corpus callosum is cut to reduce epileptic seizures. If something was placed in a split brain patient’s left hand they cannot verbally identify what it is because the signal cannot transfer across the Corpus Callosum since it has been cut.  The capacity to speak and understand language if found in the Broca’s Area and Wernicke’s Area; both of which are only in the left hemisphere.  Therefore the person cannot say what the object is.

4. What hand of a blind folded split brain person does a familiar object have to be placed in so he/she can say what the object is?  Explain why.  RIGHT

5. If a picture of a comb is briefly flashed in the left visual field of a split brain patient, which hemisphere would process the word?  Right hemisphere

6. If a picture of a comb is briefly flashed in the left visual field f a split brain patient, she should be able to Use her left hand to draw a picture of the comb

7. A picture of a cat is briefly flashed in the left visual field and a picture of a mouse is briefly flashed in the right visual field of a split brain patient.  The individual will be able to use her left hand to indicate she saw a cat.

8. A picture of a cat is briefly flashed in the left visual field and a picture of a mouse is briefly flashed in the right visual field of a split brain patient.  The individual will be able to use her right hand to indicate she saw a mouse.

Evolutionary Psychology 

1. Briefly describe the genetic differences between identical and fraternal twins, and explain why behavior geneticists are interested in studying twins to investigate nature-nurture issues.

2. Explain how an evolutionary psychologist might explain why humans developed into omnivores, eating both meat and plants.

Sensation and Perception

1. What is the difference between absolute threshold and difference threshold? AT: MINIMUM NEEDED TO DETECT A STIMULUS 50% OF THE TIME; DT: MINIMUM AMOUNT NEEDED TO DETECT A CHANGE IN A STIMULUS 50% OF THE TIME

2. Weber’s law is relevant to an understanding of …   absolute thresholds OR difference thresholds

3. Although Mary was sitting right next to her parents, she smelled a skunk minutes before they did.                       Apparently, Mary has a lower ABSOLUTE THRESHOLD for skunk odor than her parents have. 

4. Jim’s bag of marbles is twice as heavy as Tom’s.  If it takes 5 extra marbles to make Tom’s bag feel heavier, this best illustrates: 

   1. Absolute threshold

   2. Difference threshold

   3. Weber’s law

5. If a person is presented with a series of pairs of light bulbs of different brightness and is asked whether the members of each pair differ in brightness, the person’s  DIFFERENCE THRESHOLD is being measured.

6. If the just noticeable difference of a 10-ounce weight is 1 ounce, the just noticeable difference for an 80-ounce weight would be 8 ounces. 

7. Jennifer can tune her guitar more effectively than Maria because Jennifer is better at detecting whether specific strings are playing too sharp or too flat.  With respect to tone sensitivity, Maria apparently has a ________ threshold than does Jennifer.  highlight your selection

   1. higher difference

   2. lower difference

   3. higher absolute 

   4. lower absolute

8. What is the opening in the eye called? PUPIL 

9. What is the clear covering over the opening in the center of the eye called? LENS

10. What is the function of the iris?  MUSCLE THAT CONTROLS THE SIZE OF THE PUPIL

11. What is the function of the lens? TO BEND LIGHT WAVES TO FOCUS ON THE FOVEA

12. In which part of the eye is light changed into a neural impulse? RETINA

13. Which part of the brain processes visual information? VISUAL CORTEX

14. In which part of the eye is the light sensitive cells (rods and cones) located? FOVEA/RETINA

15. What part of the eye is responsible for transduction? RETINA/GANGLION CELLS

16. What is the fovea? CENTER AREA OF THE RETINA, CONTAINS CONES

17. Identify the type of light sensitive cells (rods or cones) that each of the following statements describes.

•        RODS “sees” only black and white

•        CONES responsible for color vision

•        RODS about 100 million in each eye

•        RODS respond very well to low levels of light

18. According to the Trichromatic Theory, three variety of cones. What are they? RED, GREEN, BLUE

19. What is the most common type of color blindness? RED-GREEN

20. How does the Opponent-Process Theory differ from the Trichromatic Theory? TRI: THREE DIFFERENT COLORS OF CONES; OP: CONES FUNCTION IN AN EITHER/OR FORMAT

21. If a person stares at a piece of yellow construction paper for about one minute then looks at a blank piece of white paper, what color will he/she see? BLUE

22. What do we call a stimulus that is below the absolute threshold? SUBLIMINAL

23. What is sensory adaptation? DIMINISHED AWARENESS OF A STIMULI AFTER REPEATED EXPOSURE

24. The sense of hearing is known as: AUDITION

25. How is loudness determined and how is it measured? The height, or amplitude of the sound wave determines the Wave height, which is measured in decibels . 

26. The frequency of a sound wave determines the pitch (high or low) which describes a sound’s highness or lowness and is measured or expressed as hertz(the number of sound waves that reach the ear per second).

27. neural impulse 

28. What part of the ear amplifies the eardrum’s vibration? Three tiny ear bones – hammer, anvil, stirrup 

29. What part of the ear brings information from the ear to the brain? Auditory nerve 

30. What is the area within the cochlea of the ear which contains the hair cells? Basilar membrane 

31. Name the three bones in the middle ear: anvil, hammer, stirrup 

32. What is the name of the snail-shaped organ in the inner ear that converts sound waves to neural messages? Cochlea 

33. What part of the air is a tight membrane that vibrates when sound waves hit it? Ear drum

34. What part of the ear is responsible for transduction? Basilar membrane

35. What are the five basic taste categories and what is their function? Sweet – energy source; salty – essential for physiological survival; sour – potentially toxic acid; bitter – potentially poisonous; umami – proteins essential for tissue growth and repair 

36. What is the technical name for taste? Gustation 

37. What is the technical name for smell? Olfaction 

38. Which two areas of the brain receive the sense of smell?  Olfactory bulb, orbitofrontal cortex

39. Where does transduction occur for the sense of touch? Pacinian corpuscle You do not need to know this

40. What are the four basic skin sensations? Pressure, hot, cold, pain

41. What would each of the following sensations create?

1. Stroking adjacent pressure spots? Tickle 

2. Repeated gentle stroking of a pain spot? Itching 

3. Touching adjacent cold and pressure spots such as dry, cold metal.  Cold  

42. Explain what gate control theory suggests: Pain is determined by the operation of two types of nerve fibers in the spinal cord. One set of smaller nerve fibers carries pain from the body to the brain, whereas a second set of larger fibers is designed to stop or start the flow of pain

43. What is kinesis? Our sense of location and position of body parts in relationship to each other

44. Where are proprioceptors located? Sensory receptors in the muscles and glands 

45. Define—vestibular sense: sense of balance and equilibrium 

46. Identify the two sources of sensory information for the vestibular sense vestibular sacs and semicircular canals. Where are they located? inner ear  

47. Which one of the following would play a role in informing you that your phone is ringing?

A. rods and cones D. semicircular canals 

B. pacinian corpuscle E. olfactory receptors

C. proprioceptors F. basilar membrane

48. When trying to see in the dark, it is best to 

A. use your peripheral vision 

B. blink very rapidly before focusing on an object

C. try to utilize your cones

D. look at a bright light before focusing

49. Which one of the following would play a role in quickly alerting you to a gas leak in your home? 

A. rods and cones D. semicircular canals   

B. pacinian corpuscle E. olfactory receptors

C. proprioceptors F. basilar membrane

50. Which of the following play the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a thrilling roller coaster ride?                           

A. rods and cones D. semicircular canals

B. pacinian corpuscle E. olfactory receptors

C. proprioceptors F. basilar membrane

51. Which one of the following would play a role informing you that an unseen object hit you in the back?

A. rods and cones D. semicircular canals                              

B. pacinian corpuscle E. olfactory receptors

C. proprioceptors F. basilar membrane

52. With her eyes closed, Sandra can accurately touch her mouth, nose, and chin with her index finger.  Sandra’s accuracy illustrates the importance of

A. accommodation D. vestibular sense

B. olfactory receptors E. pacinian corpuscle

C. kinesthetic sense F. substance P

53. The retina is to the eye as the _______ is to the ear.

A. three ear bones

            B. eardrum                         

C. cochlea

            D. auditory nerve               

54. Hair cells are to audition as ______ are to vision.

          A. pupils                             

B. rods and cones

          C. corneas                           

D. irises

55. You have normal color vision.  You look at a sheet of paper that is colored yellow for about 30 seconds. Then you shift your gaze to a sheet of paper that is white.  In this paper, you perceive the color

A. yellow

B. green        

C. blue               

D. red

56. Explain what gestalt principles are:

57. When I am standing in front of the class talking and you are focused on me, MS. SIMCIK is the figure and THE WHITE BOARD is the ground.  However, when I begin to write on the white board and you are focused on that, THE WHITE BOARD becomes the figure, and MS. SIMCIK becomes the ground.

58. Identify the Gestalt principles that are used in the following examples:  (select the BEST option)  

figure ground similarity proximity closure continuation/continuity 

Similarity Closure

Continuation/Continuity

Proximity     Figure Ground

59. Which of the following were Gestalt psychologists most interested in?

1. Why we see a white afterimage after staring at a black figure

2. How a person with vision in only one eye can judge distance

3. How we organize objects into groups

4. Why we perceive something small as farther away

60. What is the difference between binocular and monocular depth perception cues? M = distance cues that use only one eye; B= distance cues that require the comparison of both eyes

61. What is a visual cliff? Experimental devices used to determine depth perception  

62. When do babies acquire depth perception? Approximately 6 months of age 

63. When do people develop depth perspective?

    1. At about age four when they start to develop perceptual set

    2. At birth in our early infancy

    3. When the visual cortex of the brain develops during early adolescence

    4. When they are capable of developing gestalts

64. As a car approaches you on a street, the size of the image cast on the retina grows larger.  You perceive the car as coming closer to you instead of growing larger due to:size constancy.

65. Perceiving an object as having the same shape even though the shape of its image on the retina keeps changing is:shape constancy.

66. Without size constancy, we would think objects become smaller the farther they are from us. 

67. Define perceptual set.a readiness to perceive something based on expectations and prior assumptions influence our  perceptual interpretations

68. Is perceptual set a form of top-down or bottom up processing? Explain.A perceptual set uses top-down processing. In top-down processing, perceptions begin with the most general and move toward the more specific. Such perceptions are heavily influenced by expectations (schemas/mental frameworks, concepts/prototypes) and prior knowledge. If we expect something to appear in a certain way, we are more likely to perceive it according to our expectations.

69. Which of the following is an example of a perceptual set?

    1. Seeing a violent image in a blurry photograph because your friend told you it was a photo of a big fight

    2. Seeing circles on a page in one group and triangle in another

    3. Seeing movement in a movie even though you know you’re watching a series of rapidly projected still images

    4. Seeing an airplane as high up in the sky because it appears to be tiny.

Identify the term that best describes:

70. Linear perspective Monocular depth cue; rail road tracks appear to merge in the distance.

71. Relative clarity  On a hazy day buildings appear farther away from us then on a sunny day, due to which monocular depth cue?

72. Interposition/overlay monocular depth cue; and object that blocks part of another object appears to be closer

73. Relative size monocular depth cue; the larger of two like objects is perceived to be closer

74. Shape constancy perceiving an object as having the same shape even though the shape of its image on the retina keeps changing

75. Monocular distance cues that work with one eye

76. Binocular distance cues that require the use of both eyes

77. Gestalt term that refers to our tendency to integrate pieces of information into meaningful wholes

78. Retinal disparity binocular depth cue resulting from the different image that each eye sends to the brain

79. Known standards In a drawing, if a person is larger than a car, we probably would perceive the person to be close due to which monocular depth perception cue.

80. Proximity Which Gestalt principle accounts for the fact that you are likely to perceive three people as belonging to one group if they are standing close to each other?

81. Closure Gestalt principle; the brain fills in gaps to make an unfinished form complete 

82. Continuity/Continuation Gestalt principle; there is a tendency to perceive a line as maintaining its established direction

83. Similarity most people see the following letters are three groups, one of three As, one of three Bs and one of three Cs. AAABBBCCC

84. Figure Ground & Proximity:  the two Gestalt principles that are used when we read.

If Jill carefully watches Edward as he runs directly toward her, she will experience a(n) ________ in retinal disparity and a(n) _______ in convergence.

1. increase; increase

2. decrease; decrease

3. increase; decrease

4. decrease; increase

The Gestalt principles of proximity and continuation refer to the ways in which we 

1. Adapt to perceptual changes

2. Activate meaningful perceptual sets

3. Decompose whole objects into sensory stimuli

4. Organize stimuli into coherent groups

The Gestalt principle of continuation refers to the perceptual tendency to

1. Group things that are near each other

2. Group stimuli into smooth, uninterrupted patterns

3. Fill in gaps so as to perceive a complete whole object

4. Group elements which are similar to each other

The tendency to complete letters on a neon sign, even though some of the bulbs are out, illustrates the principle of

1. Closure

2. Proximity

3. Figure ground

4. Similarity

5. Continuation 

Because the two teams wore different-colored uniforms, Cheryl perceived the ten basketball players are two distinct groups.  This best illustrate the principle of 

1. Closure

2. Proximity

3. Figure ground

4. Similarity

5. Continuation 

E.T. wanted to help the boy with the fake knife in his head because the principle of ________ made the knife appear to go through the boy’s head.

1. Closure

2. Proximity

3. Figure ground

4. Similarity

5. Continuation 

Which Gestalt principle accounts for the fact that you are likely to perceive three people as belonging to one group if they are standing close to one another?

1. Closure

2. Proximity

3. Figure ground

4. Similarity

5. Continuation 

Because the football game was interrupted by a long half-time break, 5-year old Mark mistakenly concluded that the second and third quarters of play were parts of two different games.  His experience best illustrated the principle of 

1. Closure

2. Proximity

3. Figure ground

4. Similarity

5. Common fate

6. Continuation 

As the $100 bill you just won blows away from you in the wind, you do not perceive it as being smaller.  Why?

1. Your eyes compensate by converging more and more to focus

2. Your lens is unable to change fast enough to notice the size change

3. You have size constancy

4. You are too busy crying

As the farmer looked across her field, the parallel rows of young corn plants appeared to converge in the distance.  This provided her with the distance cue known as

1. Relative size

2. Relative position

3. Relative clearness

4. Overlay

5. Linear perspective

6. Known standards

Joe notices that near the horizon the moon appears larger then when it is overhead in the sky.  The effect is mainly because of

1. Distance cues that make the horizon moon seem farther away

2. The retinal image of the horizon moon being larger than the retinal image of the overhead moon 

3. Distance cues that make the horizon moon seem nearer

4. Having to tilt your head upward when looking at the overhead moon

5. None of the above

States of Consciousness 

1. Identify the brain waves found in each stage of sleep (Alpha, Beta, Delta, Theta):

   1. Stage 1 ALPHA/THETA

   2. Stage 2 THETA

   3. Stage 3 DELTA

   4. REM BETA

2. Identify either the stage of sleep and/or the brain wave that each of the following is referring to:

   1. A narcoleptic sleep “attack” involves this stage REM

   2. About 25% of adult sleep time is spent in this stage REM

   3. Alpha and theta brain waves Stage 1

   4. Body is paralyzed REM

   5. Brain activity is the slowest Stage 3 OR DELTA Waves

   6. Brain waves of an awake person BETA

   7. Deep sleep Stage 3 OR DELTA Waves

   8. Delta brain waves Stage 3

   9. Dreaming REM

   10. Each night adults spend the most time in this stage Stage 2

   11. EEG is similar to that of someone who is awake REM

   12. Hypnogogic states Stage 1

   13. Infants spend the largest amount of time in this stage Stage 3

   14. Night terrors Stage 3 DELTA Waves

   15. Only about 5% of adult sleep time is spent in this stage Stage 1

   16. Pituitary gland secrete a growth hormone Stage 3 DELTA Waves

   17. Sleep spindles Stage 2

   18. Sleep-paralysis REM

   19. Sleepwalking Stage 3/4 DELTA Waves

   20. Stage of sleep does a person experience the LEAST Stage1

   21. Theta and delta waves Stage 3

   22. Theta brain waves Stage2

   23. We spend the least amount of time in this Stage 1

   24. We try to “catch up” when deprived of this type of sleep REM

   25. Stage of sleep does the person experience the MOST Stage 2

3. How often does the human sleep cycle repeats itself? (in minutes) 90 MINUTES 

4. How does a typical person cycle through the different stages of sleep in their first sleep cycle of their night? 1 🡪 2🡪3🡪2🡪REM🡪2🡪3🡪2🡪REM🡪2🡪3🡪2🡪REM🡪2🡪3🡪2🡪REM🡪2🡪REM🡪2

5. Describe how the sleep cycle changes from the beginning of their sleep to the end of their sleep.  When during the sleep cycle is a person likely to experience stage 4 sleep?                                             BEGINNING – MORE DEEP SLEEP, TOWARDS THE END, MORE REM SLEEP

6. When during the sleep cycle is a person likely to experience more REM sleep? LAST FEW HOURS

7. Margie has been asleep for 90 minutes.  As she continues to sleep, we can expect that DEEP sleep will diminish and that REM sleep will increase in duration.

8. Generally speaking, how long do REM sleep periods last? 15-25 MINUTES 

9. Why is REM sleep considered paradoxical? SAME BRAIN WAVES AS IF ONE IS AWAKE BUT THEY ARE IN A STATE OF UNCONSCIOUSNESS 

10. The rhythmic bursts of brain activity that occur during Stage 2 sleep are called SLEEP SPINDLES

11. What are hypnagogic sensations BRIEF HALLUCINATIONS, OCCUR DURING STAGE 1

12. Chronic sleep debt has many negative consequences. Identify as many as you can. MESSES UP CIRCADIAN RHYTHM, FATTER, HEART DISEASE, FATIGUE, IMPACTS MEMORY

13. What is REM rebound? WHEN ONE IS SLEEP DEPRIVED, THE NEXT TIME THEY FALL ASLEEP UNINTERRUPTED, THEY WILL EXPERIENCE AN INCREASE IN REM SLEEP

14. Define what a lucid dream is A DREAM IN WHICH YOU BECOME AWARE THAT YOU ARE DREAMING AND CAN CONTROL YOUR DREAM

15. Circadian rhythm refers to THE NATURAL BODILY RHYTHM THAT CONTROLS SLEEP/WAKE CYCLES

16. Deep sleep appears to play an important role in CELL RENEWAL AND GROWTH

17. What role does REM sleep have in memory? WE CONSOLIDATE MEMORIES DURING REM

18. Just as you are about to fall asleep, you have the sudden feeling of falling and your body gives an involuntary spasm.  You have experienced HYPNAGOGIC HALLUCINATION

19. Layla has difficulty going to sleep and staying asleep. Layla is most likely suffering from INSOMNIA

20. Obesity is a risk factor for developing which sleep disorder SLEEP APNEA

21. About three hours after he falls asleep, Bobby often sits up in bed screaming incoherently. His mother tries to awaken him, but with no success. His pulse races and he gasps for breath. The next morning, he remembers nothing. It appears that Bobby suffers from NIGHT TERRORS

22. Which sleep disorder is more common in children than adults? SLEEPWALKING / NIGHT TERRORS

23. Ruby has had a terrible evening.  Just as her boyfriend, Kato started to propose to her, he fell asleep. What sleep disorder does Kato likely have? NARCOLEPSY 

24. Mr. Dayton occasionally stops breathing while sleeping.  He wakes up to snort air for a few seconds before falling back asleep.  Mr. Dayton likely suffers from which disorder? SLEEP APNEA

25. Which stage of sleep is associated with narcolepsy? REM

26. What is hypnosis? What are the best uses for it? ALTERED STATE OF CONSCIOUSNESS 

27. Shane, a straight-A student, remembers dreaming that he failed an important chemistry test. According to Freud, Shane's account represents the MANIFEST content of his dream.

28. Josef, a high school student, tells his therapist that he has had a recurring dream in which he hunts and kills a ferocious tiger. The therapist explains that the dream reflects Josef's unresolved feelings of hostility toward his father. According to Freud, the therapist is revealing the possible LATENT content of Josef's dream.

29. Which theory suggests that dreams are mental responses to random bursts of neural stimulation? ACTIVATION SYNTHESIS THEORY 

30. According to Sigmund Freud, dreams are important because?                                                                FREUD STATED “DREAMS ARE THE ROYAL ROAD TO THE UNCONSCIOUS.” JUNG FELT THAT, “THE DREAM IS A LITTLE HIDDEN DOOR IN THE INNERMOST AND MOST SECRET RECESSES OF THE PSYCHE.” 

31. Define:

    1. Tolerance DIMINISHING EFFECT WITH REGULAR EXPOSURE TO A DRUG, TAKES A LARGER DOSE TO EXPERIENCE THE DRUG’S EFFECT

    2. Dependence PSYCHOLOGICAL OR PHYSICAL NEED FOR A DRUG / UNPLEASANT WITHDRAWAL SYMPTOMS WITH DRUG IS DISCONTINUED 

    3. Withdrawal PAINFUL OR DISTRESSING SYSTEMS WHEN A DRUG IS DISCONTINUED

    4. Addiction COMPULSIVE DRUG CRAVING, PHYSICAL OR PSYCHOLOGICAL DEPENDENCE 

32. What are the effects of the following drugs on brain activity?

    1. Depressants DECREASES BRAIN ACTIVITY

    2. Stimulants INCREASES BRAIN ACTIVITY 

    3. Hallucinogens ALTER BRAIN ACTIVITY 

33. What type of psychoactive drug is each of the following (depressant, stimulant, hallucinogen):

    1. Alcohol DEPRESSANT

    2. Heroin DEPRESSANT

    3. Caffeine STIMULANT 

    4. Methamphetamine STIMULANT 

    5. Cocaine STIMULANT 

    6. Nicotine STIMULANT 

    7. Ecstasy (MDMA) STIMULANT, MILD HALLUCINOGEN

    8. Marijuana    MILD HALLUCINOGEN

34. Which neurotransmitter(s) do the following drugs affect?

    1. Alcohol GLUTAMATE, GABA, DOPAMINE

    2. Heroin DOPAMINE

    3. Caffeine DELAYS DOPAMINE REABSORPTION AND BLOCKS ADENOSINE MAKES US TIRED

    4. Methamphetamine DOPAMINE

    5. Cocaine DOPAMINE, SEROTONIN. NOREPINEPHRINE

    6. Nicotine ACETYLCHOLINE, DOPAMINE

    7. Ecstasy (MDMA) SEROTONIN

    8. Marijuana THC activates specific receptors, known as cannabinoid Endogenous cannabinoids (anandamide)

Learning and Conditioning 

Identify the psychologist(s) that is/are most famous for the research in each of the following types of learning.

operant conditioning: B.F. Skinner                                              

social learning: Albert Bandura 

classical conditioning: Ivan Pavlov, John B. Watson 

Directions: Decide if each of the following refers to 

classical conditioning (C) operant conditioning (O) or social learning (S)

1. A certain song makes Amy cry.

2. A senior can be exempt from the final exam if he/she earns an average of 90 or better for the course.

3. A stimulus elicits a response.

4. After the bad car accident we had last year, I cringe and break into a sweat at the sound of    squealing brakes. 

5. Bob tightens the faucet so the water will stop dripping.

6. Brian receives an award at the end of the school year for perfect attendance.

7. Cindy argues with the teacher until the teacher agrees to give her the extra points on  the test.

8. Donald’s mother gave him $25 for bringing home a good report card.

9. Every time I buy a lottery ticket, all that happens is I lose money, so I stopped.

10. Every time Jim drives into Lou’s parking lot, his mouth waters because he knows he will eat soon.

11. Four year old James starts swearing because he often hears his father swearing.

12. In a weight management class, participants earn points for every healthy meal they eat and every period of exercise they complete. Later these points result in refunds of their class fees. 

13. Ivan Pavlov is known for his research on this type of conditioning.

14. Jake tries imitating a wrestling move that he saw on Monday Nite Nitro.

15. Jim eats at Lou’s Pizza for the first time.  Since he enjoys the food, he returns there every Friday for dinner.

16. Joan is afraid whenever she hears the phone ringing because she has received many obscene phone calls in the past.

17. Joan leaves school during activity period because other kids in her homeroom have been cutting during activity period all year.

18. Joe mows laws to earn money

19. John is suspended for leaving school during activity period.

20. John Watson conducted an experiment with a boy named Albert in which he paired a white rat with a loud, startling noise.  Albert now becomes startled at the sight of the white rat.

21. Joyce was in a car accident a few weeks ago.  Whenever she sees the street corner where the accident occurred she gets very nervous.

22. Lois’s heart rate accelerates when she is paged to the office at the end of first period.

23. schedules of reinforcement

24. The main reason that Jim eats at Lou’s Pizza is because all of his friends eat there.

25. The smell of fresh bread baking makes my mouth water. 

26. Tom begs until his mother lets him stay up past his bedtime.

27. Tom gets a detention for cutting class.

28. We learn because of the consequences of our behaviors.

29. What type of conditioning is the process of desensitization based on?

30. You eat a new food and then get sick because of the flu. However, you develop a dislike for the food and feel nauseated whenever you smell it.

31. Your hands are cold so you put your gloves on.  In the future, you are more likely to put gloves on when it’s cold

Thirteen-year-old Diane was riding her bike home one day after school while listening to her favorite Nine Inch Nails song on her headphones.  She was thinking about what to wear to a party that night and paid more attention to the song than to the traffic around her.  As she glided through a red light at a busy intersection, her preoccupation was suddenly interrupted by the sounds of a car screeching to a halt and blaring its horn.  Diane swerved around the car, narrowly avoiding a collision.  As she walked her bike home, Diane’s entire body trembled with fear--she thought she might vomit. Later at the party when Diane heard the same Nine Inch Nails song playing, she turned pale and felt sick.

1. What is the unconditioned stimulus (UCS)? Almost  being in an accident

2. What is the unconditioned response (UCR)? Fear and feeling sick

3. What is the conditioned stimulus (CS)? Hearing that NIN song

4. What is the conditioned response (CR)? Fear and feeling sick

5. What type of conditioning is this an example of? Classical 

6. Using this conditioning situation, make up an example of generalization and discrimination. 

GEN: ANY NIN song DIS: ONLY that NIN song

7. Explain how you would extinguish the conditioned response.

Play that NIN song repeatedly until she no longer turns pale and experience fear.

Lucky the cat sits on her owner each morning at 4:30 and meows until she is fed.  The owner gets up, feeds the cat and then returns to bed.  

Whose behavior is being positively reinforced? Lucky the Cat

What behavior is positively reinforced? Meowing 

What is the positive reinforcement? Getting fed 

Whose behavior is negatively reinforced? Owner 

What behavior is negatively reinforced? Feeding lucky

What is the negative reinforcement? Meowing stops, gets to go back to bed

What type of conditioning is this situation an example of? Operant 

Operant Conditioning Examples For each example below, decide whether the situation describes positive reinforcement (PR), negative reinforcement (NR), positive punishment (PP), or negative punishment (NP). 

PR 1. Johnny puts his quarter in the vending machine and gets a piece of candy.

NR 2. I put on sunscreen to avoid a sunburn. 

PP 3. You stick your hand in a flame and you get a painful burn. 

NP 4. Bobby fights with his sister and does not get to watch TV that night. 

PP 5. A child misbehaves and gets a spanking. 

NP 6. You come to work late regularly and you get demoted. 

NR 7. You take an aspirin to eliminate a headache.

NR 8. You walk the dog to avoid having dog poop in the house. 

PR 9. Nathan tells a good joke and his friends all laugh. 

PP 10. You climb on a railing of a balcony and fall. 

NP 11. Julie stays out past her curfew and now does not get to use the car for a week.

PR 12. Robert goes to work every day and gets a paycheck. 

NR 13. Sue wears a bike helmet to avoid a head injury. 

PP 14. Tim thinks he is sneaky and tries to text in class. He is caught and given a long, boring book to read. 

NP 15. Emma smokes in school and gets hall privileges taken away.

PP 16. Sawa falls asleep under the sun, and gets a sunburn. 

PP 17. A rat presses a lever and gets a shock. 

NR 18. Joe puts on deodorant to avoid having body odor. 

PR 19. Marco studies a lot and gets a good grade. 

NR 20. The squirrel runs up a tree to escape a predator. 

Which Schedule of Reinforcement?

Fixed-Ratio (FR) Variable-Ratio (VR) Fixed-Interval (FI) Variable-Interval (VI)

1. A clerk is paid $1 for every 25 correct accounting entries made on the computer.

2. a dolphin is given a fish, in the average, for every fifth jump it makes

3. a factory worker must produce three items in order to be paid

4. a gambler is playing a slot machine in Foxwoods casino

5. a person is expecting a very important phone call but doesn’t know exactly when the call will come

6. A person repeatedly dials a busy phone number (getting through is the reinforcer)

7. a rat is reinforced with a food pellet the first time it presses the bar after every two minute time period

8. A salesperson receives a bonus for every fourth set of encyclopedias sold.

9. At the beginning of the new term, your teacher announces that there will be six surprise quizzes during the semester.

10. betting at the race track

11. birthday presents 

12. Christmas presents

13. every once in a while your boss tells you that you’re doing a good job

14. farm worker earns $5 for each bag of corn he picks

15. Judy’s boyfriend calls her once a day but at different times

16. Mike loves to play the slot machines, and, occasionally, he wins.

17. On the average, the campus shuttle bus passes the library about once every hour.

18. Sue works 40 hours a week in an office and gets paid every Friday afternoon.

19. surprise quizzes in your psychology class; the number of days between quizzes always changes

20. the radio station gives away 2 free concert tickets every hour, but at different times

21. the teacher gives the class a test every three weeks.

22. Which schedule of reinforcement produces the fastest, steadiest response rate?

23. Which schedule of reinforcement produces the most inconsistent response rate? (The worker doesn’t work at a steady, consistent rate.)

24. worker is paid every other Friday

25. your parents give you an allowance once a week

Directions:  Circle the letter that represents the correct answer.

1. In Pavlov’s classical conditioning experiment in which a bell was rung just prior to presenting meat to a  dog, the bell is the 

       A.  UCS                          C.  CS

       B.  UCR                          D . CR

2. After he had been conditioned to fear a white rat, Little Albert cried when shown a mask of Santa Claus. This is an example of

       A. extinction                    C. generalization

       B. discrimination             D. spontaneous recovery

3. A raised hand was paired with a loud noise, producing a jump in a subject.  During extinction the jumping  disappeared, but after a rest, the jumping reappeared due to

        A. generalization             C. spontaneous recovery

        B. discrimination             D. extinction

4. A factory worker must produce three items in order to be paid.  What type of reinforcement schedule is she on?

        A. fixed interval              C. fixed ratio

        B. variable interval          D. variable ratio

5. Unannounced quizzes in a class is an example of what schedule of reinforcement?

        A. fixed interval              C. fixed ratio

         B. variable interval         D. variable ratio

6. Sam is gambling at a slot machine in Atlantic City.  His behavior is reinforced through what schedule of       reinforcement?

          A. fixed interval             C. fixed ratio

          B. variable interval         D. variable ratio

7. Sally’s teacher yells at her every time she disrupts the class.  If after being yelled at, Sally’s disruptions      increase, the yelling is considered to be 

          A. positive reinforcement

          B. negative reinforcement

          C. punishment

8. Running away from someone who is yelling at you is an example of

          A. positive reinforcement

          B. negative reinforcement

          C. punishment

9. B.F.  Skinner is best known for his research in the area of

          A. classical conditioning

          B. operant conditioning

10. You would be most likely to use operant conditioning to teach a dog to 

          A. fear cars in the street

          B. dislike the taste of dead birds

          C. wag its tail whenever it is emotionally excited

          D. retrieve sticks and balls

11. Which one of the following is the best example of a primary reinforcer?

A. applause for an excellent trumpet solo

B. a grade of “A” for an excellent essay

C. five dollars for washing the car

D. a cold soda for mowing the lawn on a hot day

12. Because Andrew was spanked on several occasions for biting electric cords, he no longer does so.  Andrew learned by 

A. positive reinforcement

B. negative reinforcement

            C. punishment

13. Julie drinks alcohol in the early evening because it relieves her anxiety.  Julie’s drinking behavior is being

            A. positively reinforced

B. negatively reinforced

C. punished

Memory and Cognition

1. How many items can a person typically hold in his/her short-term memory? 7 +/- 2

2. How long does unrehearsed information last in short-term memory? 20

Decide if each of the following is an example of recall, recognition or relearning:

3. Recognition A witness looks at pictures and identifies the bank robber

4. Relearning Repeating a failed course and finding that it is easier to learn the information a second time

5. Recall Remembering the date of your mother’s birthday

6. Recognition Seeing a man in the newspaper and remembering it as one of your elementary school classmates

7. Recall a person can recite his/her social security number

Decide if each of the following is an example of proactive or retroactive interference:

8. Retro You look up a telephone number and as you are picking up the phone, the radio announcer gives another number which causes you to forget the first number.

9. Pro Dialing your ex-girlfriend’s phone number while calling your current girlfriend.

10. RetroWhen given an FRQ with terms from previous units, it is difficult to remember them.

11. Pro You move to a new apartment and often find yourself looking in “old” places for many items.

12. RetroAfter studying biology all afternoon, Alan is having difficulty remembering details of the chemistry lecture he heard this morning. 

13. RetroSuppose you memorize a list of the major rivers in Africa; two days later you memorize a list of the major rivers in Asia.  You will tend to forget the African rivers because of this type of interference.

Decide if each of the following refers to implicit or explicit memory.

14. Explicit Is often called declarative memory

15.  Explicit  Episodic and semantic memory

16. Implicit Information or knowledge that affects behavior or task performance but cannot be consciously recollected

17. Explicit These memories are processed in the hippocampus

18. Implicit These memories are process in the cerebellum 

19. Explicit Information or general facts, or personally experienced events

20. Explicit Processes operant conditioning

21. Implicit Processes classical conditioning

Identify the correct term for each answer:

22. Alice and her boyfriend just made up after a big argument in which she was contemplating breaking up with him. She is really happy now and can’t remember why she was fighting with him in the first place. Alice is experiencing: Rosy Retrospection

23. Alice is fighting with her boyfriend and while arguing, remembers all the other fights she has had with him in the past. These are easier to remember due to: Mood congruent Memory

24. Brief memory that holds information for about a second is called:Sensory 

25. Continuing to practice something once it has been learned is called:Overlearning

26. If you drink coffee while studying for a test, it is a good idea to have a cup of coffee before taking the test.  Your memory will slightly improve due to:State dependent Memory 

27. If you go to a party and meet a group of people named Joan, Dave, Tom, Judy, Fish and Lisa, you’re more likely to remember the name “Fish” because of the:Isolation Effect/ Von Restorff Effect

28. It is difficult to remember items located in the middle of the list due to the:Serial Position Effect

29. It takes less time when learning information for a second time:Relearning

30. Our “permanent” memory system is called:Long-Term

31. Our sensory memory for visual information is called:Iconic

32. Our very brief memory for sounds is called:Echoic/Acoustic 

33. Sue has a detailed memory of John asking her to marry him even though it happened over ten years ago. What type of long-term is this an example of? Flashbulb 

34. Super Man Helps Every One is a statement that is often used to help students remember the location and names of the Great Lakes.  This is an example of a:Mnemonic Device

35. What do we call our active memory that can only hold a limited amount of information? Short Term

36. What is a photographic memory called? Eidetic Imagery

37. What is it called when we combine information in order to keep more information in our short-term memory? Chunking

38. What method of testing a person’s memory is used when a witness to a crime gives a statement to the police? Recall

39. What method of testing a person’s memory is used when an individual is asked to identify a criminal in a police line-up? Recognition

40. What type of long-term memory contains your recollections of 9th grade? Episodic 

41. What type of memory contains the fact that there are seven days in a week? Semantic 

42. What type of memory enables us to recall how to make a paper airplane? Procedural 

43. When studying for the AP Psychology exam you study in Mrs. Simcik’s room but are assigned to take the test in Ellsworth’s gymnasium. You find it more difficult to remember some information and you know you would have done better if you had been able to take it in Mrs. Simcik’s classroom because of this type of memory: State dependent Memory 
    

44. When Marcy is asked what object comes to mind in response to the word furniture, she immediately says a chair.  For Marcy, chair is a: Prototype 

45. Not realizing that a dime can serve as a screwdriver is an example of: Functional fixedness 

46. You are asked how many windows you have in your home.  To answer this question, you probably rely on a(n): Mental Imagery 

47. In question 46, the word home is used to describe the place where you usually sleep, eat, and keep your belongings.  Home is an example of a: Concept 

48. Suppose you are asked to arrange the following letters into a word:  B A Z E R.  You repeatedly try to         solve the problem by starting the word with an R, although this response will not produce the correct answer.  Your inability to solve this problem because of a: Mental Set 

49. As you try to spell the word deceive, you recite I before E except after C. This is a:Heuristic 

50. One by one, Professor Goldstein tries each key on the key chain until she finds the one that opens the locked filing cabinet. The Professor is using: Algorithm (trial and error) 

51. Laura is trying to construct a house out of Lego building blocks.  She randomly tries blocks of different shapes until she finds one that fits. Laura is using: Heuristic 

52. You are asked to complete the following sequence: J, F, M, A, M. You suddenly realize that the answer is obvious: J, J, A, S, O. This is: Insight 

53. Jack, who works as a bank teller, is stunned when a well-dressed, elderly woman pulls out a gun and tells him to hand over all the money in his cash drawer. He was stunned because of his: Representativeness Heuristic 

54. After seeing news reports about a teenager being killed in a freak accident on a roller coaster, Angela refuses to allow her son to go to an amusement park with his friends. This is because of her:Availability heuristic

55. Jerry recently saw a TV special in which most of the psychologists interviewed were middle-aged males.  When he took his first psychology class, he was surprised to find that his professor was a young female rather than an older bearded male.  Jerome’s surprise is probably due to his use of: Representative heuristic 

56. Prototype is to category as ________ is to ________.

A. rose;   flower                 C. man;   woman

B. rock;   mountain             D. rope;   weapon

57. The use of heuristics rather than algorithms is most likely to

1. save time in arriving at solutions to problems

2. yield more accurate solutions to problems

Language 

58. ““Me go to school.” Is an example of this type of grammar error? Syntax

59. ch, a, t are examples of this part of language: Phonemes

60. ed, pre, ing are examples of this part of language: Morphemes 

61. smallest distinctive sound unit: Phonemes

62. the rules for combining words into sensible sentences: Syntax 

63. the rules of language that allow us to understand each other: Grammar

64. the set of rules by which we derive meaning from language Semantics

65. the smallest unit that carries meaning: Morphemes 

66. Your book identifies four stages of language development. List them in order and indicate the age in which they typically occur:

• 0-4 months  - Receptive language: associating sounds with facial movements, and recognizing when sounds are broken into words

• 4 months  -  Productive language: babbling in multilingual sounds and gestures

• 10 months - Babbling sounds more like the parents’/household’s language

• 12 months - One-word stage: understanding and beginning to say many nouns

• 18-24 months - Two-word, “telegraphic”/tweet speech: adding verbs, and making sentences but missing words (“See bird! Ree book? Go park!”) 

• 2+ years   - Speaking full sentences and understanding complex sentences

67. Chomsky’s language acquisition device and universal grammar

Noam Chomsky, linguist and a professor at MIT, put forth an idea called the language acquisition device or LAD, for short. The LAD is a hypothetical concept that the brain is hardwired to help children rapidly learn and understand language. Chomsky used it to explain just how amazingly children are able to acquire language abilities as well as accounting for the innate understanding of grammar and syntax all children possess. Chomsky developed the LAD in the 1950s, and since then, has moved on to a greater theory called universal grammar (or UG) to account for the rapid language development in humans.  LAD later evolved into the UG theory. Both focus on the concept that language seems to be prewired and innate for humans.

68. Explain what is meant by the critical period for language and identify when it is. 

The critical period hypothesis (CPH) states that the first few years of life constitute the time during which language develops readily and after which (sometime between age 5 and puberty) language acquisition is much more difficult and ultimately less successful

69. Explain linguistic determinism and describe an example. 

Linguistic determinism is also known as the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis that language determines the way we think (he postulates that human language limits and determines human thought patterns and knowledge). For example, no two languages describe or conceptualize the world in exactly the same way. Each language possesses a hidden history of the culture and place in which it originated and those elements do not precisely translate into another language or mindset, only an approximation. An example of this is that the Eskimo language, because of the frozen environment where it originated, has many different words for snow that describes whether it is wet, dry, blowing, heavy, and light, etc. while in English we have only one word for it. Another example, studies have shown that people find it easier to recognize and remember shades of colors for which they have a specific name. Consider the colors below. Different languages may vary in where they put the separation between “blue” and “green,” or they may not have separate words for these colors. Which squares are green? teal? blue?

Testing and Individual Differences

1. General Intelligence (g)  general intelligence factor according to Spearman, underlies specific mental abilities and is therefore measured by every task on an intelligence test

2. Factor analysis  a statistical procedure that identifies clusters on related items on a test 

3. What are the eight intelligences that Gardner identified? Logical-Mathematical, Linguistic, Musical, Spatial, body-kinesthetic, intrapersonal (self), interpersonal (others), and naturalist

4. What are the three types of intelligence Sternberg identified: analytical, creative, and practical

5. Emotional intelligence  the ability to perceive, understand, manage and use emotions

6. Binet   person who published first useful test of general mental ability; broke kids up into ‘bright’ and ‘dull’ by how they compared with both their chronological age and mental age 

7. What intelligence test is Terman known for? Americanized Binet’s test, Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test

8. Wechsler – WAIS – study personal strengths and weaknesses in 11 different subjects 

9. What was Lewis Terman’s formula for finding the intelligence quotient, or IQ?  IQ formula – Mental age/Chronological age x 100 

10. Explain two advantages of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale over the Stanford-Binet.  WAIS – study personal strengths and weaknesses in 11 different subject, versons for illiterate test takers

11. Because intelligence tests have a normal distribution (highlight your selection)

    1. They have about the same number of people scoring low, medium, and high

    2. They have very few extremely low and extremely high scores

    3. They have more low scores than high scores

    4. They have few scores in the middle range

12. What is the average IQ Score? (HINT: don’t give a range of scores) 100

13. According to the bell-shaped normal curve, 95% of the population has IQs in what range? 2 standard deviations above (130) and below (70) the norm (of 100)

14. What is the Flynn Effect? Why do researchers think it is happening? The average person’s intelligence has increased over time…better nutrition, better education, etc. 

15. What is the difference between an achievement test and an aptitude test? Achievement Test – designed to determine what an individual has learned; Aptitude Test – designed to predict one’s capacity to learn in the future 

16. What does it mean if a test has reliability? Consistency. If a test yields consistent results upon retesting, it is considered reliable. 

17. What does it mean if a test demonstrates validity? Accuracy. If a test actually tests what it intends to test is considered valid. 

18. What is the difference between content validity and predictive validity? Content validity - does the test/instrument measure what it is supposed to? Predictive validity - assessing how well a test predicts future performance 

19. Your psychology teacher has announced that the next test will assess your understanding of sensation and perception.  When you receive the test however, you find that very few questions actually related to these topics.  In this instance, you would be most concerned about the validity  of the test.

20. A measure of intelligence based on shoe size of adults is likely to have a high level of reliability [because it would be consistent] and a low  level of validity.  [because it is not testing what it intended to measure]

21. What is the difference between divergent thinking and convergent thinking? Divergent thinking – test has multiple possible answers (words that begin with s); Convergent thinking – test only has one correct answer (2+2=?) 

22. Temperament a person’s characteristic emotional reactivity and intensity 

23. Heritability  the proportion of variation among individual that can attribute to genes 

24. Intelligence appears to be polygenic. What does this mean?

25. What impact does early educational influences have on intelligence development? 

26. Culture  the enduring behaviors, ideas, values, attitudes, and traditions shared by a group 

27. Norm  an understood rule for accepted and expected behavior 

28. Individualism – giving priority to one’s own goals over group goals and defining one’s identity in terms of personal attributes rather than group identification 

29. Collectivism – giving priority to the goals of one’s goals and defining personal id as so Spearman – proposed that general intelligence is linked to many clusters that can be analyzed by factor analysis (he made up factor analysis) 

Motivation and Emotion

Identify the terms: Please write the answer where the line is….you can eliminate the line when you type your response. 

1. Drive Reduction Theory physiological need creates an aroused tension states (drive) that motivates an organism to satisfy that 

2. Instinct Theory: Human (and animal) behaviors are innate and due to evolutionary programming (patterned behavior that is unlearned)

3. Incentive theory: behavior is motivated by the pull of external goals such as rewards

4. Intrinsic motivation  desire to perform behavior for own sake 

5. Extrinsic motivation desire to perform behavior for reward at end 

6. Arousal Theory/ Yerkes-Dodson Law  motivated to maintain an optimum level of arousal  - a person seeks excitement if level is too low - One’s optimal level of arousal depends on the individual and the task 

7. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs Maslow’s theory that we are motivated by:  (1) physiological needs (food, water) 🡪 (2) safety needs (security, shelter) 🡪 (3) belongingness needs (friends, family, community) 🡪 (4) esteem needs (achievement, flattery for mastery) 🡪self-actualization!!!! 

8. Self-Actualization    the motivation to achieve one’s full potential 

9. Homeostasis   a tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state; the regulation of any aspects of body chemistry 

10. Set Point  one’s weight thermostat

11. Basal Metabolic Rate   resting rate of energy expenditure

12. Lateral hypothalamus       when stimulated, this part of the hypothalamus causes animals to eat

13. Ventromedial hypothalamus  when stimulated this part of the hypothalamus causes animals to stop eating (depresses hunger)  

14. Insulin   is secreted by the pancreas, controls blood glucose

15. Leptin   is secreted by fat cells, causes brain to increase metabolism and decrease hunger

16. Orexin hunger-triggering hormone, secreted by the hypothalamus

17. Ghrelin  secreted by the empty stomach, sends the “I’m hungry” signal to the brain

18. PYY Digestive tract hormone that suppresses appetite

19. Obestatin   secreted by the stomach, sends the “I’m full” signal to the brain

20. Anorexia eating disorder, not eating food at all (staving) 

21. Bulimia eating disorder, eating a large amount of food and then purging 

22. Binge-Eating disorder  eating disorder, binging episodes without purging

23. Obesity BMI of 30 or more – overeating and gaining excessive amount of weight 

24. Sexual response cycle Sexual response cycle: (1) excitement 🡪 (2)plateau🡪 (3)orgasm🡪 (4)resolution 

25. Refractory Period     the resting period after an orgasm in which one cannot be achieved 

26. Estrogen      sex hormones – women have more than men – peaks during ovulation

27. Testosterone  sex hormones – men have more than women 

28. Ostracism   exclusion from a society or group

29. James-Lange Theory   experience of emotion is our awareness of our physiological response to emotionally arousing stimuli (stimuli then response then emote) 

30. Cannon-Bard Theory     emotionally arousing stimuli simultaneously trigger both a physiological response and emotion (stimuli then response and emote) 

31. Schacter & Singer's 2 Factor Theory    emotion must be physically aroused and cognitively labeled before emotion (stimuli then response and label then emote) 

32. Facial Feedback effect of facial expressions on experienced emotion

33. Catharsis   an emotional release

34. Adaptation-Level Phenomenon tendency to form judgments relative to a neutral level defined by our prior experience

35. Relative Deprivation perception that we are worse off relative to those with whom we compare ourselves

36. Stress  the process by which we respond to certain events that we appraise as threatening or challenging 

37. General Adaptation Syndrome  Made by Hans Selye responses to stress. The three stages are (1)alarm 🡪 (2) resistance🡪 (3)exhaustion (very vulnerable to disease) 

38. Lymphocytes   STRESS hormones suppresses lymphocytes 

39. Psychoneuroimmunology  studies how psychology, neural and endocrine processes affect the immune system