Final exam ap government

1. Which of the following was in the Articles of Confederation?

a) The Legislature could regulate interstate commerce

b) An Executive that could deploy the army

c) State/local governmental entities held more power than the central government

d) The Legislature could directly tax the population

e) Constitutional Amendments required the approval of 75% of the states

The correct answer is C. The national government had very few powers under the Articles of confederation. Answers A, B, and D are powers that were NOT

given to a national government until the Constitution. E is incorrect because under the articles an amendment required the vote of all states.

2. A marginal district is one in which

a) there is no incumbent

b) the district is drawn with a larger population than most districts

c) there is no ethnicity that is in the majority

d) the district is drawn with a smaller population than most districts

e) the winner of an election gets less than 55% of the vote

The correct answer is E. By definition, a marginal district is a district where the winner in the election gets less than 55% of the vote. A safe district is one where

the winner gets more than 60% of the vote.

3. As a result of Roe v. Wade, a woman has a right to an abortion

a) in the 1st

b) in the 2nd

c) in the 3rd

trimester.

trimester.

trimester.

d) only in instances of rape an incest.

e) never.

The correct answer is A. This decision from the 1970’s allowed a woman to legally have an abortion in the 1st

states to make for some restrictions in the 2nd

trimester and even more restrictions in the 3rd

“right to privacy”.

4. Which of the following is most likely to cause a gender gap in an election?

a) Prayer in school

b) Women’s rights

c) Taxes

d) Gun control

e) Race

The correct answer is D. Gun control is the only issue listed that has been a gender gap issue. A gender gap issue is an issue when there is a significant

difference in belief between men and women. All the other issues listed historically have similar support among genders.

5. The concept of judicial review allows the Supreme Court to

a) rule on the constitutionality of laws as soon as they are signed into law

b) rule on citizenship applications of all foreigners attempting to become a U.S. citizen

c) overrule state laws concerning the drinking age

d) overrule executive orders

e) rule on treaties immediately after they are negotiated by the President

The correct answer is D. Judicial review is the concept that when a suit is brought, the Supreme Court has the ability to determine if a law or action violates any

part of the Constitution. Of the choices given, only D could be possibly declared unconstitutional.

6. Which of the following has NOT consistently had an important role in agenda setting over the past 50 years?

a) The President

b) The Media

c) The Courts

d) The House of Representatives

e) All of the above

The correct answer is D. Over the past 50 years the House of Representative has only occasionally taken a lead role in agenda setting. The President, media,

and Courts have all consistently been important in setting the agenda in recent years. Examples include the President’s ability to set the agenda in his roles as

chief executive as well as head of foreign affairs, the media’s role as gatekeeper, and many of the Court’s decisions have brought many issues to the forefront of

American politics.

7. The McCulloch v. Maryland decision established which of the following?

a) The national government has supremacy over interstate commerce

b) National supremacy over state governments

c) The State government has supremacy over intrastate commerce

d) Judicial review

e) Congress can pass any law that is necessary and proper

The correct answer is B. McCullouch v. Maryland was a unanimous Supreme Court decision that decided two important constitutional issues. First, the Court

decided Congress could create a bank. Second, the Court decided that Maryland could not tax the national government because “the power to tax involves the

power to destroy.” E is an incorrect answer because this was established by the Constitution, not by a Supreme Court decision.

8. What is the purpose of the exclusionary rule?

a) limit police behavior

b) limit federal court decisions

c) limit state court decisions

d) prevent church and state alliances

trimester in all states. The decision also allowed

trimester. One of the main legal reasons behind this decision is the

e) prevent disruptive activity by spectators during court hearings

The correct answer is A. The exclusionary rule protects defendants by not allowing some evidence to be used against them if that evidence was inappropriately

collected. The exclusionary rule has been the law of the land since the Mapp v. Ohio decision.

9. Which is not a check on the powers of the Executive Branch by the Legislative Branch?

a) Congress can refuse to pass bills suggested by the President.

b) The Senate can reject treaties

c) Congress can override a presidential veto

d) The Senate can reject nominees for federal judges.

e) The Senate can reject appointments to the Executive Office of the President.

The correct answer is E. Answers A, B, C, and D can all happen. Answer is not a possibility because people who work in the Executive Office to the President

do not need to be approved by anyone except the President.

10.

If you would like to see recreational drug use become legal and also have the federal government pass a balanced budget amendment, you would best be

labeled as a:

a) Pure Liberal.

b) Pure Conservative.

c) Libertarian.

d) Populist.

e) Communist.

The correct answer is C. A libertarian is liberal on social issues and conservative on economic issues. Legalization of drugs is a liberal social belief as it allows

for personal expression. Supporting a balanced budget amendment is a conservative economic issue because it is a limitation on the intervention and powers of

the government in the economy.

11. How can Congress exert power over a bureaucratic agency?

a) Take over the agency.

b) Change an agency’s funding.

c) Censure the agency.

d) Issue an executive order affecting the agency.

e) Appoint a new head of an agency.

The correct answer is B. Control over an agency’s budget is one of the most effective ways Congress can control an agency.

12. The three-fifth’s compromise provided for

a) a 3/5 vote of Congress to approve a new state

b) a 3/5 majority for Supreme Court decisions

c) a slave counting as 3/5’s of a person for the census

d) a 3/5 vote of the House to end a filibuster

e) 3/5’s of Congress to declare war

The correct answer is C. The 3/5’s compromise was a crafted during the Constitutional Convention and counted 3/5’s of slaves for census purposes. It was a

compromise because Northern states did not want slaves counted in the census and Southern states wanted slaves counted as a whole person.

13. When hiring the White House Staff, the president normally looks for people who

a) can help the President work with Congress.

b) are from the same state as the President.

c) have the same political philosophy as the President.

d) tend to be nonpartisan.

e) are experts in national security.

The correct answer is C. The White House Staff includes people that are closest to the President and work with him the most in formulating policy, etc. The

President usually wants the people closest to him to not only be personally loyal, but also to have the same political philosophy. This helps allow policies and

messages coming from the White House to be more consistent.

14. Which of the following is the most important source of political values for individuals in the U.S.?

a) Media

b) Family

c) Education

d) Religion

e) Region

The correct answer is B. While all the other answers do have influence of political values, the largest single factor is family. Approximately 60% of all adults

affiliate with the same political part of their parents. No other factor has such a large influence.

15. A superdelegate is

a) a delegate to the Democratic convention who represents special-interests

b) an extra delegate in the Republican convention given to loyal states

c) a delegate to either convention who received over 60% of the primary vote

d) elected official or party official to the Democratic convention who does not have to pledge themselves to a candidate

e) a delegate to either convention who has attended at least 4 conventions

The correct answer is D. Only the Democratic Party has superdelegates. These are elected Democratic Party officials who are delegates to the Presidential

Convention. These delegates are completely independent, do not represent any voters to the convention, and are not bound by the same rules on voting as

some of the delegates representing states.

Which of the following can take advantage of the franking privilege?

I. Senate members

II. House members

III. Supreme Court Justices

IV. the President

a) I, II, and IV

b) I, and II

c) III and IV

d) III only

e) I, II, III, and IV

The correct answer is B. The franking privilege, or the ability to send out informational mailings paid for by tax dollars, is reserved only for members of

Congress.

17. Which of the following is NOT protected in the First Amendment?

a) the right to bear arms

b) freedom of religion

c) the right to petition

d) freedom of speech

e) freedom of the press

The correct answer is A. The 5 freedoms/rights in the 1st

petition, and 5)right of assembly. The right to bear arms is in the 2nd

Amendment are 1)the freedom of speech, 2)freedom of religion, 3)freedom of the press, 4)right to

amendment.

18. Which is a current power of the Speaker of the House of Representatives?

a) Determine the chair of the standing committees.

b) Assigning party members to standing committees.

c) Filibuster a bill.

d) Scheduling debate on bills.

e) Sending bills to specific committees.

The correct answer is B.

In the past, the Speaker of the House has had powers listed in answers A, B, and E. The powers of the Speaker have increased and

fallen in history and currently the Speaker can only assign members to committees.

Which of the following is a major source of funding for interest groups?

I. Foundation grants

II. Government grants

III. Direct-Mail fundraising

IV. Membership dues

a) I only

b) I, II, and IV

c) II, III, and IV

d) I, II, and III

e) I, II, III, and IV

The correct answer is D.

I, II, and III do actually provide a large amount of overall income for interest groups. While these groups need members and usually

want more, the dues provided by members is frequently a very small amount of their yearly budgets.

20.

a) The checks they have on the powers of the Judicial Branch.

b) The number of elected officials in both Houses.

c) How floor debate is controlled.

d) How standing committees are part of the law-making process.

e) The power of the Rules Committee in both houses

The correct answer is D. The Senate and House of Representatives both have standing committees that are very important in making laws. Only the House

has a Rules Committee and much control over floor debate. Each house has different numbers and the Senate has more checks over the Judicial Branch

including the power to approve of Presidential Judicial appointments.

21. Which of the following is an area in which states normally have more autonomy?

a) Foreign treaties

b) Education

c) Social Security

d) Interstate Commerce

e) International legal disputes

The correct answer is B. All the other powers are federal government powers and functions where states have essentially no influence. While the federal

government currently has some influence over education, states still have quite a bit of autonomy in this area.

22. Which of the following cases initially confirmed the supremacy of the federal government?

a) McCulloch v. Maryland

b) Brown v. Board of Education

c) Engel v. Vitale

d) Roe v. Wade

e) Marbury v. Madison

The correct answer is A. Part of the decision in this case declared the laws of the federal government to be supreme over state laws. This was evident in the

decision to not allow the state of Maryland to tax the bank that was chartered by the federal government.

23. Which of the following is considered part of checks and balances?

a) Cabinet secretary appointments needing to be approved by the Senate

b) The use of the Electoral College to elect the President

c) The Supreme Court overturning a State court’s decision

d) Congress increasing the military budget

e) Federal mandates

The correct answer is A. All cabinet level jobs are appointed by the President AND must also be confirmed by the Senate. This allows the Senate the choice to

confirm or not confirm these positions. Without Senate confirmation the President would need to nominate another candidate. This allows the Senate to check

the power of the President when making appointments to high level positions.

24. Which of the following is a way Congress can exercise authority over a bureaucratic agency?

a) Congress has no ability to exercise authority over an executive agency

b) the ability confirm the hiring of most agency employees

c) direct control of the Office of Personnel Management’s hiring procedures

d) the ability to fire most agency employees

e) the laws that create the agency

The correct answer is E. There are several ways Congress can exercise authority over a bureaucratic agency. One of these is via control of the budget.

Another is control over the laws that create the agency. In the laws that create an agency, Congress can severely limit the agency’s powers or greatly increase

the powers.

25. Among other things, the Civil Rights Act of 1964 made it illegal to discriminate in public accommodations. When this was challenged in Court, what was the

basic legal reasoning for supporting this section of the act?

a) Brown v. Board of Education

b) The interstate commerce clause

c) Plessy v. Ferguson

d) The Voting Rights Act

e) The 15th

amendment.

The correct answer is B.

In its ruling on the legal challenge Heart of Atlanta Motel v. U.S., the Supreme Court ruled that public accommodations such as hotels

and motels are important to conducting business across state lines therefore it was an appropriate use of the interstate commerce clause to ban discrimination in

these public accommodations. If hotels were allowed to discriminate, then minorities would find it difficult to conduct business in some locations, harming

interstate business.

26. An appeal to the Supreme Court can be made by using

a) a writ of certiorari

b) a habeas corpus petition

c) an amicus curiae brief

d) an ex post facto appeal

e) a judicial review appeal

The correct answer is A. A writ of certiorari is an order by a higher court to a lower court so the higher court can review the lower court decision. One can ask

the Supreme Court for a writ of certiorari but the appeal is denied unless the Supreme Court issues the writ.

27. Powers that are exclusively reserved for the states are called

a) federalist powers

b) implicit powers

c) concurrent powers

d) enumerated powers

e) reserved powers

The correct answer is E. Reserved powers are powers that are not explicitly given to the federal government and are reserved for the states. Concurrent

powers are shared by both national and state governments. Enumerated powers are explicitly given to the national government in the Constitution.

28. Groups that make up an iron triangle are

a) an executive agency, congressional committee, and interest group

b) an elected official, congressional committee, and executive agency

c) an interest group, corporation, and federal court

d) a corporation, interest group, and federal court

e) the President, Speaker of the House, and Senate majority leader

The correct answer is A. While iron triangles are becoming less common and issue networks are becoming more common, an iron triangle is when an executive

agency, congressional committee, and an interest group work towards the same goals.

29. Which of the following is not a major cause of cleavages in public opinion?

a) Race

b) Religion

c) Region

d) Class

e) Family

The correct answer is E. The family is the major source or our political beliefs. All the other answers can cause cleavages.

30. Why was the Elastic Clause originally included in the Constitution?

a) To limit the powers of the Judicial Branch.

b) To further define powers of the Legislative branch.

c) To limit powers of the Executive Branch.

d) To allow the Legislative Branch to enact law that support Article I expressed powers.

e) To limit the powers of the States.

The correct answer is D. The Elastic Clause was put in the Constitution because there are a large number of powers given to Congress but the Constitution

does not specifically allow Congress to pass laws on the powers. The Elastic Clause allows for the passage of laws on these powers.

A pure liberal would support which of the following?

I. less governmental regulation of the economy

II. affirmative action programs for minority groups

III. increased spending on social welfare programs

IV. increased use of the death penalty

a) I and III

b) I, II, and III

c) II and IV

d) II and III

e) I and IV

The correct answer is D. A pure liberal is liberal on both social and economic issues. Supporting affirmative as well as increased spending on welfare are both

liberal social beliefs. Less governmental regulation of the economy is a conservative economic belief.

belief.

32. According to the Constitution, who may impeach the President?

a) The Vice-President with the consent of a majority of the Cabinet.

b) The Supreme Court.

c) Both the House and the Senate.

d) The Senate.

e) The House of Representatives.

The correct answer is E. Only the House of Representatives has the power to impeach, which means to officially accuse of wrong-doing. Once the House

impeaches, the Senate holds a trial.

If a majority of the Senate finds the accused guilty, the guilty party is immediately removed from office.

33. The states are required to enforce federally protected rights due to the

a) Bill of Rights

b) Article VI of the Constitution

c) Necessary and Proper Clause

d) Establishment Clause

e) Incorporation Doctrine

The correct answer is E. The Incorporation Doctrine comes from Supreme Court rulings that require the states to protect some of the rights and liberties

guaranteed to U.S. citizens in the Bill of Rights. Some of these rights that states are required to protect include the freedom of speech, freedom of religion,

protection from illegal searches and seizures, etc.

34. Early Supreme Court rulings on which issue were used to greatly expand the powers of the federal government?

a) The commerce clause.

b) The elastic clause.

c) Taxation.

d) Presidential appointments.

e) Original jurisdiction.

The correct answer is A. Starting in the 1800’s the Supreme Court broadly interpreted the commerce clause and allowed the federal government to take control

of many things that had previously been controlled by state and local governments.

35. The main goal of the American Revolution was

a) freedom to travel

b) economic equality

c) fraternity

d) equality

e) liberty

The correct answer is E. The Founding Forefathers fought to protect their liberty.

36. Which of the following statements about Supreme Court judges is correct?

a) Senatorial courtesy is important in their selection.

b) Only recently have the nominations become controversial.

c) Once confirmed, they can serve for life.

d) They are selected by popular election.

e) They must be at least 35 and a member of the American Bar Association.

The correct answer is C. All sitting federal court judges, including Supreme Court justices are appointed by the President, confirmed by the Senate, and serve

for life, barring a successful impeachment by both the House of Representatives and the Senate.

37. One reason for the continuing existence of the two-party system in U.S. politics is

a) The lack of contentious issues in the U.S.

b) The system of Checks and Balances.

c) The plurality electoral system.

d) High voter turnout.

e) The lack of strong third parties.

The correct answer is C. The plurality electoral system is also called winner-take-all and first-past-the-post. The plurality system is one in which the winner of

the election is the candidate that receives more votes and any other individual candidate, even if it is less than 50%. This system helps prevent 3rd

parties

It is questionable if they all even believed in equality (think slavery).

because it is incredibly difficult and rare, especially in state and national elections, for a third party candidate to beat BOTH the Democratic and Republican

candidates.

38.

In Congress, most of the work on legislation is done in

a) a joint committee

b) a standing committee

c) a select committee

d) a conference committee

e) the chamber of each house

The correct answer is B. The vast majority of bills that Congress considers go to a standing committee.

about the bill, amendments are made to the bill, and most of the other work on a bill is done.

39. Majoritarian politics is most successful by appealing to

a) members of Congress

b) interest groups

c) political elites

d) nonvoters

e) the largest number of voters

The correct answer is E. Majoritarian politics occurs when politicians feel compelled to follow the wishes of the majority of the voting population. Without a

majority wanting the same thing, there is not majoritarian politics.

40. A major reason the President has relatively little power over the cabinet departments is because

a) he can only appoint a small number of employees in each department.

b) he shares oversight of the departments with the legislature.

c) he shares oversight of the departments with the judiciary.

d) the head of each department is elected.

e) the head of each department is a normal Civil Servant.

The correct answer is A. Most jobs in the cabinet departments are civil service jobs and people in these jobs owe no loyalty to the President or his politics. Less

than 5% of cabinet department positions can be appointed by the President. The fact that so few jobs owe their loyalty to the President severely hinders his

ability to exert power over these departments.

41.

If the central government desired to have greater control/influence over states and localities, which of the following would be the most effective?

a) Mandates

b) Categorical Grants

c) Block Grants

d) Revenue Sharing

e) Land Grants

The correct answer is A. Mandates are central government requirements that states and localities must follow. All the other answers concern grant programs

which states and localities have the option to accept or decline. A requirement will exert more control than an optional program.

42. The Federal Reserve is best described as

a) an agency within the Treasury Department

b) a government corporation

c) a cabinet agency

d) a quasi-independent agency

e) a regulatory agency

The correct answer is D. The Federal Reserve is not part of any government agency, not part of the cabinet, and its main functions are not regulatory. Since the

Federal Reserve is actually owned by member banks, but run by a board whose members are appointed by the President and approved by the Senate. As such

it is quasi-independent.

43. Which of the following best describes the party organization of the DNC and GOP?

a) They are fairly independent at all levels.

b) State and local parties have no power in our political system.

c) State and local parties have total power in our political system.

d) There is no organization at the national level.

e) There is no organization at the state/local level.

The correct answer is A. Much like federalism allows for different degrees of governmental independence at the national, state, and local levels, parties also

have independence at those same levels. The two major parties are fairly highly organized at all levels and exert independence at all these levels.

44. Most of the cases that the Supreme Court hear come from

a) State Supreme Courts.

b) suits between US and foreign citizens.

c) direct review of immediately after being signed into law.

d) original jurisdiction.

e) Appellate jurisdiction.

The correct answer is E. While the Supreme Court does have original jurisdiction for specific types of cases, most of the cases that are heard by the Court are

cases that have been appealed from lower federal courts or from state courts.

45. Which of the following is responsible for redrawing congressional district lines at least every 10 years?

a) The President and Congress

b) State Legislatures

c) The House of Representatives

d) The Census Bureau

e) The Supreme Court

It is in the standing committee where hearings are held

The correct answer is B. The purpose of the census is to collect population data to allow the government to allocate the correct number of districts to states.

Once states are given the number of districts, it is up to each state to determine the exact boundaries of each district. The vast majority of state legislatures

draw the boundaries themselves although a few state legislatures delegate this responsibility.

46. Which one of the following has the most influence in the Legislative Branch?

a) the President of the Senate

b) the President pro tempore of the Senate

c) the Speaker of the House

d) the Senate Majority Leader

e) the Majority Leader of the House

The correct answer is C. The position that has the most power in the Legislative Branch is the Speaker of the House. None of the other positions have as much

power. The Speaker of the House is not only the leader of the House, but also the leader of his party in that chamber. None of the other listed positions have as

much power.

47. Which of the following correctly identifies a branch of government and powers it holds?

a) Executive – veto bills, declare war, and receive ambassadors

b) Executive – veto bills, declare war, and confirm judges

c) Legislative – tax, declare war, and appoint judges

d) Legislative – tax, confirm judges, and regulate interstate commerce

e) Judicial – create federal courts, appellate jurisdiction, judicial review

The correct answer is D. A is incorrect because the only Congress may declare war. B and C are incorrect because the Executive Branch appoints judges,

Congress confirms them. E is incorrect because Congress has the power to create federal courts.

48. Which of the following has NOT been a major protection for the legal rights of women?

a) The Civil Rights Act of 1964.

b) The Equal Rights Amendment.

c) The Equal Pay act of 1963.

d) The Civil Rights act of 1964.

e) The 19th

Amendment.

The correct answer is B. All the other answers are actual laws that have helped to increase protections for women. The Equal Rights Amendment was

proposed decades ago, but never ratified so it never became law.

49. Which of the following groups has voted the most often for the Democratic Party over the past 30 years?

a) Jewish Americans

b) Latin Americans

c) Asian Americans

d) Caucasian Americans

e) African Americans

The correct answer is E. African Americans have voted Democratic approximately 90% of the time over the past few decades. No other group listed comes

close to that high a percent.

50. Which of the following best explains why recent delegates to both the Republican and Democratic Conventions have been more likely to have a college

degree than the general population?

a) Political elites have more formal education than any other group of people.

b) People with a college education tend to be more politically active.

c) Each party requires delegates to have a college degree.

d) People with a college education tend to be more conservative.

e) People with a college education tend to be more liberal.

The correct answer is B. Both income and education are factors affecting levels of political activity. The higher the income and education, the more likely it is

one will engage in political activity. To attend a party convention, one must have a fairly high degree of political activity.

51. Brown v. Board of Education was an important case because it

a) ruled that “separate but equal” school violated the 1st

b) ruled segregation in all cases is unconstitutional

c) ruled in favor of President Nixon

d) ruled racial segregation in schooling is unconstitutional

e) ruled block grants for segregated schools could be curtailed

The correct answer is D. The most important part of this decision is when it stated the schools in Topeka, KS should be desegregated. This case overturned

Plessy v. Ferguson which has previously made it legal to be “separate but equal.”

52. Which of the following began the merit system?

a) Pendleton Act

b) Plessy v. Ferguson

c) Sherman Anti-Trust Act

d) Civil Rights Act

e) Taft-Hartley Act

The correct answer is A. The Pendleton Act was passed in 1883 and called for most governmental jobs to be awarded on the basis of competitive exams, rather

than political affiliation.

53. With the effects of education and income taken into consideration, which of the following is correct about voting behaviors?

a)All races vote at a similar rate.

b)African Americans vote around half the rate of Whites.

c)African Americans vote at a higher rate than Whites.

Amendment

d)Asian Americans vote at a higher rate than all other groups.

e)Hispanic Americans vote at a higher rate than all other groups.

The correct answer is C. Whites vote at the highest overall rate, but when looking at voters of similar education and economic status, African Americans vote

slightly more than Whites.

54. Which of the following best describes the media’s coverage of elections?

a) Coverage consists mostly of short sound bites from the candidates.

b) Media outlets follow both the equal time and equal coverage rules.

c) Coverage is never influenced by reporters’ political beliefs.

d) Coverage is mostly about the campaign issues.

e) Elections get more in depth coverage than all other media topics.

The correct answer is A. The equal coverage rule is not valid. While reporters frequently like to talk about being unbiased, it is essentially impossible to be

unbiased and reports do show bias in their reporting. Most campaign reporting is about the “horse-race”, not the issues. Election coverage is usually not about

the issues.

Which of the following is true about American Political Culture over the past 60 years?

I. Citizens are less supportive equal pay

II. Citizens have a stronger belief in efficacy

III. Parties are more influential

IV. Citizens are less trusting of government

a) I only

b) IV only

c) I & IV

d) I, II, and III

e) All of the above

The correct answer is B. Over the last 60 years citizens have become less trusting of government partly due to Watergate, Vietnam, as well as other issues.

During the same time period, citizens have become more supportive of equal pay, had a weaker belief in efficacy, and interest groups have grown in power while

parties have lost power.

56. The term “horse-race” journalism can best be described as the media’s tendency to

a) Cover the work on Congress by concentrating coverage on committee hearings.

b) Emphasize the relative standings of candidates in the polls rather than focusing on the issues.

c) Focus on scandal and corruption rather than on issues.

d) Be gatekeeper, scorekeeper, and watchdog when covering elections.

e) Compete with other media outlets to be the first to break a story.

The correct answer is B. There are 3 major roles of the media in relation to politics. One of these roles is scorekeeper.

relative standings of candidates much the same way an announcer calls a horse race.

In this role, the media reports on the

57. Which of the following is normally the most effective technique an interest group would use in order to influence legislation?

a) Congressional testimony

b) Advertising in the media

c) Donating to Congressional re-election campaigns

d) Filing a lawsuit

e) Rallying support from its members

The correct answer is A. While all of the answers are techniques that are used, Congressional testimony is the most effective in influencing members of

Congress because information is the most important way to influence Congress. Congressmen/Senators are most easily influenced on topics they are not

experts on when provided with information on those areas. Congressional testimony is one way to provide members of Congress with this expert knowledge.

58.

In which of the following are voters required to declare the party they wish to vote for in advance of the election?

a) Delegate selection primary

b) Runoff primary

c) Blanket primary

d) Open primary

e) Closed primary

The correct answer is E. None of the other primaries require advance declaration of a voter’s party affiliation.

59. Which of the following are advantages of being an incumbent in Congress?

a) Incumbents can receive federal campaign funding.

b) Incumbents can require the media give them more coverage.

c) Incumbents have the franking privilege.

d) Incumbents are usually endorsed by the sitting President.

e) Incumbents are always popular because of the work they have done in Congress.

The correct answer is C. The franking privilege is the ability of Congressmen to send out non-campaign mailings to constituents that are paid for by tax receipts.

If a challenger wants to send mailings to voters in their district or state, their campaign must pay for the printing and mail. The ability to send out literature about

a candidate (the incumbent), with no cost to the campaign, is a definite advantage.

60. Which of the following best describes a Political Action Committee (PAC)?

a) They donate money to campaigns to gain access to politicians.

b) They are part of a local party organization.

c) They are part of a national part organization.

d) They always give most of their money to Democrats.

e) They always give most of their money to Republicans.

The correct answer is A. The main purpose of a PAC is to try and influence politicians and laws. One of the main methodologies used by PACs is to donate to a

political campaign to gain access to the politician who can influence laws once elected.