PAtho exam 3

Multiple Choice
1. The parasympathetic nervous system is part of the:
a. central nervous system.
b. somatic nervous system.
c. autonomic nervous system.
d. thoracolumbar nervous system.
Answer: c
2. Which of the following is an anion?
a. Sodium
b. Hydrogen
c. Chloride
d. Potassium

Answer: c
3. Neurons connecting sensory and motor neurons are known as:
a. afferent neurons.
b. efferent neurons.
c. cranial nerves.
d. interneurons.
Answer: d
4. Myelinated neurons are found in which component(s) of the nervous system?
a. Central
b. Peripheral
c. Central and peripheral
d. None of the above
Answer: c
5. Polarized cells are:
a. more negative inside the cell as compared to the outside of the cell.
b. more positive inside the cell as compared to the outside of the cell.
c. equal in electrical charge inside and outside the cell.
d. reach threshold with increasingly negative internal charge.
Answer: a
6. The density of voltage-gated channels is greatest in which component of the
neuron?
a. Cell body
b. Axon hillock
c. Dendrite
d. Soma

Answer: b
7. Potassium outflow from the cell is characteristic of which phase of the action
potential?
a. Resting membrane potential
b. Depolarization
c. Repolarization
d. None of the above
Answer: c
8. Release of neurotransmitter occurs at which location in the neuron?
a. Presynaptic terminal
b. Axon hillock
c. Synaptic cleft
d. Postsynaptic membrane
Answer: d
9. The lobe of the brain with functions of perception, memory, and
recognition of auditory stimuli is the:
a. frontal.
b. parietal.
c. temporal.
d. occipital.
Answer: c
10. The cerebral cortex is associated with the:
a. forebrain.
b. diencephalon.
c. midbrain.
d. hindbrain.

Answer: a
11. Gray matter is composed primarily of:
a. axons.
b. cell bodies.
c. dendrites.
d. denervated tissue.
Answer: b
12. CSF is produced by the:
a. dura mater.
b. arachnoid mater.
c. pia mater.
d. choroid plexus.
Answer: d
13. CSF is produced in the:
a. lateral ventricles.
b. third ventricle.
c. fourth ventricle.
d. all of the above.
Answer: d
14. Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation and vascular smooth muscle constriction
are caused by the direct actions of the:
a. parasympathetic nervous system.
b. sympathetic nervous system.
c. somatic nervous system.
d. central nervous system.

Answer: b
15. Reflex activity involves:
a. afferent neurons.
b. interneurons.
c. efferent neurons.
d. all of the above.
Answer: d
16. Injury-induced swelling of a neuron is due to which one of the following
processes?
a. Chromatolysis
b. Atrophy
c. Neuronophagia
d. Intraneuronal inclusion
Answer: a
17. Which of the following cell types responds to injury by the formation of a glial
scar?
a. Microglia
b. Astrocyte
c. Oligodendrocyte
d. Schwann cell
Answer: b
18. Distal axonopathy and Wallerian degeneration are responses to injury in which
component of the nervous system?
a. Spinal
b. Central
c. Peripheral

d. Cerebral
Answer: c
19. Countercoup injury is due to:
a. closed head injury in the area of impact.
b. closed head injury resulting in and opposite from the area of direct impact.
c. infection resulting from exposed brain tissue from an open traumatic injury.
d. closed spinal cord injury resulting from complete severing of neurons.
Answer: b
20. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by which form of neuron damage?
a. Mononeuropathy
b. Polyneuropathy
c. Aneuropathy
d. Transneuropathy
Answer: b
21. Exaggerated neuronal transmission is often seen as a result of which type of
injury?
a. Ischemic
b. Excitation
c. Traumatic
d. Pressure
Answer: d
22. Brain tumors will likely lead to which type of injury?
a. Ischemic
b. Excitation
c. Traumatic

d. Pressure
Answer: d
23. Loss of coordinated movement and balance is likely due to damage to:
a. pyramidal structures.
b. extrapyramidal structures.
c. peripheral neurons.
d. cranial nerves.
Answer: b
24. The type of injury that leads to seizure disorders in cerebral palsy is likely:
a. ischemic.
b. excitation.
c. traumatic.
d. pressure.
Answer: a
25. The type of injury that results from seizure disorders in cerebral palsy is:
a. ischemic.
b. excitation.
c. traumatic.
d. pressure.
Answer: b
26. Current MS drug treatments designed to slow the progress of myelin
degeneration are:
a. antidepressants.
b. anticonvulsants.
c. immunomodulators.

d. antibiotics.
Answer: c
27. Congenital hydrocephalus is most often caused by which one of the following
conditions?
a. Brain tumor
b. Narrowed cerebral aqueduct
c. Meningitis
d. Intraventricular hemorrhage
Answer: b
28. Loss of involuntary function is expected with spinal injury at which level?
a. C1–C2
b. C7–T1
c. T9–T12
d. S1–S5
Answer: a

Chapter 12 Extra Questions:

Multiple Choice (Answers to Practice Exam Questions)
1. Which sensory receptor is responsible for impulses resulting in the sensation of touch?
a. Mechanoreceptor
b. Chemoreceptor
c. Nociceptor
d. Osmoreceptor
Answer: a
2. Which somatosensory neurons are responsible for communication of sensory information from
the thalamus to the cerebral cortex and are present in the greatest quantity?
a. First order
b. Second order
c. Third order
d. Interneuron
Answer: c
3. The most likely site of pathology leading to alterations in balance is the:
a. external ear.
b. middle ear.
c. internal ear.
d. tympanic membrane.
Answer: c
4. Which type of pain involves a typical pattern of impulse conduction and originates outside of
the nervous system?
a. Neurogenic
b. Nociceptive

c:Neuropathic
d. Analgesic
Answer: b
5. Hyperopia is a condition characterized by:
a. alterations in eye movement.
b. infection of the conjunctiva.
c. increased sensitivity to light.
d. error in refraction.
Answer: d
6. Infection of the middle ear is also known as:
a. mastoiditis.
b. vestibulitis.
c. otitis media.
d. labyrinthitis.
Answer: c
7. Sensorineural hearing loss is:
a. often permanent, resulting from disease, trauma, or genetic defect.
b. localized to the middle ear and is often temporary.
c. caused by alteration in auditory signal processing in the brain.
d. a response to immobility of the tympanic membrane.
Answer: a
8. The mechanism of action of opioid analgesics is:
a. blockade of serotonin reuptake at the synaptic cleft.
b. inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzymes and prostaglandin production.
c. stimulation of large fibers to modulate pain transmission.
d. pain modulation at the level of the spinal cord by binding to mu, delta, and kappa receptors.

Answer: d
9. Which one of the following eye conditions is the result of increased intraocular pressure?
a. Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
b. Glaucoma
c. Wet macular degeneration
d. Dry macular degeneration
Answer: b
10.Balance and body position are the function of:
a. the utricle.
b. the saccule.
c. the semicircular canals.
d. all of the above.
Answer: d
11.Damage to the cochlear hair cells may result in:
a. hearing loss.
b. loss of balance.
c. lack of proprioception.
d. none of the above.
Answer: a
12.Fibromyalgia is diagnosed by:
a. loss of bone mass.
b. muscle inflammation.
c. weight loss.
d. multiple tender points.
Answer: d
13.Which of the following is a symptom?

a. Pain

b. Hearing loss
c. Loss of proprioception
d. None of the above
Answer: a
14.Which of the following reports of pain level (0 to 10) is considered moderate, requiring
medications?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: c
15.The neuromatrix theory of pain states:
a. specific stimuli cause predictable pain responses.
b. specific stimuli results in prevention of impulse crossing in spinal cord.
c. neural network integration of multiple inputs determines pain perception.
d. pain perception is determined by duration of impulse and amount of tissue involved.

Answer: c

Chapter 13 Extra Question:

Multiple Choice (Answers to Practice Exam Questions)
1. Which of the following is not a major role of hormones?
a. Growth stimulation
b. Erythrocyte synthesis
c. Fluid balance and regulation
d. Metabolic rate regulation
Answer: b
2. The release of hormones from glands is most often controlled by:
a. negative feedback mechanisms.
b. nephrogenic mechanisms.
c. ectopic hormone production.
d. active transport.
Answer: a
3. The most common cause of endocrine disorders is:
a. surgical removal of endocrine glands.
b. infection.
c. adenomas.
d. immunodeficiency.

Answer: c
4. Excess cortisol is represented by which condition?
a. Addison disease
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: b
5. Diabetes insipidus, if left untreated, will rapidly develop into:
a. malignant hypertension.
b. diabetic coma.
c. dehydration.
d. metabolic alkalosis.
Answer: c
6. A patient is asked to collect a 24-hour urine test to check a hormone level. Why is the 24-hour urine needed?
a. This is done to measure female reproductive hormone levels.
b. This is done to obtain a measurement of hormone secretion over time.
c. It is easier than obtaining a blood sample.
d. Urine is not an effective method of measuring hormone levels.
Answer: b

You are experiencing constipation, dry skin, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Which condition are you most likely
experiencing?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Addison disease
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Hypothyroidism
Answer: d
8. Which of the following occurs with elevated levels of cortisol?
a. Fatty acids are mobilized.
b. Glucose levels are suppressed.
c. Plasma protein levels increase.
d. Inflammation increases.
Answer: a
9. Which type of hormone is not produced in the adrenal cortex?
a. Mineralocorticoids
b. Glucocorticoids
c. Adrenal sex hormones
d. Neurotransmitters
Answer: d

Diagnosis of SIADH is based on which of the following?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypertonicity
c. Increased urine volume
d. Dilute urine with a low sodium content
Answer: a
11. Release of hormones from the anterior pituitary differs from those released by the posterior pituitary. What is the major
way in which these are different?
a. The posterior pituitary is much less complicated.
b. The anterior pituitary releases only two hormones.
c. The posterior pituitary follows the positive feedback loop.
d. The anterior pituitary is controlled by the hypothalamus.
Answer: a
12. Which of the following major pathways occurs when a hormone is produced in a cell and can have an impact on neighboring
cells and on its own cell?
a. Paracrine pathway
b. Autocrine pathway
c. Synaptic pathway
d. Neuroendocrine pathway
Answer: b

A patient presents with SIADH and a serum sodium level of 100 mEq/L. What would you expect for clinical manifestations for
this patient?
a. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
b. Nausea, vomiting, headache
c. Muscle cramps, weakness, irritability
d. Seizures, psychosis, gait disturbances
Answer: c
14. A patient presents with exophthalmos. What condition are they likely experiencing?
a. Addison disease
b. Cushing disease
c. Graves disease
d. Diabetes insipidus
Answer: c

1. This controls the regulation of many hormones.
a. Endocrine system
b. Neurotransmitters

c. Limbic system
d. Hypothalamic–pituitary axis
Answer: d
2. Which is true about the action of the hypothalamus on the posterior pituitary gland?
a. Hormones travel within blood vessels to this part of the pituitary.
b. Hypothalamus produces antidiuretic hormone released from this part of the pituitary.
c. Hypothalamus stimulates releasing hormones from this part of the pituitary.
d. Hypothalamus bypasses the posterior pituitary.
Answer: b
3. Hormones travel from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary through this.
a. Hypophyseal portal system
b. Nerve axons
c. Lymphatic system
d. Systemic circulation
Answer: a
4. What household tool functions in a similar way to that of the negative feedback loop?
a. Thermostat
b. Dishwasher
c. Microwave

d. Toaster
Answer: a
5. Which of the following does not prevent the accumulation of hormones in the body?
a. Degradation by enzymes
b. Inactivation by the liver
c. Inhibition of hormone release by somatostatin
d. Elimination through the urine or feces
Answer: c
6. Which best explains why hormones only act on certain parts of the body?
a. Receptor binding
b. Negative feedback mechanisms
c. Regulation by the hypothalamic–pituitary axis
d. Tissue affinity
Answer: a
7. Which hormone pathway is represented by cells in the body that are able to both receive hormone stimulation and secrete the
hormone to receptive neighboring cells?
a. Paracrine pathway
b. Endocrine pathway
c. Autocrine pathway

d. Synaptic pathway
Answer: c
8. You are stressed about your pathophysiology final exam. What hormone, released from the hypothalamus, initiates the stress
response?
a. Antidiuretic hormone
b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
c. Corticotropin-releasing hormone
d. Cortisol
Answer: c
9. Catecholamines, stimulated and released by the sympathetic nervous system and adrenal glands, are also active in the stress
response. Which of the following is not a catecholamine released during stress?
a. Serotonin
b. Dopamine
c. Epinephrine
d. Norepinephrine
Answer: a
10. Which of the following is not a beneficial action of cortisol in the alarm stage of the stress response?
a. Releases lipids
b. Increases circulating blood glucose

c. Suppression of the immune response
d. Inhibition of metabolism
Answer: d
11. Cortisol elevations are needed in the early stress response but persistent hypercortisolism is problematic because it induces:
a. glucose intolerance.
b. protein anabolism.
c. autoimmunity.
d. an excessive inflammatory response.
Answer: a
12. Your mother is told that she has a hormone receptor problem and her cells are not receptive to hormone stimulation. Why
might her receptors not be functioning appropriately?
a. She has too many receptors.
b. She has a high sensitivity to the hormone.
c. She has a tumor that is secreting ectopic hormone.
d. She has antibodies that are blocking the receptors.
Answer: d
13. Your grandmother is diagnosed with renal failure. How would this impact her hormone levels?
a. There would be no effect on her hormone levels.
b. She would have much higher levels of circulating hormones.

c. She would have much lower levels of circulating hormones.
d. This is dependent upon whether or not her body adapts by eliminating all hormones through the feces.
Answer: b
14. What action does excessive ADH secretion have on cellular fluid balance in SIADH?
a. Intracellular fluid retention
b. Excessive water losses
c. Excessive circulating blood volume
d. Extracellular fluid retention
Answer: a
15. Which laboratory indicator is found in diabetes insipidus?
a. Excessive ADH levels
b. Urine specific gravity less than 1.005
c. Serum hypoosmolality
d. Serum hyponatremia
Answer: b
16. What is the reason for excessive thyroid gland stimulation in Graves disease?
a. Excessive TSH release from the pituitary
b. Excessive thyrotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus
c. Suppression of TSH release from the pituitary

d. Antibodies binding to gland receptors
Answer: d
17. Your grandmother, who has had a long history of hypothyroidism, has boggy, nonpitting edema around her eyes. This
condition is referred to as:
a. myxedema.
b. goiter.
c. exophthalmos.
d. mucositis.
Answer: a
18. Which of the following is not a process that leads to Cushing syndrome?
a. Long-term use of prednisone
b. Excess ACTH secretion
c. Tumors of the adrenal gland
d. Ectopic production of ADH
Answer: d