Note
Studied by 7 people
Test 5
1. Ecthyma is:
Correct Answer: (B) Ulcerative impetigo.
Explanation of options:
(A) Crusted impetigo: Refers to superficial impetigo with honey-colored crusts. Ecthyma involves deeper ulcerative lesions.
(B) Ulcerative impetigo: Correct. Ecthyma is a deeper form of impetigo that penetrates into the dermis, forming ulcers.
(C) Circinate impetigo: Incorrect. This is a descriptive term for annular (ring-shaped) lesions in impetigo, not deeper ulcers.
(D) Bullous impetigo: Refers to impetigo caused by Staphylococcus aureus, forming blisters, not ulcers.
(E) None of the above: Incorrect because (B) is correct.
2. Warts can be treated by all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: (D) Intralesional steroids.
Explanation of options:
(A) Laser: Effective in physically removing warts.
(B) Cryotherapy: Uses liquid nitrogen to freeze warts.
(C) Electrocautery: Burns and removes the wart tissue.
(D) Intralesional steroids: Incorrect because warts are caused by a viral infection (HPV); steroids are immunosuppressive and may worsen the condition.
(E) Autosuggestion: Includes placebo or psychological methods, which can sometimes be surprisingly effective in benign conditions like warts.
3. Vulgaris means:
Correct Answer: (B) Common.
Explanation of options:
(A) Serious: Incorrect. "Vulgaris" does not denote severity.
(B) Common: Correct. In medical terminology, "vulgaris" signifies a condition that is common or prevalent.
(C) Easily treated: Incorrect. The term does not imply treatment ease.
(D) All of the above: Incorrect because only (B) applies.
(E) None of the above: Incorrect since (B) is correct.
4. Drug eruptions may be:
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above.
Explanation of options:
(A) Eczematous: Certain drugs can cause eczematous (allergic or irritant) reactions.
(B) Acneiform: Drug-induced acne (e.g., steroids) is a common manifestation.
(C) Pigmented: Some drugs, like minocycline or antimalarials, can lead to hyperpigmentation.
(D) All of the above: Correct. Drug eruptions can present in all listed forms.
(E) None of the above: Incorrect since (D) is correct.
5. All of the following are features of pityriasis rubra pilaris EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: (D) Herald patch.
Explanation of options:
(A) Scaly scalp: PRP commonly affects the scalp with scaling.
(B) Nail affection: Nail thickening or discoloration can occur in PRP.
(C) Psoriasiform patches: PRP may mimic psoriasis.
(D) Herald patch: Incorrect because herald patches are typical of pityriasis rosea, not PRP.
(E) Follicular hyperkeratosis: A key feature of PRP.
6. Dermatophytes cause infection of:
Correct Answer: (E) (a) + (b) + (c).
Explanation of options:
(A) Non-hairy skin: Dermatophytes cause tinea corporis (body) and tinea cruris (groin).
(B) Hair: Tinea capitis involves hair and scalp.
(C) Nails: Onychomycosis is a fungal nail infection caused by dermatophytes.
(D) (a) + (b): Incomplete; nails are also affected.
(E) (a) + (b) + (c): Correct because dermatophytes affect all these areas.
7. Scabies in adults involves the following body sites EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: (D) Upper back.
Explanation of options:
(A) Wrist: Common site of burrows in scabies.
(B) Genitalia: Commonly affected in adults.
(C) Buttocks: Frequently involved.
(D) Upper back: Incorrect because scabies spares thick skin areas like the back.
(E) Flexures: Typical locations, such as the interdigital spaces.
8. Herpes progenitalis is:
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above.
Explanation of options:
(A) Caused by HSV type II: True; herpes genitalis is commonly linked to HSV-2.
(B) Linked with cervical cancer: Indirectly true, as HSV-2 coexists with HPV, which causes cervical cancer.
(C) Characterized by recurrent vesicles and erosions: Hallmark of herpes progenitalis.
(D) All of the above: Correct.
(E) None of the above: Incorrect since (D) is true.
9. The commonest viral infection involved in erythema multiforme is:
Correct Answer: (B) Herpes simplex.
Explanation of options:
(A) Human papilloma virus: Not linked to erythema multiforme.
(B) Herpes simplex: Correct. HSV is the most common trigger.
(C) Cytomegalovirus: Rarely associated.
(D) Varicella zoster virus: Occasionally linked but not common.
(E) Epstein Barr virus: Uncommon cause.
10. Erythema nodosum may be precipitated by:
Correct Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation:
a. T.B. infection: Common cause in endemic regions.
b. Streptococcal infection: Frequent trigger, especially in children.
c. Drugs: Such as sulfonamides can induce erythema nodosum.
d. All of the above: Correct.
e. None of the above: Incorrect.
11. Acne vulgaris:
Correct Answer: d. Is a disease of adolescents
Explanation:
a. May affect palms and soles: Incorrect, acne does not occur on palms and soles due to the absence of sebaceous glands.
b. Is a disease of sweat glands: Incorrect, acne affects the pilosebaceous unit.
c. Commonly affects the scalp: Rare, primarily affects the face, chest, and back.
d. Is a disease of adolescents: Correct. Acne commonly begins in adolescence due to hormonal changes.
e. Causes itching which increases by night: Incorrect; pruritus is not a primary feature.
12. Burrow is:
Correct Answer: c. Tunnel in the epidermis produced by female Sarcoptes scabiei
Explanation:
a. Localized collection of fluid: Refers to vesicles or pustules.
b. Solid elevation of the skin less than 0.5 cm in diameter: Describes a papule.
c. Tunnel in the epidermis produced by female Sarcoptes scabiei: Correct. Pathognomonic for scabies.
d. Deroofed furrow: Incorrect, as it does not describe the burrow.
e. Area of depigmented skin: Incorrect, this is unrelated.
13. The following skin diseases may cause cicatricial alopecia EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: d. Alopecia areata
Explanation:
a. Discoid L.E.: Causes scarring alopecia.
b. Lichen planus: Can cause scarring alopecia in affected areas.
c. Favus: Leads to permanent hair loss due to fungal infection.
d. Alopecia areata: Correct. This is a non-scarring type of hair loss.
e. Kerion: Can cause cicatricial alopecia if untreated.
14. In Leprosy:
Correct Answer: d. Dapsone is the backbone of treatment of all types of leprosy
Explanation:
a. Leprosy is a stable disease: Incorrect, it can progress or regress.
b. Indeterminate leprosy is a late form of the disease: Incorrect, it is an early form.
c. Keratinocytes are the target cells for the bacilli: Incorrect, the target cells are Schwann cells and macrophages.
d. Dapsone is the backbone of treatment of all types of leprosy: Correct. It is part of multi-drug therapy.
e. Leprosy is an autoimmune disease: Incorrect, it is caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
15. All the following may be used in the treatment of molluscum contagiosum EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: d. Steroids
Explanation:
a. Electrocautery: Effective method to remove lesions.
b. Carbolic acid: Used for chemical destruction.
c. Cryotherapy: Common treatment.
d. Steroids: Correct. They are not used for viral infections like molluscum contagiosum.
e. Laser: Effective in removing lesions.
16. Scabies is a:
Correct Answer: c. Parasitic infestation
Explanation:
a. Viral infection: Incorrect, scabies is caused by a mite.
b. Bacterial infection: Incorrect.
c. Parasitic infestation: Correct. Caused by Sarcoptes scabiei.
d. Fungal infection: Incorrect.
e. Mycobacterial infection: Incorrect.
17. Histamine is the chief mediator of:
Correct Answer: b. Urticaria
Explanation:
a. Contact dermatitis: Mediated by delayed-type hypersensitivity (not histamine).
b. Urticaria: Correct. Characterized by histamine-mediated wheals and itching.
c. Atopic dermatitis: Involves multiple mediators, not predominantly histamine.
d. Discoid lupus erythematosus: Autoimmune; not histamine-mediated.
e. Psoriasis: Involves immune pathways, not histamine.
18. The most characteristic lesion of erythema multiforme is:
Correct Answer: e. Iris lesion
Explanation:
a. Wheal: Seen in urticaria.
b. Burrow: Seen in scabies.
c. Furrow: Unrelated to erythema multiforme.
d. Herald patch: Seen in pityriasis rosea.
e. Iris lesion: Correct. Target-like lesions are hallmark features.
19. Acne vulgaris is:
Correct Answer: c. Treated by retinoids in its nodulocystic forms
Explanation:
a. Cured by topical steroids: Incorrect, steroids can worsen acne.
b. An infectious disease: Incorrect, though Propionibacterium acnes contributes, it is not an infectious disease.
c. Treated by retinoids in its nodulocystic forms: Correct. Retinoids like isotretinoin are effective for severe acne.
d. A disease affecting skin and mucous membranes: Incorrect, it primarily affects the skin.
e. A disease of sweat glands: Incorrect, it affects the pilosebaceous unit.
20. Drug eruption may be seen as:
Correct Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation:
a. Pustular eruption: Common with certain drugs like corticosteroids.
b. Bullous eruption: Seen in conditions like Stevens-Johnson Syndrome.
c. Lichenoid eruption: Certain drugs (e.g., antimalarials) can cause this.
d. All of the above: Correct.
e. None of the above: Incorrect.
Q20: Drug eruption may be seen as:
Options:
a. Pustular eruption.
b. Bullous eruption.
c. Lichenoid eruption.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Explanation:
Drug eruptions can manifest in a variety of forms, depending on the drug involved and the patient's immune response:
Pustular eruption: Seen in drug-induced acneiform eruptions.
Bullous eruption: Drugs like sulfonamides or antibiotics can cause bullous pemphigoid or Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Lichenoid eruption: Medications such as antimalarials and beta-blockers can cause lichen planus-like eruptions.
Q21: A plaque is:
Options:
a. Patch of abnormal change of skin texture.
b. Area of depigmentation.
c. The primary lesion of acne vulgaris.
d. Localized epidermal collection of fluid.
e. Deroofed burrow.
Correct Answer: a. Patch of abnormal change of skin texture.
Explanation:
A plaque is a raised, flat-topped lesion larger than 1 cm in diameter. It often arises from the confluence of papules and is characteristic of diseases like psoriasis.
(b) Area of depigmentation: Refers to hypopigmented macules, seen in vitiligo.
(c) Primary lesion of acne vulgaris: This would be a papule or pustule, not a plaque.
(d) Localized epidermal collection of fluid: Describes a vesicle or bulla.
(e) Deroofed burrow: Seen in scabies, not a plaque.
Q22: The following may be observed in alopecia areata:
Options:
a. Itching.
b. Comedones.
c. Vesicles.
d. Adherent scales.
e. Exclamation mark hairs.
Correct Answer: e. Exclamation mark hairs.
Explanation:
Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition characterized by well-demarcated patches of hair loss. Exclamation mark hairs, which are hairs that are broken and tapering near the base, are a hallmark finding.
(a) Itching: Rare in alopecia areata.
(b) Comedones: Characteristic of acne, not alopecia areata.
(c) Vesicles: Seen in vesicular dermatoses like herpes, not alopecia areata.
(d) Adherent scales: Seen in scalp psoriasis or seborrheic dermatitis.
Q23: In leprosy:
Options:
a. Lepromatous, borderline lepromatous, and borderline tuberculoid leprosy are paucibacillary forms of the disease.
b. Nerve invasion is late in tuberculoid leprosy.
c. Numerous patches are characteristic of tuberculoid leprosy.
d. All of the above is true.
e. None of the above is true.
Correct Answer: e. None of the above is true.
Explanation:
(a): Lepromatous and borderline lepromatous leprosy are multibacillary forms, not paucibacillary.
(b): Nerve invasion occurs early in tuberculoid leprosy, leading to nerve damage and anesthesia.
(c): Tuberculoid leprosy typically presents with fewer patches, which are hypopigmented and anesthetic.
Q24: The primary lesion of molluscum contagiosum is:
Options:
a. Macule.
b. Papule.
c. Plaque.
d. Vesicle.
e. Pustule.
Correct Answer: b. Papule.
Explanation:
Molluscum contagiosum presents with pearly, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication.
(a) Macule: Flat lesions; molluscum lesions are raised.
(c) Plaque: Larger, flat-topped lesions.
(d) Vesicle: Fluid-filled lesions; not characteristic of molluscum.
(e) Pustule: Contains pus, unlike molluscum papules.
Q25: All the following diseases may be sexually transmitted EXCEPT:
Options:
a. Scabies.
b. Molluscum contagiosum.
c. Condyloma acuminata.
d. Eczema herpeticum.
e. Herpes progenitalis.
Correct Answer: d. Eczema herpeticum.
Explanation:
Eczema herpeticum is a viral infection superimposed on eczematous skin, typically caused by HSV, but it is not sexually transmitted.
(a): Scabies can spread through close contact, including sexual contact.
(b): Molluscum contagiosum may spread sexually if present in the genital area.
(c): Condyloma acuminata (genital warts) is caused by HPV and is sexually transmitted.
(e): Herpes progenitalis is caused by HSV and is a common STD.
Q26: Vitiligo may be confused with:
Options:
a. Pityriasis alba.
b. Leprosy.
c. Pityriasis versicolor.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Explanation:
Vitiligo presents as well-demarcated depigmented patches. It can resemble:
Pityriasis alba: Hypopigmented patches with slight scaling.
Leprosy: Hypopigmented, anesthetic patches.
Pityriasis versicolor: Hypopigmented or hyperpigmented patches caused by a fungal infection.
Q27: Scrofuloderma is a type of cutaneous T.B. where there is breakdown of the skin overlying:
Options:
a. Bone.
b. Lymph gland.
c. Joint.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Explanation:
Scrofuloderma results from the direct extension of tuberculosis infection from deeper tissues, such as:
Bone: Tuberculous osteomyelitis.
Lymph gland: Commonly cervical lymph nodes.
Joint: Tuberculous arthritis.
Q28: Kerion:
Options:
a. Is a boggy swelling simulating an abscess.
b. May lead to scarring alopecia.
c. Is usually caused by fungi of animal origin.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Explanation:
Kerion is a severe inflammatory form of tinea capitis:
(a): Boggy swelling due to intense inflammation.
(b): Scarring alopecia occurs if left untreated.
(c): Often caused by zoophilic fungi (e.g., Microsporum canis).
Q29: Bullous impetigo:
Options:
a. Is a purely staphylococcal infection.
b. Is a mixed staphylococcal and streptococcal infection.
c. Affects neonates.
d. (a) + (c).
e. (b) + (c).
Correct Answer: d. (a) + (c).
Explanation:
(a): Caused by Staphylococcus aureus, producing exfoliative toxins.
(c): Common in neonates and infants.
(b): Bullous impetigo is purely staphylococcal, unlike non-bullous impetigo, which can involve streptococci.
Q30: Erythema multiforme is commonly precipitated by:
Options:
a. Spicy food.
b. Herpes simplex.
c. Herpes zoster.
d. Corticosteroids.
e. All of the above.
Correct Answer: b. Herpes simplex.
Explanation:
Herpes simplex virus is the most common trigger for erythema multiforme, characterized by target lesions.
(a): Spicy food does not precipitate erythema multiforme.
(c): Herpes zoster is not a common cause.
(d): Corticosteroids may suppress immune responses but are not causative.
30. Erythema multiforme is commonly precipitated by:
Correct Answer: b. Herpes simplex
Explanation:
a. Spicy food: Not a recognized trigger for erythema multiforme. Dietary factors generally do not play a role.
b. Herpes simplex: The most common trigger of erythema multiforme. It is often associated with recurrent HSV infections.
c. Herpes zoster: While a viral infection, it is not a frequent cause of erythema multiforme.
d. Corticosteroids: These are used for treatment in severe cases, not a trigger.
e. All of the above: Incorrect, as spicy food and corticosteroids are not relevant.
31. Pediculosis capitis may be treated by:
Correct Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation:
a. Malathione: An organophosphate used as a topical insecticide for head lice.
b. Gamma benzene hexachloride: Effective against head lice but may have neurotoxicity concerns.
c. Permethrin: Commonly used and considered safe for treating pediculosis capitis.
d. All of the above: Correct, as all these options are valid treatments for head lice.
e. None of the above: Incorrect, as effective treatments are listed.
32. Post scabeitic nodules:
Correct Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation:
a. Represent a hypersensitivity reaction to parasites: These nodules are due to an allergic reaction to retained mite antigens.
b. Present commonly on the scrotum: This is a characteristic site for post-scabetic nodules in men.
c. Cause severe itching: Persistent pruritus is a hallmark symptom.
d. All of the above: Correct, as all these statements describe features of post-scabeitic nodules.
e. None of the above: Incorrect, as features listed are true.
33. The main complaint in vitiligo is:
Correct Answer: e. None of the above
Explanation:
a. Itching: Vitiligo is a depigmenting disorder without pruritus.
b. Pain: Pain is not a feature of vitiligo.
c. Burning sensation: Uncharacteristic of vitiligo, which is asymptomatic.
d. All of the above: Incorrect, as these symptoms do not align with vitiligo.
e. None of the above: Correct, as vitiligo typically presents only as depigmented patches without discomfort.
34. All of the following are types of cutaneous TB EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: d. Erythema nodosum
Explanation:
a. Scrofuloderma: A form of cutaneous TB involving lymph nodes.
b. Lupus vulgaris: The most common form of cutaneous TB, presenting with chronic lesions.
c. Lichen scrofulosorum: A rare TB-related skin condition seen in children.
d. Erythema nodosum: Not a type of cutaneous TB; it is a panniculitis that can be associated with TB but is not a TB lesion itself.
e. T.B. verrucosa cutis: A warty form of TB due to inoculation in previously sensitized individuals.
35. Tinea cruris may be confused with:
Correct Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation:
a. Flexural psoriasis: Both conditions can present as erythematous patches in skin folds.
b. Erythrasma: Caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum, this bacterial infection also affects intertriginous areas and mimics tinea cruris.
c. Candidal intertrigo: Presents in skin folds and can mimic dermatophyte infections.
d. All of the above: Correct, as these conditions can resemble tinea cruris.
e. None of the above: Incorrect, as all options listed are possible mimics.
36. Lichen planus actinicus usually affects:
Correct Answer: e. None of the above
Explanation:
a. Upper back: Lichen planus actinicus commonly involves sun-exposed areas, not the upper back.
b. Genitalia: Not characteristic of the actinic subtype of lichen planus.
c. Nails: Nail involvement is typical of other forms of lichen planus, not the actinic subtype.
d. All of the above: Incorrect, as these sites are not typical for lichen planus actinicus.
e. None of the above: Correct, as it typically involves sun-exposed areas like the face and forearms.
37. Chronic eczema is characterized by:
Correct Answer: c. Lichenification
Explanation:
a. Itching: Common but not specific to chronic eczema.
b. Vesiculation: Seen more in acute eczema, not chronic.
c. Lichenification: Thickened, leathery skin due to chronic scratching or rubbing; characteristic of chronic eczema.
d. (a) + (b): Incorrect, as vesiculation is not typical of chronic eczema.
e. (a) + (c): Incorrect, as lichenification is the most specific feature.
38. All of the following are characteristic of lupus vulgaris EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: d. The disease is acute and disseminated
Explanation:
a. It may lead to scarring: Chronic lesions can cause scarring.
b. Tuberculin test is usually positive: Reflects a strong immune response to TB antigens.
c. Mutilations may occur: Severe, untreated cases can cause tissue destruction.
d. The disease is acute and disseminated: Lupus vulgaris is a chronic, localized form of cutaneous TB.
e. It commonly affects children: Often seen in younger individuals.
39. Evanescent elevations of the skin caused by edema of the dermis are:
Correct Answer: c. Wheals
Explanation:
a. Macules: Flat lesions without elevation or edema.
b. Papules: Solid, elevated lesions without dermal edema.
c. Wheals: Transient, elevated lesions due to dermal edema, characteristic of urticaria.
d. Nodules: Solid, deep-seated lesions extending into the dermis or subcutis.
e. Crusts: Dried exudate on the skin surface, not an edematous lesion.
40. All of the following are bacterial infections EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: e. Kerion
Explanation:
a. Impetigo: A superficial bacterial infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.
b. Erysipelas: Caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
c. Furuncles: Deep bacterial infections of hair follicles caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Cellulitis: A deeper bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
e. Kerion: A fungal infection presenting as an inflamed, boggy lesion of the scalp.
40. All of the following are bacterial infections EXCEPT:
a. Impetigo
Correct: Impetigo is a superficial bacterial infection, often caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.
b. Erysipelas
Correct: Erysipelas is an acute bacterial skin infection involving the upper dermis and is commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
c. Furuncles
Correct: Furuncles (boils) are bacterial infections of hair follicles caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Cellulitis
Correct: Cellulitis is a bacterial infection affecting the deeper dermis and subcutaneous tissues, commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus.
e. Kerion
Incorrect: Kerion is a fungal infection caused by dermatophytes, not bacteria. It is an inflammatory response to tinea capitis.
Answer: e. Kerion
41. Topical treatment of candidiasis includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Castellani’s paint
Correct: Used as a topical antiseptic for candidiasis.
b. Gentian violet
Correct: An antifungal agent used topically for oral and cutaneous candidiasis.
c. Tincture iodine
Incorrect: It is an antiseptic but not specific for candidiasis and can cause skin irritation.
d. Imidazole compounds
Correct: A group of antifungals (e.g., clotrimazole) effective for candidiasis.
e. Nystatin
Correct: An antifungal agent used topically or orally for candidiasis.
Answer: c. Tincture iodine
42. The skin appendages include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Sebaceous glands
Correct: Part of the pilosebaceous unit, classified as skin appendages.
b. Eccrine sweat glands
Correct: Involved in thermoregulation and classified as appendages.
c. Melanocytes
Incorrect: Melanocytes are pigment-producing cells found in the basal layer of the epidermis, not classified as appendages.
d. Apocrine sweat glands
Correct: Specialized sweat glands, such as those in the axillae and groin, are appendages.
e. Hair
Correct: Hair is a skin appendage derived from follicles in the dermis.
Answer: c. Melanocytes
43. Discoid lupus erythematosus is best treated by:
a. Topical antimalarials only
Incorrect: Not sufficient alone for DLE.
b. Topical antimalarials + systemic antimalarials
Incorrect: Systemic treatment often requires steroids for inflammation control.
c. Topical antimalarials + topical steroids
Incorrect: A combined topical approach can be helpful but is usually inadequate for severe cases.
d. Topical antimalarials + systemic steroids
Incorrect: Steroids alone cannot address all aspects of the disease.
e. Systemic antimalarials + topical steroids
Correct: Systemic antimalarials (e.g., hydroxychloroquine) combined with topical steroids are the standard treatment for controlling inflammation and autoimmune responses in DLE.
Answer: e. Systemic antimalarials + topical steroids
44. Erythema multiforme may be precipitated by:
a. Herpes simplex infection
Correct: HSV is the most common precipitating factor.
b. Drugs
Correct: Medications like sulfonamides, NSAIDs, and antibiotics can trigger EM.
c. Internal malignancy
Correct: Rare but possible.
d. Pregnancy
Correct: Hormonal changes may contribute.
e. All of the above
Correct: All these factors are recognized triggers of erythema multiforme.
Answer: e. All of the above
45. Animal scabies is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Short incubation period
Correct: Animal scabies has a shorter incubation compared to human scabies.
b. Absence of burrows
Correct: Animal mites do not burrow into human skin.
c. Being self-limited
Correct: Symptoms often resolve once exposure to the mite ends.
d. Short duration
Correct: Symptoms resolve quickly as the mites cannot sustain their lifecycle on humans.
e. Transmitted from humans to humans
Incorrect: Animal scabies is transmitted from animals, not between humans.
Answer: e. Transmitted from humans to humans
46. Psoriasis may present by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Flexural affection
Correct: Inverse psoriasis affects flexures.
b. Joint affection
Correct: Psoriatic arthritis is a recognized comorbidity.
c. Pustular eruption
Correct: Pustular psoriasis is a severe form of the disease.
d. Nail pitting
Correct: Nail pitting is a common feature in psoriasis.
e. Cicatricial alopecia
Incorrect: Psoriasis does not typically cause scarring alopecia.
Answer: e. Cicatricial alopecia
47. Kerion is:
a. Staph. infection of the hair follicle
Incorrect: Kerion is caused by fungi, not bacteria.
b. Associated with systemic manifestations
Incorrect: While severe, kerion rarely causes systemic symptoms.
c. A disease which never leads to cicatricial alopecia
Incorrect: Kerion can lead to scarring and permanent hair loss.
d. All of the above
Incorrect: As explained, all options above are false.
e. None of the above
Correct: Kerion is a fungal inflammatory reaction, not bacterial or systemic.
Answer: e. None of the above
48. Verrucae vulgaris are:
a. Genital warts
Incorrect: Genital warts are condyloma acuminata.
b. Plantar warts
Incorrect: Plantar warts occur on soles.
c. Common warts
Correct: Verrucae vulgaris are common warts caused by HPV.
d. Plane warts
Incorrect: Plane warts (flat warts) are a different presentation of HPV.
e. Filiform warts
Incorrect: Filiform warts are elongated and occur on the face or neck.
Answer: c. Common warts
49. Post-scabeitic nodules:
a. Never cause itching
Incorrect: They can cause itching due to hypersensitivity.
b. Are usually located on the back
Incorrect: Commonly found on scrotum, axillae, or abdomen.
c. Are best treated by antibiotics
Incorrect: Antibiotics are ineffective; treatment involves antihistamines and steroids.
d. All of the above
Incorrect: None of these statements are true.
e. None of the above
Correct: Post-scabeitic nodules are due to hypersensitivity and treated accordingly.
Answer: e. None of the above
50. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted skin disease?
a. Herpes progenitalis
Correct: Caused by HSV, it is sexually transmitted.
b. Condyloma acuminata
Correct: Caused by HPV, it is sexually transmitted.
c. Molluscum contagiosum
Correct: Can be sexually transmitted through direct contact.
d. All of the above
Correct: All listed are sexually transmitted diseases.
e. None of the above
Incorrect: This option contradicts the above evidence.
Answer: d. All of the above
55. Cutaneous manifestations of candida include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: c- Favus.
Explanation:
a- Intertrigo: Candida commonly causes intertrigo, particularly in moist skin folds.
b- Erosio interdigitalis blastomycetica: A specific candida infection affecting the web spaces of fingers or toes.
c- Favus: Incorrect. Favus is caused by a dermatophyte infection (Trichophyton schoenleinii), not candida.
d- Paronychia: Candida frequently causes paronychia, particularly in chronic cases.
e- Perleche: Candida is a common cause of angular cheilitis or perleche.
56. The following are bacterial infections EXCEPT:
Answer: b- Acne vulgaris.
Explanation:
a- Impetigo: A bacterial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.
b- Acne vulgaris: Incorrect. Although bacteria (Cutibacterium acnes) play a role, acne is primarily an inflammatory disorder.
c- Erythrasma: A bacterial infection caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum.
d- Erysipelas: A bacterial infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
e- Furuncles: Deep bacterial infections of hair follicles, commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
57. The following may help in the diagnosis of scabies:
Answer: d- All of the above.
Explanation:
a- Positive family history: Scabies is contagious and often affects families.
b- Night itching: A hallmark symptom of scabies due to increased activity of mites at night.
c- Distribution of lesions: Characteristic distribution in web spaces, wrists, and genitalia.
d- All of the above: Correct. All these features are diagnostic clues for scabies.
58. Mucous membrane affection may occur in all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: d- Papular urticaria.
Explanation:
a- Erythema multiforme: Often involves mucosal surfaces.
b- Varicella: Can involve mucous membranes in severe cases.
c- Drug eruption: Severe drug reactions (e.g., Stevens-Johnson syndrome) affect mucosal surfaces.
d- Papular urticaria: Incorrect. This condition does not involve mucous membranes.
e- Lichen planus: Frequently involves mucosal sites like the oral mucosa.
59. Cutaneous examination includes examination of:
Answer: e- All of the above.
Explanation:
a- Skin: The primary focus of dermatologic examination.
b- Hair: Disorders like alopecia areata and fungal infections require examination.
c- Nails: Conditions like psoriasis and onychomycosis affect nails.
d- Mucous membranes: Affected in various systemic and dermatologic diseases.
e- All of the above: Correct. A complete cutaneous exam encompasses all these areas.
60. The skin is considered:
Answer: e- All of the above.
Explanation:
a- An endocrine organ: Produces hormones like vitamin D.
b- A secretory organ: Secretes sweat and sebum.
c- A defensive organ: Protects against pathogens and physical damage.
d- An excretory organ: Excretes waste products like urea through sweat.
e- All of the above: Correct. The skin performs all these functions.
61. Wood’s light is used in the diagnosis of:
Answer: d- All of the above.
Explanation:
a- Tinea versicolor: Fluoresces yellow-green under Wood’s light.
b- Erythrasma: Fluoresces coral red due to porphyrins.
c- Favus: Shows blue-green fluorescence in some cases.
d- All of the above: Correct. Wood’s light aids in diagnosing all these conditions.
62. Complications of herpes simplex infection include:
Answer: e- All of the above.
Explanation:
a- Erythema multiforme: Triggered by herpes simplex infection.
b- Eczema herpeticum: A severe complication in atopic individuals.
c- Corneal ulcers: Caused by herpes keratitis.
d- Impetigo: Secondary bacterial infection of herpetic lesions.
e- All of the above: Correct. All are potential complications.
63. Laser may be used in the treatment of:
Answer: d- All of the above.
Explanation:
a- Warts: Laser therapy can destroy wart tissue.
b- Molluscum contagiosum: Laser can be used for resistant cases.
c- Acne scars: Fractional lasers improve scar appearance.
d- All of the above: Correct. Laser has multiple dermatological applications.
64. Mucous membrane affection may occur in all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: e- Acne vulgaris.
Explanation:
a- Lichen planus: Involves oral and genital mucosa.
b- Lupus erythematosus: Affects mucosal surfaces like the palate.
c- Erythema multiforme: Mucosal involvement is characteristic.
d- Herpes simplex: Frequently affects mucocutaneous junctions.
e- Acne vulgaris: Incorrect. Acne does not involve mucous membranes.