ch. 9-19 (use this one)

📘 Chapter 9: Microbial Control

Q: What microbial structure is used to test autoclave sterilization?
A: Endospores, because they are highly resistant and their destruction indicates effective sterilization.

Q: What is the phenol coefficient used for?
A: It measures the effectiveness of disinfectants compared to phenol.

💊 Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Drugs

Q: Who discovered the first antibiotic and what was it?
A: Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin.

Q: Why are there fewer drugs to treat eukaryotic infections?
A: Because eukaryotic cells are similar to human cells, making it harder to target pathogens without harming the host.

🧫 Chapter 14: Infection & Epidemiology

Q: What is the role of Staphylococcus aureus in the microbiota?
A: It’s a resident microbiota but can become an opportunistic pathogen.

Q: What do extracellular enzymes do for bacteria?
A: They help bacteria invade deeper tissues by breaking down host structures.

Q: What are airborne infections?
A: Infections transmitted via droplets or aerosols in the air.

Q: What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?
A: Incidence = new cases over time; Prevalence = total cases at a time.

Q: Who was Typhoid Mary?
A: A healthy human carrier of Salmonella typhi who unknowingly spread typhoid.

Q: What is an axenic environment?
A: An environment free from all microorganisms.

Q: How can normal microbiota change with body conditions?
A: Changes like pH or temperature can alter microbiota balance, leading to infections.

Q: Does contamination always cause infection?
A: No; pathogens need favorable conditions to cause disease.

🦠 Chapter 15: Innate Immunity

Q: How are eyes protected from infection?
A: Through blinking and tear fluid.

Q: What enzyme is in tear fluid?
A: Lysozyme.

Q: What is diapedesis?
A: Movement of white blood cells through blood vessel walls to infected tissue.

Q: What is chemotaxis?
A: Directed movement of immune cells toward infection sites.

Q: What does sweat contain to defend against microbes?
A: Salt, lysozymes, and antimicrobial peptides.

🧬 Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity

Q: What are the three types of antigens?
A: Exogenous, endogenous, and autoantigens.

Q: What is the most common antibody in blood?
A: IgG.

Q: What does ELISA test for?
A: Presence of antigens (direct ELISA) or antibodies (indirect ELISA).

Q: What surface proteins are on T lymphocytes?
A: CD4 on helper T cells, CD8 on cytotoxic T cells.

Q: What are the types of acquired immunity?
A: Natural active, natural passive, artificial active, and artificial passive.

🧴 Chapter 19: Skin Infections

Q: Why is skin a good barrier to infection?
A: It’s a physical, dry, acidic surface with antimicrobial peptides.

Q: What is an infection of the eyelid base called?
A: Sty (folliculitis).

Q: What strains produce beta-lactamase?
A: Some Staphylococcus aureus strains.

Q: What complications can arise from Streptococcus pyogenes skin infections?
A: Impetigo, erysipelas, necrotizing fasciitis.

Q: What causes Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?
A: Toxin-producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus.

Q: What is a carbuncle?
A: A cluster of boils caused by bacterial infection.

Q: What causes necrotizing fasciitis?
A: Streptococcus pyogenes.

Q: What was the first disease eradicated globally?
A: Smallpox.

Q: What are symptoms of gas gangrene?
A: Black tissue, gas bubbles, foul smell, rapid spread.

Q: What birth defects are caused by Rubella?
A: Congenital rubella syndrome—deafness, heart defects, mental delays.

Q: Why is S. aureus more invasive than S. epidermidis?
A: It has more virulence factors like enzymes and toxins.

Q: What skin layer anchors skin to deeper tissues?
A: Hypodermis.

Q: What is the role of M protein in S. pyogenes?
A: Helps evade phagocytosis.