AH

Med Surg Practice B

Question 1

A nurse is assessing a client who has sickle cell anemia and is in sickle cell crisis. Which of the following findings is the nurse’s priority?

  • A. Enlarged spleen

  • B. Hematuria

  • C. Pain

  • D. Slurred speech

Correct Answer: D. Slurred speech

Rationale: While pain is common in sickle cell crisis, slurred speech indicates cerebral hypoxia from sickling and possible stroke — this is the priority.

Question 2

A nurse and an assistive personnel (AP) are caring for a client who has bacterial meningitis. The nurse should give the AP which of the following instructions?

  • A. Wear a mask

  • B. Wear a gown

  • C. Keep the client’s room well-lit

  • D. Maintain the head of the bed at a 45° elevation

Correct Answer: A. Wear a mask

Rationale: Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions. A mask must be worn when within 3 ft of the client.

Question 3

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which client statement indicates understanding?

  • A. “I will take my temperature once a day.”

  • B. “I will eat fresh fruits and vegetables every day.”

  • C. “I will keep my toothbrush in the dishwasher once a month.”

  • D. “I will drink cold liquids that have been sitting out for 30 minutes.”

Correct Answer: A. I will take my temperature once a day.

Rationale: Clients receiving chemotherapy are immunocompromised. Daily temperature monitoring helps detect infection early.

Question 4

A nurse is assessing a client who has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  • A. Weight gain

  • B. Bradycardia

  • C. Exophthalmos

  • D. Cold intolerance

Correct Answer: C. Exophthalmos

Rationale: Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) is a classic finding of hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease).

Question 5

A nurse is assessing a client who has a cast on their lower extremity and reports increasing pain despite analgesia. Which of the following findings indicates compartment syndrome?

  • A. Pallor of the toes

  • B. Bounding pedal pulses

  • C. Temperature of 98.6°F

  • D. Capillary refill less than 2 seconds

Correct Answer: A. Pallor of the toes

Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by the 6 P’s: Pain, Pallor, Paresthesia, Paralysis, Pulselessness, and Poikilothermia. Pallor is a warning sign.

Question 6

A nurse is caring for a client with cholecystitis. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

  • A. Mashed potatoes

  • B. Turkey sandwich

  • C. Broiled salmon

  • D. Fried chicken

Correct Answer: D. Fried chicken

Rationale: Clients with cholecystitis should avoid fatty, fried foods to prevent gallbladder stimulation and pain.

Question 7

A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  • A. Bradycardia

  • B. Pallor

  • C. Weight gain

  • D. Hypertension

Correct Answer: B. Pallor

Rationale: A common manifestation of anemia is pallor due to decreased hemoglobin and oxygen delivery to tissues.

Question 8

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

  • A. “I will eat foods high in potassium.”

  • B. “I will take this medication at bedtime.”

  • C. “I will weigh myself once a week.”

  • D. “I will increase my sodium intake.”

Correct Answer: A. I will eat foods high in potassium.

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss. The client should increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia.

Question 9

A nurse is assessing a client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  • A. Warm, reddened skin

  • B. Diminished pedal pulses

  • C. Edema in lower extremities

  • D. Brown pigmentation of ankles

Correct Answer: B. Diminished pedal pulses

Rationale: PAD results from decreased arterial blood flow, causing diminished or absent pulses, cool skin, and intermittent claudication.

Question 10

A nurse is teaching a client who has burns about ways to prevent infection. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding?

  • A. “I will wear nylon clothing to protect my skin.”

  • B. “I will apply lotion that contains alcohol.”

  • C. “I will take my prescribed antibiotics until finished.”

  • D. “I will limit protein intake in my diet.”

Correct Answer: C. I will take my prescribed antibiotics until finished.

Rationale: Burn clients are at high risk for infection. Completing prescribed antibiotics helps prevent resistant infections.

Question 11

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about foot care with a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

  • A. Soak your feet in warm water daily.

  • B. Wear cotton socks with shoes.

  • C. Trim toenails in a rounded shape.

  • D. Apply lotion between the toes.

Correct Answer: B. Wear cotton socks with shoes.

Rationale: Diabetic clients should wear clean cotton socks to reduce risk of infection. No soaking (skin breakdown), nails straight across, and avoid lotion between toes (moisture → infection).

Question 12

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  • A. Place pillows under both knees.

  • B. Position the client’s hip at less than 90° flexion.

  • C. Turn the client onto the operative side every 2 hours.

  • D. Place a pillow under the client’s calf.

Correct Answer: B. Position the client’s hip at less than 90° flexion.

Rationale: After hip replacement, avoid hip flexion > 90°, adduction, or internal rotation to prevent dislocation.

Question 13

A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority?

  • A. Fever

  • B. Productive cough

  • C. Shortness of breath

  • D. Fatigue

Correct Answer: C. Shortness of breath

Rationale: Airway and oxygenation take priority (ABC framework). SOB indicates impaired gas exchange.

Question 14

A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

  • A. Administer IV insulin infusion.

  • B. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV bolus.

  • C. Administer potassium chloride.

  • D. Obtain a serum glucose level.

Correct Answer: B. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV bolus.

Rationale: Priority in DKA is fluid replacement to restore perfusion before insulin.

Question 15

A nurse is teaching a client who has angina about nitroglycerin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding?

  • A. “I will take a dose every 30 minutes until the pain is gone.”

  • B. “I will stop taking it if I feel dizzy.”

  • C. “I will call 911 if pain is not relieved after three doses.”

  • D. “I will take it with food to avoid stomach upset.”

Correct Answer: C. “I will call 911 if pain is not relieved after three doses.”

Rationale: Sublingual nitro: take one every 5 min, up to 3 doses. If unresolved, call 911.

Question 16

A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client receiving warfarin. Which of the following INR results indicates the medication is therapeutic?

  • A. 1.0

  • B. 2.5

  • C. 4.5

  • D. 6.0

Correct Answer: B. 2.5

Rationale: Therapeutic INR for anticoagulation = 2.0–3.0 (higher for mechanical valves).

Question 17

A nurse is teaching a client about continuous cardiac telemetry. Which statement indicates understanding?

  • A. “This measures how much blood my heart is pumping.”

  • B. “This identifies if I have a defective heart valve.”

  • C. “This identifies if the pacemaker cells are working properly.”

  • D. “This measures circulation to my heart muscle.”

Correct Answer: C. “This identifies if the pacemaker cells are working properly.”

Rationale: Telemetry monitors cardiac rhythm, conduction, and dysrhythmias, not cardiac output or perfusion.

Question 18

A nurse is teaching a client who has partial-thickness burns of both arms. Which of the following interventions promotes healing?

  • A. Apply a topical antimicrobial ointment.

  • B. Leave blisters intact.

  • C. Apply an occlusive dressing with ice.

  • D. Cleanse the wounds daily with hydrogen peroxide.

Correct Answer: A. Apply a topical antimicrobial ointment.

Rationale: Antimicrobials (silver sulfadiazine, bacitracin) prevent infection and promote healing. Blisters may need debridement.

Question 19

A nurse is teaching a client who has HIV infection about effective antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which of the following findings indicates effectiveness?

  • A. Decreased viral load

  • B. Increased WBC count

  • C. Decreased CD4 count

  • D. Increased serum creatinine

Correct Answer: A. Decreased viral load

Rationale: Goal of ART is to suppress viral load to undetectable levels, preserving immune function.

Question 20

A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following nephrectomy. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

  • A. Abdominal pain

  • B. Urine output 25 mL/hr

  • C. Blood pressure 88/56 mm Hg

  • D. Report of fatigue

Correct Answer: C. Blood pressure 88/56 mm Hg

Rationale: Hypotension indicates possible hemorrhage or shock → priority.

Question 21

A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which finding should the nurse expect?

  • A. Hypertension

  • B. Oliguria

  • C. Polyuria

  • D. Weight gain

Correct Answer: C. Polyuria

Rationale: Diabetes insipidus = deficiency of ADH → excretion of large volumes of dilute urine → dehydration.

Question 22

A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to water seal drainage. Which finding requires intervention?

  • A. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber

  • B. Fluctuations in the water seal chamber with respirations

  • C. Drainage of 50 mL in 8 hours

  • D. Occasional bubbling with coughing

Correct Answer: A. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber

Rationale: Continuous bubbling = air leak. Intermittent bubbling is expected.

Question 23

A nurse is teaching a client with a cast about compartment syndrome. Which finding should the client report immediately?

  • A. Itching under the cast

  • B. Swelling of the toes

  • C. Numbness of the fingers

  • D. Warmth of the extremity

Correct Answer: C. Numbness of the fingers

Rationale: Numbness = neurovascular compromise, a late sign of compartment syndrome.

Question 24

A nurse is caring for a client who received morphine for severe pain. Which finding is the nurse’s priority?

  • A. Constipation

  • B. Urinary retention

  • C. Respiratory rate 10/min

  • D. Nausea

Correct Answer: C. Respiratory rate 10/min

Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse effect of opioids.

Question 25

A nurse is planning care for a client who has tuberculosis. Which intervention should the nurse include?

  • A. Wear an N95 respirator mask when entering the room.

  • B. Initiate droplet precautions.

  • C. Provide disposable utensils.

  • D. Place the client in a semiprivate room.

Correct Answer: A. Wear an N95 respirator mask when entering the room.

Rationale: TB requires airborne precautions: N95 mask, negative pressure room, private room.

Question 26

A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following parathyroidectomy. Which finding is the priority?

  • A. Hoarseness

  • B. Muscle twitching

  • C. Dry skin

  • D. Constipation

Correct Answer: B. Muscle twitching

Rationale: Muscle twitching indicates hypocalcemia (low PTH removal). Risk of laryngospasm → airway compromise.

Question 27

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

  • A. Respiratory acidosis

  • B. Oxygen toxicity

  • C. Hypercarbia

  • D. Nasal mucosal dryness

Correct Answer: D. Nasal mucosal dryness

Rationale: Low-flow O₂ causes dryness; humidification may be needed.

Question 28

A nurse is assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires intervention?

  • A. Blood glucose 220 mg/dL

  • B. BUN 18 mg/dL

  • C. Weight gain 0.5 kg in 1 week

  • D. Urine output 40 mL/hr

Correct Answer: A. Blood glucose 220 mg/dL

Rationale: TPN can cause hyperglycemia → monitor and report elevated blood glucose.

Question 29

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic constipation about dietary fiber. Which food should the nurse recommend?

  • A. White rice

  • B. Bananas

  • C. Kidney beans

  • D. Yogurt

Correct Answer: C. Kidney beans

Rationale: High-fiber foods (beans, whole grains, vegetables) promote bowel regularity.

Question 30

A nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which finding indicates the client is improving?

  • A. Respiratory rate 28/min

  • B. O₂ saturation 95% on room air

  • C. Productive cough with yellow sputum

  • D. Crackles in posterior bases

Correct Answer: B. O₂ saturation 95% on room air

Rationale: Improved oxygenation indicates pneumonia resolution. Persistent crackles and sputum indicate ongoing infection.

Question 31

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has venous insufficiency. Which of the following statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

  • A. “I should avoid walking as much as possible.”

  • B. “I should sit and read for several hours each day.”

  • C. “I will wear clean graduated compression stockings every day.”

  • D. “I will keep my legs level with my body when I sleep at night.”

Correct Answer: C. “I will wear clean graduated compression stockings every day.”

Rationale: Compression stockings reduce venous pooling and edema. Clients with venous insufficiency should also elevate legs and avoid prolonged sitting/standing.

Question 32

A nurse is teaching a client who has migraines and is taking feverfew. Which of the following medications can interact with feverfew?

  • A. Metoprolol

  • B. Bupropion

  • C. Atorvastatin

  • D. Naproxen

Correct Answer: D. Naproxen

Rationale: Feverfew has antiplatelet effects and can increase bleeding risk with NSAIDs like naproxen.

Question 33

A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving long-term mechanical ventilation via tracheostomy. Which of the following complications is associated with this treatment?

  • A. Elevated blood pressure

  • B. Dehydration

  • C. Stress ulcers

  • D. Hypernatremia

Correct Answer: C. Stress ulcers

Rationale: Critically ill, ventilated clients are at risk for stress ulcers; prophylaxis with PPIs/H2 blockers is indicated.

Question 34

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

  • A. “I will avoid foods that are high in ascorbic acid.”

  • B. “I will add oatmeal to my bath water.”

  • C. “I will urinate every 6 hours.”

  • D. “I will take daily cranberry supplements.”

Correct Answer: D. “I will take daily cranberry supplements.”

Rationale: Cranberry reduces bacterial adherence in the urinary tract. Clients should also void frequently and increase fluids.

Question 35

A nurse is caring for a client who received magnesium sulfate 1 g IV bolus. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

  • A. Hyperreflexia

  • B. Increased blood pressure

  • C. Respiratory paralysis

  • D. Tachycardia

Correct Answer: C. Respiratory paralysis

Rationale: Magnesium toxicity depresses the CNS → hyporeflexia, hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression/paralysis.

Question 36

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Alzheimer’s disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

  • A. Position tabletop clocks with multi-colored backgrounds.

  • B. Explain how to complete a task while the client is doing it.

  • C. Place a calendar on the wall with days and weeks included.

  • D. Create complete outfits and allow the client to select one daily.

Correct Answers: B and C

Rationale: Cueing with simple step-by-step instructions and orientation tools like calendars support independence. Too many choices or distractions increase confusion.

Question 37

A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

  • A. Explain procedures as they occur.

  • B. Place personal items at the client’s bedside.

  • C. Orient the client once per shift.

  • D. Encourage the family to stay home until the client adjusts.

Correct Answer: B. Place personal items at the client’s bedside.

Rationale: Familiar items provide comfort and orientation for dementia clients.

Question 38

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is postoperative following thyroidectomy with removal of parathyroid glands. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following foods is highest in calcium?

  • A. 12 almonds

  • B. One small banana

  • C. 1 tbsp peanut butter

  • D. ½ cup tomato juice

Correct Answer: A. 12 almonds

Rationale: Almonds are a good plant-based source of calcium, which is important after parathyroid removal due to risk of hypocalcemia.

Question 39

A nurse is reviewing admission history for a client scheduled for a CT scan with IV contrast. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

  • A. History of asthma

  • B. Appendectomy 1 year ago

  • C. Allergy to penicillin

  • D. History of knee arthroplasty 6 months ago

Correct Answer: A. History of asthma

Rationale: Asthma increases risk of allergic reaction to contrast dye.

Question 40

A nurse is teaching a client who is prescribed a TENS unit for bone cancer pain. Which effect should the nurse explain?

  • A. Produces feelings of heat

  • B. Provides cryotherapy

  • C. Realigns energy flow

  • D. Causes a tingling sensation that replaces pain

Correct Answer: D. Causes a tingling sensation that replaces pain

Rationale: TENS produces tingling/buzzing sensations that block pain signals via gate control theory.

Question 41

A nurse is caring for a client with emphysema on mechanical ventilation. The high-pressure alarm is sounding and the client is restless. Which action should the nurse take first?

  • A. Obtain ABGs

  • B. Administer propofol

  • C. Instruct the client to relax

  • D. Disconnect and manually ventilate the client

Correct Answer: D. Disconnect and manually ventilate the client

Rationale: High-pressure alarms = obstruction. If client is in distress, disconnect and bag to ensure oxygenation while troubleshooting.

Question 42

A nurse is planning referrals for clients. Which client should be referred to physical therapy?

  • A. Client receiving preoperative teaching for knee arthroplasty

  • B. Client who has difficulty obtaining a walker

  • C. Client with increased pain after hip arthroplasty

  • D. Client struggling emotionally with prosthesis

Correct Answer: A. Client receiving preoperative teaching for knee arthroplasty

Rationale: PT teaches exercises and mobility strategies pre-op to improve recovery. Other cases require social work or counseling

Question 43

A nurse is caring for a client 8 hr postoperative following total hip arthroplasty who is unable to void on the bedpan. Which action should the nurse take first?

  • A. Document intake and output

  • B. Scan bladder with portable ultrasound

  • C. Pour warm water over perineum

  • D. Straight catheterize

Correct Answer: B. Scan bladder with portable ultrasound

Rationale: Assess for urinary retention before invasive interventions.

Question 44

A nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin 600 mg PO daily. Available is phenytoin 125 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

  • A. 18 mL

  • B. 20 mL

  • C. 24 mL

  • D. 30 mL

Correct Answer: C. 24 mL

Rationale: 600 ÷ 125 × 5 = 24. Correct dose is 24 mL.

Question 45

A nurse is teaching a client with severe stage II Lyme disease. Which client statement shows understanding?

  • A. “I will need antibiotics for 1 year.”

  • B. “My partner needs antiviral medication.”

  • C. “My joints ache because of Lyme disease.”

  • D. “I bruise easily because of Lyme disease.”

Correct Answer: C. “My joints ache because of Lyme disease.”

Rationale: Stage II Lyme disease often causes musculoskeletal pain. Treatment is 2–4 weeks of antibiotics, not antivirals.

Question 46

A nurse is teaching a client with AIDS. Which statement indicates understanding?

  • A. “I will clean my toothbrush in the dishwasher once a month.”

  • B. “I will eat more fresh fruit and vegetables.”

  • C. “I will avoid drinking cold liquids left out.”

  • D. “I will take my temperature once a day.”

Correct Answer: D. “I will take my temperature once a day.”

Rationale: Daily temperature monitoring allows early infection detection in immunocompromised clients.

Question 47

A nurse is completing a pre-op assessment. Which food allergy suggests latex allergy?

  • A. Shellfish

  • B. Peanuts

  • C. Eggs

  • D. Avocados

Correct Answer: D. Avocados

Rationale: Latex–fruit syndrome includes avocado, banana, kiwi, chestnut, tomato.

Question 48

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client receiving radiation therapy for throat cancer. Which statement shows correct understanding?

  • A. “I will wash the ink markings off after each treatment.”

  • B. “I will use my hands instead of a washcloth to clean the area.”

  • C. “I can be out in the sun 1 month after treatments.”

  • D. “I will use a heating pad if my neck is sore.”

Correct Answer: B. “I will use my hands instead of a washcloth to clean the area.”

Rationale: Skin in radiation field must be handled gently. Markings should not be removed.

Question 49

A nurse is reviewing meds for a client scheduled for cataract surgery. Which medication is a contraindication?

  • A. Warfarin

  • B. Atorvastatin

  • C. Metoprolol

  • D. Insulin glargine

Correct Answer: A. Warfarin

Rationale: Anticoagulants increase bleeding risk during surgery.

Question 50

A nurse is caring for a client after TURP who has clots in the catheter and decreased urine output. What should the nurse do?

  • A. Remove catheter

  • B. Clamp catheter

  • C. Irrigate the catheter

  • D. Notify provider

Correct Answer: C. Irrigate the catheter

Rationale: Irrigation clears obstruction from clots and restores urine flow.

Question 51

A nurse is preparing a client for allergy skin testing. Which finding requires postponement?

  • A. Prednisone use

  • B. History of asthma

  • C. Recent URI

  • D. Family history of allergies

Correct Answer: A. Prednisone use

Rationale: Corticosteroids suppress immune response and interfere with results.

Question 52

A nurse is reviewing labs for a client with chest pain 6 hr ago. Which finding indicates MI?

  • A. Cortisol 0.9 mcg/dL

  • B. Amylase 440 units/L

  • C. Calcium 7.5 mg/dL

  • D. Troponin I 8 ng/mL

Correct Answer: D. Troponin I 8 ng/mL

Rationale: Troponin is the most specific marker for MI; elevated at 3–6 hr after onset.

Question 53

A nurse is assessing a client with acute cholecystitis. Which finding is the priority?

  • A. Anorexia

  • B. Abdominal pain radiating to right shoulder

  • C. Rebound tenderness

  • D. Tachycardia

Correct Answer: C. Rebound tenderness

Rationale: Rebound tenderness suggests peritonitis from possible rupture, a life-threatening complication.

Question 54

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client with radiation implant for cervical cancer. Which intervention should the nurse plan?

  • A. Keep a lead-lined container in the room

  • B. Allow visitors for 1 hr per day

  • C. Place a dosimeter badge on the client

  • D. Remove soiled linens daily

Correct Answer: A. Keep a lead-lined container in the room

Rationale: If implant dislodges, place in lead container with forceps.

Question 55

A nurse is updating the plan of care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding is the priority?

  • A. Sore throat

  • B. Memory loss

  • C. Alopecia

  • D. Mucositis

Correct Answer: A. Sore throat

Rationale: Sore throat may indicate infection, the greatest risk in immunosuppressed clients.

Question 56

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client about oral iron. Which statement indicates misunderstanding?

  • A. “I will take iron with a glass of milk.”

  • B. “I will avoid antacids with my iron.”

  • C. “I will include red meat in my diet.”

  • D. “I will increase fiber in my diet.”

Correct Answer: A. “I will take iron with a glass of milk.”

Rationale: Calcium inhibits absorption of iron. Best absorbed with vitamin C on an empty stomach.

Question 57

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client before a total knee arthroplasty. Which statement indicates understanding? (Select all that apply.)

  • A. “Physical therapy will start after I go home.”

  • B. “I will do breathing exercises every 1–2 hours after surgery.”

  • C. “I will ask for pain meds before my knee hurts too much.”

  • D. “I will probably go home with a walker.”

  • E. “I cannot change my mind about the surgery now.”

Correct Answers: B, C, D

Rationale: Clients should perform breathing exercises, request pain control before pain worsens, and expect a walker. PT starts in hospital.

Question 58

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 weeks postop gastrectomy and reports dizziness, tachycardia, and abdominal cramping after meals. Which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

  • A. Eat several small meals daily

  • B. Avoid highly seasoned foods

  • C. Maintain a high-carbohydrate intake

  • D. Eat high-protein snacks

  • E. Avoid drinking fluids with meals

  • F. Eat five servings of fruit daily

Correct Answers: A, B, D, E

Rationale: Dumping syndrome teaching: small frequent meals, avoid simple carbs, increase protein/fat, separate liquids from solids.

Question 59

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is receiving external beam radiation therapy. Which statement indicates understanding?

  • A. “I will use ice packs on my skin if it gets sore.”

  • B. “I will avoid direct sun exposure.”

  • C. “I will apply scented lotion to the area.”

  • D. “I will scrub the area gently with a washcloth.”

Correct Answer: B. “I will avoid direct sun exposure.”

Rationale: Radiation-treated skin is sensitive; avoid sunlight, heat, and harsh products.

Question 60

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client scheduled for cataract surgery. Which instruction should the nurse include?

  • A. “You will need to avoid bending over after surgery.”

  • B. “You should avoid wearing sunglasses after surgery.”

  • C. “You will need to sleep flat after surgery.”

  • D. “You should rub your eye if it itches.”

Correct Answer: A. “You will need to avoid bending over after surgery.”

Rationale: Bending increases intraocular pressure. Clients should also avoid rubbing and heavy lifting.

Question 61

A nurse is teaching a client with cirrhosis about dietary management. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

  • A. “I will limit my protein intake.”

  • B. “I will increase my sodium intake.”

  • C. “I will drink plenty of water.”

  • D. “I will eat high-fat foods.”

Correct Answer: A. “I will limit my protein intake.”

Rationale: Excess protein worsens ammonia buildup and hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhosis.

Question 62

A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which finding should the nurse expect?

  • A. Dependent edema

  • B. Jugular vein distention

  • C. Dyspnea on exertion

  • D. Hepatomegaly

Correct Answer: C. Dyspnea on exertion

Rationale: Left-sided HF causes pulmonary congestion → SOB, crackles, orthopnea. Right-sided HF causes edema and JVD.

Question 63

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for verapamil. Which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?

  • A. Constipation

  • B. Increased appetite

  • C. Frequent urination

  • D. Tinnitus

Correct Answer: A. Constipation

Rationale: Verapamil (calcium channel blocker) commonly causes constipation due to smooth muscle relaxation.

Question 64

A nurse is assessing a client who has peritonitis. Which finding is the priority?

  • A. Abdominal distention

  • B. Rigid, boardlike abdomen

  • C. Fever

  • D. Tachycardia

Correct Answer: B. Rigid, boardlike abdomen

Rationale: Indicates severe peritoneal inflammation/perforation and requires immediate intervention.

Question 65

A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about the use of a metered-dose inhaler. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

  • A. “I will shake the inhaler before each use.”

  • B. “I will exhale while pressing down on the inhaler.”

  • C. “I will inhale quickly while using the inhaler.”

  • D. “I will wait 5 seconds before using a second puff.”

Correct Answer: A. “I will shake the inhaler before each use.”

Rationale: Proper technique includes shaking, slow inhalation, and waiting 1–2 min before second puff.

Question 66

A nurse is caring for a client who has hypovolemic shock. Which IV fluid should the nurse anticipate administering first?

  • A. 0.9% sodium chloride

  • B. Lactated Ringer’s

  • C. 0.45% sodium chloride

  • D. Dextrose 5% in water

Correct Answer: A. 0.9% sodium chloride

Rationale: Isotonic fluids (NS, LR) are first-line for volume replacement in shock.

Question 67

A nurse is teaching a client who has a seizure disorder about phenytoin. Which statement indicates understanding?

  • A. “I should stop taking this medication if I feel better.”

  • B. “I will need to visit my dentist regularly.”

  • C. “I can drink alcohol occasionally while taking this.”

  • D. “I can skip a dose if I am sick.”

Correct Answer: B. “I will need to visit my dentist regularly.”

Rationale: Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia → requires good oral care and regular dental visits.

Question 68

A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which finding is the priority?

  • A. Headache

  • B. Projectile vomiting

  • C. Unequal pupils

  • D. Decerebrate posturing

Correct Answer: D. Decerebrate posturing

Rationale: Indicates severe brain injury and brainstem dysfunction → priority emergency finding.

Question 69

A nurse is reviewing labs of a client with suspected pancreatitis. Which finding is expected?

  • A. Decreased amylase

  • B. Increased lipase

  • C. Increased hemoglobin

  • D. Decreased bilirubin

Correct Answer: B. Increased lipase

Rationale: Elevated amylase and lipase are diagnostic for acute pancreatitis.

Question 70

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about furosemide. Which finding should the client report?

  • A. Muscle weakness

  • B. Tinnitus

  • C. Increased urination

  • D. Dizziness when standing

Correct Answer: B. Tinnitus

Rationale: Loop diuretics may cause ototoxicity → report ringing in the ears.

Question 71

A nurse is planning care for a client following stroke. Which intervention is the priority?

  • A. Encourage fluid intake

  • B. Maintain NPO status until swallowing is evaluated

  • C. Provide passive ROM

  • D. Reposition every 2 hr

Correct Answer: B. Maintain NPO status until swallowing is evaluated

Rationale: Prevents aspiration in clients with impaired gag reflex post-stroke.

Question 72

A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following thoracotomy. Which finding indicates the system is functioning correctly?

  • A. Constant bubbling in the water seal

  • B. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber with respirations

  • C. Drainage of 200 mL in 8 hr

  • D. Absence of tidaling

Correct Answer: B. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber with respirations

Rationale: Tidaling (fluctuation) = patent system. Constant bubbling = leak.

Question 73

A nurse is caring for a client with Addison’s disease. Which finding should the nurse expect?

  • A. Hypertension

  • B. Hypernatremia

  • C. Hyperpigmentation

  • D. Weight gain

Correct Answer: C. Hyperpigmentation

Rationale: Addison’s disease = adrenal insufficiency → bronze skin, hypotension, hyponatremia, weight loss.

Question 74

A nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the nurse take?

  • A. Suction for 30 seconds

  • B. Use surgical asepsis when suctioning

  • C. Hyperventilate with 100% O₂ before suctioning

  • D. Suction every 2 hours routinely

Correct Answer: C. Hyperventilate with 100% O₂ before suctioning

Rationale: Pre-oxygenate to prevent hypoxemia during suctioning. Limit suction to <10 sec.

Question 75

A nurse is assessing a client who has hypocalcemia. Which finding should the nurse expect?

  • A. Negative Chvostek’s sign

  • B. Hyperactive deep-tendon reflexes

  • C. Decreased bowel sounds

  • D. Bradycardia

Correct Answer: B. Hyperactive deep-tendon reflexes

Rationale: Hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability → tetany, twitching, hyperreflexia.

Question 76

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following thyroidectomy. Which assessment is the priority?

  • A. Temperature

  • B. Respiratory effort

  • C. Pain level

  • D. Bowel sounds

Correct Answer: B. Respiratory effort

Rationale: Post-thyroidectomy clients are at risk for airway obstruction due to edema/bleeding.

Question 77

A nurse is teaching a client who has AIDS. Which statement indicates understanding?

  • A. “I will clean my toothbrush in the dishwasher once a month.”

  • B. “I will eat more fresh fruit and vegetables.”

  • C. “I will avoid drinking cold liquids left out.”

  • D. “I will take my temperature once a day.”

Correct Answer: D. “I will take my temperature once a day.”

Rationale: Daily temp monitoring helps detect infection early.

Question 78

A nurse is teaching a client who is prescribed oral iron. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

  • A. “I will take my iron with a glass of milk.”

  • B. “I will avoid taking antacids with my iron.”

  • C. “I will eat red meat for extra iron.”

  • D. “I will eat high-fiber foods to prevent constipation.”

Correct Answer: A. “I will take my iron with a glass of milk.”

Rationale: Milk (calcium) inhibits absorption of iron. Take with vitamin C for best absorption.

Question 79

A nurse is obtaining a med history for a client scheduled for cataract surgery. Which med is contraindicated?

  • A. Warfarin

  • B. Atorvastatin

  • C. Metoprolol

  • D. Insulin

Correct Answer: A. Warfarin

Rationale: Anticoagulants increase risk of bleeding during surgery.

Question 80

A nurse is caring for a client after TURP who has clots in catheter and decreased urine output. Which action should the nurse take?

  • A. Remove the catheter

  • B. Clamp the catheter

  • C. Irrigate the catheter

  • D. Notify the provider

Correct Answer: C. Irrigate the catheter

Rationale: Irrigation restores patency by clearing clots.

Question 81

A nurse is preparing a client for allergy skin testing. Which finding requires postponement?

  • A. Prednisone use

  • B. History of asthma

  • C. Family history of allergies

  • D. Age over 50

Correct Answer: A. Prednisone use

Rationale: Corticosteroids suppress immune response and interfere with test accuracy.

Question 82

A nurse is assessing a client 6 hr after chest pain. Which lab finding confirms MI?

  • A. Cortisol 0.9 mcg/dL

  • B. Amylase 440 units/L

  • C. Calcium 7.5 mg/dL

  • D. Troponin I 8 ng/mL

Correct Answer: D. Troponin I 8 ng/mL

Rationale: Troponin is the most specific marker for MI.

Question 83

A nurse is assessing a client with acute cholecystitis. Which finding is priority?

  • A. Anorexia

  • B. RUQ pain radiating to right shoulder

  • C. Rebound tenderness

  • D. Tachycardia

Correct Answer: C. Rebound tenderness

Rationale: Indicates peritonitis, a life-threatening complication.

Question 84

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client receiving sealed internal radiation therapy. Which action should the nurse take?

  • A. Keep a lead container in the room

  • B. Limit visitors to 1 hr/day

  • C. Place dosimeter badge on the client

  • D. Remove soiled linens daily

Correct Answer: A. Keep a lead container in the room

Rationale: If implant dislodges, place in container with long-handled forceps.

Question 85

A nurse is updating care plan for a client on chemotherapy. Which finding is priority?

  • A. Sore throat

  • B. Memory loss

  • C. Alopecia

  • D. Mucositis

Correct Answer: A. Sore throat

Rationale: Infection risk is priority in immunocompromised clients.

Question 86

A nurse is teaching a client before total knee arthroplasty. Which statements indicate understanding? (Select all that apply.)

  • A. “I will begin PT after I go home.”

  • B. “I will use my incentive spirometer every 1–2 hr.”

  • C. “I will ask for pain medication before my knee hurts too much.”

  • D. “I will probably go home with a walker.”

  • E. “I cannot change my mind now.”

Correct Answers: B, C, D

Rationale: Clients should do breathing exercises, manage pain early, and use a walker after discharge. PT begins in hospital.

Question 87

A nurse is caring for a client 2 weeks post-gastrectomy with dizziness, tachycardia, and cramping after meals. Which teaching should the nurse reinforce? (Select all that apply.)

  • A. Eat several small meals daily

  • B. Avoid highly seasoned foods

  • C. Eat a high-carb diet

  • D. Consume high-protein snacks

  • E. Avoid fluids with meals

  • F. Eat 5 servings of fruit daily

Correct Answers: A, B, D, E

Rationale: These reduce dumping syndrome. Avoid simple carbs and drinking with meals.

Question 88

A nurse is teaching a client scheduled for cataract surgery. Which instruction should the nurse include?

  • A. “Avoid bending at the waist.”

  • B. “Do not wear sunglasses.”

  • C. “Lie flat after surgery.”

  • D. “Rub your eye if it itches.”

Correct Answer: A. “Avoid bending at the waist.”

Rationale: Bending increases intraocular pressure.

Question 89

A nurse is teaching a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which intervention is correct?

  • A. Keep lead container in room

  • B. Visitors 1 hr/day

  • C. Dosimeter badge on client

  • D. Remove linens daily

Correct Answer: A. Keep lead container in room

Rationale: For safety in case of implant dislodgement.

Question 90

A nurse is updating care plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding is priority?

  • A. Sore throat

  • B. Memory loss

  • C. Alopecia

  • D. Mucositis

Correct Answer: A. Sore throat

Rationale: Indicates possible infection, life-threatening in immunosuppressed clients.