HBS DRP

Define cells

The smallest unit of life made up of chemicals

Define tissues

A group of similar cells designed to carry out a specific function

Define organs

A group of similar tissues to carry out out a specific function

2 Main regions of the skeletal body systems

Appendicular and Axial

What does the Appedicular region consists of?

126 bones of the upper limbs, the lower limbs, the pectoral girdle, and the pelvic girdle. Femur (2) · Tibia (2) · Fibula (2) · Patella (2) · Tarsals (14) · Metatarsals (10) · Phalanges (28)

What does the Axial region consists of?

80 bones in your head, neck, back and chest.

What are the main types of tissue in the human body

Connective, epithelial, muscle & nervous

List the main function of the connective tissue.

Connective - #Joins

List the main function of the epithelial tissue

Epithelial - #Covers

List main function of the muscle tissue

Muscle - #Moves

List main function of the nervous tissue

Nervous - #Signals

Define homeostasis

A steady state, by monitoring changes in the internal and external environment and feeding this information back to the body so that it can make necessary changes.

List the structures of the Urinary System

kidneys (filter blood & make pee)
ureters (transport pee)
bladder (holds pee)
urethra (releases pee)

List the structures of the Nervous System

Brain (control center)
spinal cord (information highway)
peripheral nerves (carry signals to and from limbs)
eyes, ears, taste buds, etc (collect sensory info and send to brain)

List the structures of the Immune System

thymus promotes production of WBCs
tonsils trap pathogens
appendix stores good bacteria
spleen filters blood
lymph nodes (“water knots”) filter lymph fluid
skin prevents pathogens entering body

List the structures of the Digestive System

teeth/ tongue (breaks down and pushes down)
pharynx (food/air tube)
esophagus (“eater within”— food tube)
stomach (breaks down food)
small intestine (absorbs nutrients)
large intestine (absorbs water)
rectum (holds excrements)
anus (releases excrements)

List the structures of the Respiratory System

nasal cavity (opening to outside)
pharynx (air & food tube)
larynx (voice box, Adam’s apple)
trachea (“windpipe”— air tube)
epiglottis (“tongue on top”— prevents food entering air tube) 🡨🡪
bronchi (branch into lungs)
alveoli (“hollow”— site of gas exchange w/ blood)

List the structures of the Cardiovascular System

atria (“entrance halls” for blood)
ventricles (“bellies” that pump out blood)
arteries (carry blood away from heart)
arterioles (“little arteries”)
veins (bring blood to heart)
venules (“little veins”)
capillaries (“hair like”—sites of exchange with tissues)

List the structures of the Endocrine System

hypothalamus (The BOSS gland)
pituitary (Assistant Boss Gland)
pineal gland (sleep/ wake cycle)
adrenal (“near kidneys”—fight or flight)
thymus (develops immune)
testes/ ovaries (sex hormones)
thyroid (metabolic hormones)
pancreas (insulin)

List the structure of the Integumentary System

Skin

How can directional terms help describe location in the body?

Directional terms describe the position of anatomical structures in relation to other structures or locations in the body

How can regional terms help describe location in the body?

Regional terms specify distinct anatomical landmarks on the body

Define: Anterior/Ventral

Front/"belly"

Define: Posterior/Dorsal

Back

Define: Superior (“above”)

Higher

Define: Inferior (“below”)

Lower

Define: Lateral (“side”)

Toward the side

Define: Medial (“middle”)

Toward the middle

Define: Proximal (“far”)

On limb, nearer to attachment point

Define: Distal (“near”)

On limb, farther from attachment point

Define: Superficial (“above”)

more external, surface of body

Define: Deep (opposite of superficial)

more internal

What is the function of the immune/lymphatic systems?

The lymphatic system is important for the optimal functioning of our general and specific immune responses. The lymph nodes monitor the lymph flowing into them and produce cells and antibodies which protect our body from infection and disease.

How many bones do adult humans have?

206

What is the identity molecule in humans?

DNA. Some organisms use RNA, but all humans have DNA

What is the main function of the Skeletal system?

To protect the body’s internal organs while allowing for movement and great range of mobility.

What are 3 types of diagnostic instruments

X-rays, Magnetic Resonance Imaging(MRI), and Ultrasound

The length of long bones in the human body can be used to deduce which information?

Mathematically predict the overall height of an individual.

What are two differences you notice between the female and male pelvises?

Female pelvis is wide and shallow. Male is heart shape and narrow.

The clavicle, arm bones, and wrists are the most commonly broken bones in the body. Why might this be?

The first line of defense in a fall, people often outstretch their arms and hands, which take the greatest impact of the force. This force can cause the bones of the hands, wrists, and arms to break. This force also transfers to the clavicle.

What part of the skeletal system best determines age?

bone fusion (especially) in pelvis is best predictor of age

What part of the skeletal system best predicts height?

humerus and femur length are best predictors of height

Which tissue type lines, covers, and organizes the body?

Epithelial tissue

Define Anterior

Front

Define Posterior

Back

Define Medial

Towards the midline

Define Lateral

Away from the midline

Define Buccal

Cheek region

Define Cephalic

Head region

Define Thoracic

Mid body (sternal and axillary)

Define Cervical

neck

Define Axillary

Towards the armpits

Define Popliteal

Behind the knee

Define Calcaneal

The heel

Define Olecranal

Elbow

Define Antecubital

The forearm

Define Acromial

Shoulder

How many types of bone in HBS?

4 (long, short, irregular, and flat)

What is another word for spongy bone?

Cancellous bone

Spongy bone would primarily be located where in a longe bone?

Epiphysis

The hardest, most dense part of the bone tissue is called the?

Compact bone

The shaft of the bone is also called the?

Diaphysis

What is the epiphysis of a bone?

The END of a lonnng bone.

The thin outer layer of a bone called the?

Periosteum

Where are the blood cells made?

The bone marrow

Which bone is located in the lower leg and is commonly referred to as the shin bone?

Tibia

When focusing a specimen, always start with the _____________ objective.

Lowest

The study of human tissues is called ______.

Histology

______ tissue is responsible for generating movement in the body.

Muscle

What type of tissue is adipose tissue?

Connective

What does "orbicularis" mean?

Round

______ tissue is found in tendons and ligaments.

Connective

The ______ tissue is responsible for transmitting electrical signals in the body.

Nervous

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of internal organs?

Smoothe

Which type of muscle tissue is voluntary?

Skeletal

Where are the smallest bones in the body?

Inner ear (the stapes)

How many types of vertebrae in the body

5 types (Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, and Caudal (Coccygeal) of vertebrae.

How many vertebrae does Cervical have?

7 Cervical vertebrae.

How many vertebrae does Thoracic have?

12 Thoracic vertebrae

How many vertebrae does Lumbar have?

5 Lumbar vertebrae

How many vertebrae does Sacral have?

5 Sacral vertebrae

What allow for growth of skull and brain, when full size, they bones fuse together

Sutures in the cranium

How many vertebrae does Caudal (Coccygeal) have?

4 Caudal (Coccygeal) vertebrae

Where is adipose tissue found in the body?

Attached to and between other tissue types in the body (cushions)

What type of tissue is blood?

Connective

What are the four stages of bone remodeling (repairing a broken bone)?

1) formation of a hematoma at the break; 2) formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus; 3) formation of a bony callus; and 4) remodeling and addition of compact bone.

Which fracture involves the bone breaking up into many smaller pieces?

Comminuted

Which fracture results in a clean break straight across the bone?

Transverse

Which fracture is distinguished by a slanted fracture 360' along the outside of the bone?

Spiral

Which type of fracture typically results in at least two places, leaving a segment of the bone totally separated by the breaks.

Segmental

Which type of fracture involve the fractured bone breaking the skin of the victim?

Compound (Open)

Which type of fracture results in a broken bone, but the skin is intact?

Closed fracture (also called simple fracture).

Which type of fracture where a portion of the bone is broken, causing the other side to bend?

Greenstick

Which type of fracture is where the break is diagonal across the bone?

Oblique

List 3 types of femur fractures.

1. femoral head/neck, 2. trochanter, 3. shaft, and distal region.

Define 2 main types of femur repair

Plating and Nailing

Which type of femur repair is for the distal/proximal end of a bone?

Plating

Which type of femur repair is for the shaft of a bone?

Nailing

What are the anatomical features and directions of a femur?

Proximal (Femoral head, Trochanteric region, Femoral neck, Condyles, and Intra-articular) and distal (Medial, Lateral, Shaft, Extra-articular).

What is the shortest sequence of fracture repair?

Inflammation: creation of hematoma (3-5 days)

What is the longest sequence of fracture repair?

Bone remodeling 6-12 wks+

What are the osteocytes are responsible for bone remodeling?

Osteoblast and osteoclasts

Function of osteoblast?

(“bone sprouts”)
form new bone tissue, to replace those reabso

Function of osteoclast?

(“bone breakers”) break down and reabsorb bone tissue

List 3 types of forces in causing fractures.

Bending, Twisting, and Impact

What type of fracture does bending force cause?

Transverse

What type of fracture does transverse force cause?

Spiral

What type of fracture does impact force cause?

Comminuted

Which ion is released from the Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Ca2+

What is a flexible but inelastic cord of strong fibrous collagen tissue attaching a muscle to a bone.

Tendons

What is a process leading to shortening and/or development of tension in muscle tissue.

Contraction

What are the 3 types of muscles?

Skeletal, Smooth, and Cardiac

Define a skeletal muscle.

striated, attaches to bones, and allows movement of the body. Skeletal muscle is considered voluntary, because it acts under our conscious control.

Define a smooth muscle.

not striated. It is arranged in layered sheets and contracts in waves. Smooth muscle contracts involuntarily and is found in internal structures such as arteries and the digestive tract.

Define a cardiac muscle.

striated and found only in the heart. This tissue contracts involuntarily.

Describe what striated means in terms of muscle

the tissue looks striped when viewed under a microscope.

Describe what it means if a muscle is under voluntary control

a person’s conscious actions trigger neurons that cause the muscle to contract.

Define ATP

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is energy for many biochemical cellular processes.

Define ADP

Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

what causes the t-tubules to release calcium for a muscle contraction?

ATP

What happens when a muscle is exposed to ATP in salt solution?

Greates amount of contraction occurs

ATP is necessary for contraction, but why are the salts necessary?cofactors for myosin to break down and use ATP.

The salts are cofactors necessary for myosin to break down and use ATP.

Define what a Sarcomere is.

Smallest muscle unit

What is used to make a sarcomere contract and relax?

ATP

What is a sarcomere made up of?

two important proteins, actin and myosin

Define an Actin.

A contractile protein that is part of the thin filaments in muscle fibers.

Define a Myosin

The contractile protein that makes up the thick filaments of muscle fibers.

What is the theory of how proteins cause muscle contraction is often called?

the sliding filament theory

What is the role of the roles of acetylcholine in muscle contration?

the muscle fibers become more positively charged which generates an action potential that travels along the sarcolemma and into the transverse (T) tubules.

What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction?

Calcium binds to troponin on the actin filaments of muscle fibers. This signals tropomyosin to move out of the myosin binding sites on actin.

What is the roles of troponin in muscle contraction?

Ca2+ regulator

what ion unlocks the troponin in order to move tropomyosin?

Calcium 2+ ions

What is the role of the roles of tropomyosin in muscle contraction?

block the contact between myosin heads and actin filaments, thereby preventing muscle contraction

What is the role of the roles of ATP in muscle contraction?

ATP binds to myosin causing it to change position and attach to actin and pull, causing muscles to contract

What can cause muscle cramps while exercising on an empty stomache?

low on salts as well as glucose—and therefore also ATP.

Define a tendon

A flexible but inelastic cord of strong fibrous collagen tissue attaching a muscle to a bone.

Define a ligament

a fibrous connective tissue that attaches bone to bone,

What 3 routes does our body use to assemble ATP?

1. The phosphagen system 2. The glycogen-lactic acid system, 3. Aerobic respiration

How does rigor mortis relate to ATP?

After death, depletion of ATP causes myosin crossbridges to lock in place.

What is a muscle made up of?

cntractile proteins-->Sarcomere-->Myofibril-->Myofiber-->Fascicle-->Muscle

What connective tissue surrounds a myofibril?

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

What connective tissue surrounds a myofiber?

Endomysium

What connective tissue surrounds a Fascicle?

Perimysium

What connective tissue surrounds a muscle?

Epimysium

What makes up a thin filament?

Actin, Tropomyosin, and Troponin

What makes up a thick filament?

Myosin

What is Muscle Rule #1?

Muscles must have at least two attachments and must cross at least one joint.

What is Muscle Rule #2?

Muscles always “pull” and get shorter

What is Muscle Rule #3?

The attachment that moves is known as the insertion and the attachment that remains stationary is known as the origin.

What is Muscle Rule #4?

Muscles that decrease the angle between ventral surfaces of the body are known as flexors. Muscles that increase the angle between ventral surfaces are known as extensors.

What is Muscle Rule #5?

Muscles work in opposing pairs

What is Muscle Rule #6?

Muscle striations point to the attachments and show the direction of pull

What is the attachment that moves in a muscle called?

Insertion

What is the attachment that remains stationary in a muscle called?

Origin

A flexor muscle does what?

Decrease the angle between ventral surfaces of the body

An extensor does what?

Increase the angle between ventral surfaces of the body

What type of muscle is involuntary?

Smooth

what does it mean that a muscle is involuntary?

It moves on its own

which type of muscle is not striated?

Smooth

what does it mean that a muscle is striated?

muscle that have a pattern of sarcomeres

What measures electrical signals from the heart?

Electrocardiogram (EKG, ECG)

What measures a recording used to assess the health of muscles and the nerves that supply them? HINT: you did this in class with Vernier.

Electromyogram (EMG)

Why did you set up the EKG sensor/electro tabs on your arm?

to record an EMG of the muscle

ROM that moves around the longitudinal axis of the bone either toward the midline or away from the midline.

Rotation

ROM that moves in a circular motion.

Circumduction

ROM that moves away from the axis, or midline, of the body.

Abduction

ROM that moves toward the axis, or midline, of the body.

Adduction

ROM that moves in an upward direction.

Elevation

ROM that moves in a downward direction.

Depression

ROM of bending of a joint that decreases the angle between bones.

Flexion

ROM of Straightening of a joint that increases the angle between bones. Hyperextension is excessive straightening beyond the normal range of motion.

Extension (and Hyperextension)

ROM of Bending the ankle pointing toes toward the ground.

Plantar flexion

ROM of Bending at the ankle to lift the toes toward the knee.

Dorsiflexion

what ligament does the varus stress test show is damaged

LCL

the valgus stress test shows damage of what ligament?

MCL

what ligament does the posterior draw test show damage to?

PCL

what ligament does the anterior draw test show damage to.

ACL

what test looks for this as a sign of liagment damage. Joint laxity or excessive looseness in the knee joint is a positive test result. Specifically, the femur may slide significantly in the lateral direction.

Varus Stress test

what test looks for this as a sign of ligament damage. Joint laxity or excessive looseness in the knee joint is a positive test result. Specifically, the femur may slide significantly in the medial direction.

Valgus Stress

what test looks for this as a sign of ligament damage. Joint laxity or excessive looseness in the knee joint is a positive test result. Specifically, the femur may slide significantly in the anterior direction.

Posterior draw

what test looks for this as a sign of ligament damage. Joint laxity or excessive looseness in the knee joint is a positive test result. Specifically, the femur may slide significantly in the posterior direction.

Anterior draw

what ligament test is this? With the knee flexed approximately 30 degrees and the femur held fixed, the tibia is rotated laterally (away from the body or outward), so the knee is placed in a varus position.

Varus Stress

what ligament test is this? With the knee flexed approximately 30 degrees and the femur held fixed, the tibia is rotated medially (toward the midline or inward), so the knee is placed in a valgus position.

Valgus Stress

what ligament does this test for? With the knee flexed at 90 degrees, the tibia is pushed posteriorly (away from the physical therapist) relative to the femur.

Posterior draw

What ligament test is this. With the knee flexed at 90 degrees, the proximal tibia is pulled anteriorly (toward the physical therapist) relative to the femur.

Anterior draw

which test does not look at knee ligament damage

Lateral draw

What does looseness of your knee joint called?

Laxity

which ligament is attached to the back of your knee?

Posterior cruciate

which ligament is attached to the front of your knee

anterior cruciate

which ligament is attached on the outside of your leg?

Lateral cruciate

which ligament attaches on your inner knee

Medial cruciate

What is the instrument that measures ROM called?

Goniometer

moving it laterally away from the body

Abduction

movement of a limb toward the body midline

Adduction

The range through which a joint can be moved.

Range of Motion (ROM)

What is the instrument used for measuring the angles of a joint called?

Goniometer

Which cruciate is not a ligament of the knee?

Central cruciate

Which ligament does the varus stress test show is damaged?

Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)

What is A fixed, or immovable, joint that connects bones. It is made primarily of collagen?

Fibrous joint

Define Occupational Therapy

Medical treatment that improves a patient’s ability to perform activities of daily living such as school, work, and home.

Define Muscle fatigue

A decrease in the force or power output of muscle.

What is Cartilaginous Joint?

A joint that has some motion to it with hyaline cartilage present, in the space between articulating bones.

What is Synovial Joint?

A moveable joint that contains synovial fluid in the space around it to reduce friction; the most common type of joint in the body

What is Cartilage?

Flexible connective tissue that provides shape and support to various body parts and cushions bones, allowing for movement and flexibility.

What is Articular (hyaline) Cartilage?

Hyaline cartilage attached to articular bone structures.

What is Elastic Cartilage?

A spongy, yellow, elastic network of fibers that provide support to body structure.

What is Fibrocartilage?

The strongest type of cartilage that provides support, rigidity , and cushioning to parts of the body.

What is Kinesiology Tape used for?

A stretchy, movable tape that is used by therapists to change muscle tone, move lymphatic fluids, correct movement patterns, and improve posture.

Define Proprioception

The body’s ability to sense movement, action, and location. Examples of proprioception are being able to walk or kick without looking at your feet.

Define Empathy

Understanding and experiencing the feelings of another person.

What is HIPAA? Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is A set of U.S. national standards that protect an individual’s privacy rights related to their personal medical information.

What do 2 kinesio tape techniques assist in?

1. lymphatic drainage and 2. a ligament correction technique.

What does taping for lymphatic drainage helps with?

Lifts the skin and drain the swelling.

What does taping for the ligament correctiond technique help with?

Helps to stimulate mechanoreceptors causing the muscle the tape is placed on to fire and enhance proprioception.

What 2 main nervous systems are there in the HBS?

The Central Nervous System & the Peripheral Nervous System work together to control the body

Define hormone.

A signaling molecule produced by glands. A hormone induces a specific effect on the activity of cells.

What is voluntary and involuntary actions of the nervous system?

Voluntary is something you control, while involuntary is something that happens without your concious control

What does the CNS consists of?

The brain and the Spinal cord

What does the PNS consists of?

All nerves in the body

How do the CNS the PNS work together to control the body?

Via Sensory input and Motor output

How does Sensory Input work?

sense (stimuli) information is carried to the brain. Information from the eyes/ears goes directly to the brain. However, information from the lower body is first picked up by the peripheral “outer” nervous system (PNS) & then passed into the spinal cord, then through the brain stem & then into the brain (all parts of the central “middle” nervous system or CNS)

How does Motor Output work?

The muscle movement is most started in the CNS (unless it’s a reflex response) and then the impulses travel through the brainstem into the spinal cord and to the PNS to activate the neurons in the muscles that need to move.

What are the 4 major lobes (divisions) of the brain?

Frontal, Occipital, Temporal & Parietal.

What 2 other lobes are part of the Cerebrum?

Sensory and Motor cortices (pl. of cortex)

List the 9 main strucures of the inner brain.

Thalamus, Pituitary, Cerebellum, Hypothalamus, Cerebrum, Medulla oblongata, Pons, Corpus callosum, Hippocampus

What is the function of the Frontal lobe?

Involved in reasoning, motor control, emotion, and language

What is the function of the Parietal lobe?

The sensory perception and integration (ie responsible for sensing touch, spatial processing (being able to tell where objects are in space), language, and memory.)

What is the function of the Occipital lobe?

Primarily responsible for visual perception and are involved in some forms of visual, short-term memory.

What is the function of the Temporal lobe?

Processing smell and sound, ability to recognize and understand words and language. They are also involved in visual memory.

What does the Cerebellum mostly control?

fine motor movement & balance.

What does the Cerebrum mostly control?

higher thought

What does the Limbic system control?

Emotions & motivation.

What is the function of the Sensory cortex?

All received sensory input signals, such as touch and taste, are sent through neurons to the sensory cortex to be processed.

What is the function of the Motor cortex?

The part of the brain where nerve impulses initiate voluntary muscular activity.

What is the Gyrus of the brain?

The ridges between grooves/furrows and get deeper with learning.

What is the Sulcus of the brain?

The deep grooves/furrows

What is the function of the Thalamus?

Relays sensory information and acting as a center for pain perception.

What is the function of the Pituitary?

A tiny organ that serves as the primary gland for the body, producing several hormones and activating other glands to produce hormones.

What is the function of the Hypothalamus?

A region of the brain below the thalamus that coordinates both the autonomic nervous system and the activity of the pituitary, controlling body temperature, thirst, hunger, and other homeostatic systems, and involved in sleep and emotional activity.

What is the function of the Medulla oblongata?

Helps control vital processes like your heartbeat, breathing and blood pressure.

What is the function of the Pons?

Works with Medulla oblongata. Aids in unconscious processes such as sleep, respiration, swallowing, bladder control, hearing, equilibrium, taste, eye movement, facial expressions, facial sensation, and posture.

What is the function of the Corpus callosum?

Acts as a bridge to connect neurons between the two cerebral hemispheres

What is the function of the Hippocampus?

Learning and memory.

what does the brain stem consist of?

Descending order: the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata.

What is the Broca’s area responsible for?

Located typically in Frontal lobe: speech production

What is the Wernicke’s area responsible for?

Located in the left Temporal lobe: It is responsible for the ability to comprehend spoken language.

What cells are made up of the Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems (CNS and PNS) that are broadly grouped into two categories?

Neurons and glial cells

Function of the Dendrites (“trees”)?

pick up signal

Function of the Axon?

carry signal long distances (up to 3 ft)

What are Schwann's cells?

Makes Myelin sheath

Function of the Myelin sheath?

insulates Axon

Function of the Nodes (“knots”) of Ranvier?

allow nutrients in, waste out

Function of the Axon terminals (“ends”)

branch to meet other neurons

Function of the neurotransmitters (“to carry across a nerve”)?

chemicals that allow neurons to communicate with each other

Function of the Synapses?

place one neuron connects to next

Function of the Synaptic cleft?

joint between neurons

How do neurons communicate?

Through actions potential

What are 4 essential parts of most neurons?

dendrites, cell body, an axon, and axon terminal

What is the main function of a Glial cell?

Maintains the homeostasis of the neurons. They are the caretakers of the neurons.

What are Nodes of Ranvier?

The gap in the myelin sheath of neuron found between neighboring Schwann cells.

What is action potential?

Electricity passing through their axons

What are the 3 different types of neurons that work together to send and receive signals?

Sensory, Interneuron (associate, relay), and Motor

What does Sensory Neuron do?

Pick up signals through senses (sight, smell, touch, etc) and Sends info from PNS to CNS

What doe Interneurons do?

Connect sensory neurons to motor neurons and Found in CNS

What doe Motor neurons do?

Receive signals from CNS, causing movement and In PNS, receive info from CNS

How are electrical impulses created in the human body?

Na+/K+ pump keeps outside of membrane + and inside – by pumping positive ions out of the membrane, priming the membrane to carry charges

What is the charge of the neuron during resting poteintial?

Negative

During an action potential, what is the charge inside of the neuron?

Positive since there’s a sudden reversal of charge, carrying a message down the axis

What does it mean when we say that an action potential is an all-or-nothing response?

The action potential either happens or it doesn't happen

How do neurons convey information using electrical signals?

Action potentials down axis of each neuron (WITHIN each neuron)

How do neurons convey information using chemical signals?

Neurotransmitters conduct signal BETWEEN neurons

How do errors in communication impact homeostasis in the human body?

Diseases such as Parkinson's, Seizures, and Alzheimer's

Differentiate Reflex vs Reaction time by action?

Reflex (involuntary) vs reaction (voluntary)

What is the primary function of Acetylcholine (Ach), a neurotransmitter?

Muscle contraction, learning, and memory.

What is the primary function of Dopamine, a neurotransmitter?

Pleasure, motivation, mood, attention, memory, and movement.

What is the primary function of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) a neurotransmitter?

Primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of the central nervous system.

What is the primary function of Glutamate, a neurotransmitter?

Primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.

What is the primary function of Epinephrine and Norepinephrine?

Fight-or-flight response, to increase arousal and attention.

What is the primary function of Serotonin, a neurotransmitter?

Regulates mood and sleep; aids in digestion.

What is the primary function of Histamine, a neurotransmitter?

Metabolism, temperature control, regulation of various hormones, and control of the sleep-wake cycle.

How does nicotine affect neurons in teens?

Because nicotine is an agonist for Acetylcholine, it binds to acetylcholine receptors and increases the effect of the acetylcholine in the synapse. This causes the neuron to fire more frequently, hence permanent lowering of impulse control.

Define an agonist.

An agonist binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a response. Ex: fentanyl, morphine

Define an antagonist.

An antagonist binds to a receptor and blocks the activation of the receptor, returning a receptor to baseline. Ex: caffeine

Defina an inverse agonist.

An inverse agonist binds to a receptor and has the opposite effect to that of an agonist, depressing receptor activity. Ex: diphenhydramine

Define what a reuptake inhibitor's function.

A reuptake inhibitor blocks the reuptake of a neurotransmitter from the synapse. Ex: cocaine

Reflex time is short or longer?

Shorter than reaction bc the stimuli does not have to go to the CNS to process.

What is Epilepsy?

Bursts of electricity cause involuntary responses (seizures, odd smells, etc)

What is Parkinson’s?

Cells that make dopamine die (no one knows why). The lack of this neurotransmitter causes problems in communication between neurons in the two brain regions that must communicate to allow smooth, controlled movements

What neurotransmitter is responsible for Parkinson's?

The lack of dopamine causes problems and communication between neurons and the two brain regions that must communicate to allow smooth controlled movements

What is Huntington’s?

Genetic defect on chromosome 4 (excess CAG repeats) causes synthesis of abnormal protein—the protein disrupts function of certain nerve cells, ultimately leading to their deaths (dead cells can’t communicate☹)

What is Alzheimer’s?

Brain cells die (cause unknown) and dead cells can’t communicate☹--communication breaks down, getting worse with time and eventually causing death

What is Multiple Sclerosis?

The immune system attacks the myelin around nerve axes in the brain, spinal cord and optic nerves, causing nerves to be unable to transmit messages due to a buildup of scar tissue (sclerosis).

What is Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?
(Lou Gehrig's)

The name is a (without) myo (muscle) trophic (nourishment) lateral (side) scler (hardening) osis (abnormal condition). Nerve cells waste away or die and can’t send messages to the lower motor neurons. Movement becomes less and less controlled. Eventually the lung muscles cannot contract, causing death.

A patient needs to have a cavity filled, so the dentist injects a local anesthetic into the patient’s gums. Local anesthetics reversibly bind to Na+ channels and block the movement of Na+ ions. Using what you know about signals, explain why this practice can keep the patient from feeling pain.

By blocking Na+ channels, action potentials in the targeted nerves no longer occur. This stops signals of pain from getting to the central nervous system from the peripheral nervous system.

Compare the times for reaction versus reflex.

Reaction time was much slower than reflex time. A reaction includes brain processing time and a greater length of nerve transmission from the brain through the spine and finally to the quadriceps muscle.
Reflex is quite a bit faster due to no need for thinking and the shorter transmission distance from the patellar tendon to the spinal cord and back to the muscle.

Main function of the Endocrine System

chemical signals called hormones for regulation.

A target cell responds to a hormone because it has a specific ____________ or that hormone

receptor

What is the purpose of feedback loops in the body?

To maintain homeostasis.

Define a gland.

gland is just a name for an organ that secretes something

What controls endocrine glands or organs?

the hypothalamus and pituitary gland in the brain

Endocrine glands secrete inside or outside?

“secrete INside”

Exocrine glands secrete inside or outside?

“secrete OUTside”

List the Two types of feedback loop.

Negative and positive

What is a negative feelback loop?

When hormone levels go ABOVE homeostasis, or set point, feedback loops REDUCE hormone levels

What is a set point?

the body's normal like temp 98.6°F

Insulin and glucagon are made in what organ?

pancreas

How does Insulin regulate your sugar level?

Insulin DECREASES your blood sugar level

How does glucacon regulate your sugar level?

Glucagon INCREASES your blood sugar level

For Type I Diabetes (high blood sugar), which hormone is miscommunicating?

Insulin - too low, thus high blood sugar is not decrease.

For Acromegaly (high Growth Homone), how does the body respond?

Acromegaly—excess growth

For Hyperthyroidism (high T3/T4), how does the body respond?

Hyperthyroidism—high metabolism

For Addison's Disease (low cortisol), how does the body respond?

Addison’s Disease—weakness, etc.

Define homeostasis

The maintenance of stable internal physiological conditions (like body temperature or the pH of blood), which enables the optimal functioning of an organism.

The main difference betweent he nervous and endocrine systems.

The nervous system communicates using electrical signals, the endocrine system uses chemical signals, called hormones, to regulate body functioning. Hormones are proteins that carry messages between organs and cells and are responsible for your body’s energy level, growth and development, mood, and sleep!

Where do the endocrine glands secrete hormones?

Directly into the bloodstream to reach their targets.

How is water balance maintained?

ADH, secreted from the Pituitary gland

Define type 1 diabetes.

Pancreatic beta cells are damaged or destroyed. The damaged beta cells produce little to no insulin. Thus, have a low insulin concentration and high glucose (sugar) concentration in their blood.

Define type 2 diabetes.

the body is resistant to the effects of insulin and therefore the insulin does not properly bind to insulin receptors.

Symptoms of Type 1 diabetes

May experience fatigue, exhaustion, and dizziness.

Symptoms of Type 2 diabetes

May experience increased thirst or hunger, fatigue, blurry vision, and slow-healing wounds.

Define hyperglycemia

If the endocrine system is not releasing insulin, then the cells will not take glucose out of the blood.

List the structures of the Cardiovascular System

Heart and vessels (arteries, veins, capillaries), and blood

Function of the Atria (Atrium, singular)

“entrance halls” for blood

Function of the Ventricles

“bellies” that pump out blood

Function of the Veins

bring blood to heart

Function of the Capillaries

“hair like”—sites of exchange with tissues

Function of the Arteries

carry blood away from heart

What role do valves play in the heart?

Valves prevent the backward flow of blood through the heart.

Another word for heart attack?

heart attack (myocardial infarction)

Chordae tendineae

Thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart on the ventricular side and prevent them from inverting. "Heart string"

How many valves are there in the heart?

Four: Aortic valve, Mitral valve, Tricuspid valve, and Pulmonary valve

Where is the Tricuspid valve located?

between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

Where is the Aortic valve located?

Between the left ventricle and the aorta

Where is the Mitral valve located?

between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

Where is the Pulmonary valve located?

between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.

Where is the Left Coronary artery (Left Main) located?

The left coronary artery supplies blood to the left side of the heart muscle.

Where is the Left Anterior descending artery located?

The left anterior descending artery branches off the left coronary artery and supplies blood to the front of the left side of the heart.

Where is the Circumflex artery located?

The Circumflex artery branches off the left coronary artery and surrounds the heart muscle. This artery supplies blood to the outer side and back of the heart.

Where is the Right Coronary artery located/function?

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the right ventricle, right atrium, and sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes, which regulate heart rhythm.

What are the 3 layers of the blood vessels?

1. inner Tunica intima, 2. a middle Tunica media, and 3. an outer Tunica externa.

What are the main components of the heart

L/R Atria/Ventricles, 4 valves (Tricuspid, Pulmonary, Mitrial or Bicuspid, and Aortic), SVC, IVC, Aorta, Pulmonary artery/vein.

What is the function of the coronary artery?

The heart muscle receives blood through tiny vessels called coronary arteries

How many main coronary arteries?

4 (Left Coronary Artery (Left Main, Left Anterior Descending Artery, Circumflex Artery, and Right Coronary Artery

What part of the heart does the Left Coronary Artery (Left Main) supply?

The left coronary artery supplies blood to the left side of the heart muscle.

What part of the heart does the Left Anterior Descending Artery supply?

The left anterior descending artery branches off the left coronary artery and supplies blood to the front of the left side of the heart.

What part of the heart does the The Circumflex artery supply?

The Circumflex artery branches off the left coronary artery and surrounds the heart muscle. This artery supplies blood to the outer side and back of the heart.

What part of the heart does the Right Coronary Artery supply?

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the right ventricle, right atrium, and sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes, which regulate heart rhythm.

What does the SA (sinoatrial) node do in the heart?

generates an electrical signal that causes the upper heart chambers (atria) to contract.

What is considered the "pacemaker of the heart?

The SA node

What does the electrical signal do in the AV (atrioventricular) node? to the lower heart chambers (ventricles), causing them to contract, or pump. The SA node is considered the pacemaker of the heart.

Sends the signal to the lower heart chambers (ventricles), causing them to contract, or pump.

Is blood blue? Why or why not?

This is because the colors that make up visible light have different wavelengths. When light shines on our skin, the red light waves (long wavelength) are absorbed by a protein in our blood called hemoglobin. Blue light waves (short wavelength) are not absorbed very far into the skin and are reflected back to our eyes causing us to see a blue color.

What are two measures of cardiovascular health?

A person’s blood pressure and heart rate, cardiac output, and ABI.

What is a Resting heart rate?

The number of times your heart beats while you are relaxed. The range of normal resting heart rates for adults is 60–100 beats per minute (bpm).

What is blood pressure?

The pressure that blood exerts upon the walls of blood vessels, especially arteries, usually measured with a sphygmomanometer and expressed in millimeters of mercury.

What is the Systolic Pressure?

Pressure in the arteries when the heart undergoes systole—the heart contracts to push blood throughout the body.

What is the Diastolic Pressure?

Pressure in the arteries when the heart undergoes diastole—the heart is at rest, allowing the chambers to fill with blood.

What is the systole?

The stage in a heartbeat when contraction of the heart pushes blood out of the ventricles and into the aorta and pulmonary artery.

What is the diastole?

The stage in a heartbeat when the heart is relaxed and the heart chambers fill with blood.

What is the instrument for measuring blood pressure, especially arterial blood pressure?

sphygmomanometer

What is cardiac output?

A measure of how much blood is pumped by both ventricles in one minute.

How do you calculate the cardiac output?

Multiply heart rate and stroke volume.

What is the stroke volume?

The amount of blood being pumped out of the heart with each heartbeat; quantified as mL per beat. On average, the stroke volume remains relatively stable at 75 mL/beat.

What differences in blood pressure in the arms versus the legs may indicate?

Differences in blood pressure in the arms versus the legs may indicate a problem with the heart or blood vessels.

What is Bradycardia?

Bradycardia is the term for a slow heart rate

What is Peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

Peripheral artery disease (PAD) is a cardiovascular condition characterized by the loss of blood flow to the extremities. It can increase a person's risk for blood clots.

What is ABI

Ankle-Brachial Index compares the blood pressure in the upper and lower limbs

What is atherosclerosis?

the buildup of fats, cholesterol and other substances in and on the artery walls. This buildup is called plaque.

How do cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscles work together to move blood through the body?

The heart is composed of cardiac muscle that pumps blood to the rest of the body. Smooth muscle is within arteries and veins, allowing these vessels to constrict and dilate to regulate blood flow. Skeletal muscles play a key role in the movement of blood around the body: When skeletal muscles contract, they compress the veins, causing an increase in blood pressure, and—due to the one-way valves within the veins—drive the blood toward the heart.

Why is the arterial wall thicker than vein?

This is because in an artery, the tunica media contains much more smooth muscle than in the vein. This smooth muscle helps pressurize the vessel and pump oxygenated blood to the body’s tissues.

What causes varicose veins?

The backflow of blood causes pooling and swelling in the affected veins due to inelasticity.

Calculate the cardiac output of the average stroke volume of 75 mL/beat and HR of 185

Define EKG

Electrocardiogram that measures heart electrical activity

Define AED

Automatic External Defibrillator is a device that analyzes and determines electrical shock to be delivered to the heart to a normal activity.

Define tachycardia

heart to beat too fast

arrhythmia

A problem with the rate or rhythm of your heartbeat

Four main components of heart conduction system?

SA and AV nodes, Bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers.

What is the proper sequence of a normal heart electrical conduction series?

SA node, Atria, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

What initiates an electrical signal in a conduction?

SA node

What can the overall pattern in an EKG can provide information about?

heart conditions, such as irregular heartbeat, blocked arteries, heart damage, and heart attack.

What does CPR stand for?

cardiopulmonary resuscitation

What does the Upper Respiratory Tract consist of?

Nostrils, Nasal cavities, Pharynx, and Larynx

What does the Lower Respiratory Tract consist of?

Trachea, R/L bronchi, From here, air enters the bronchioles and alveoli.

How is The respiratory system is divided into?

two zones: conducting zone and respiratory zone.

Define the respiratory zone in detail.

Deep in the lungs are the bronchioles and alveoli. Inhaled oxygen moves from the lungs into the bloodstream through the capillaries. Upon inhalation, carbon dioxide moves from the bloodstream into the lungs to be exhaled.

What does the respiratory system made up of?

1. Trachea
2. Lungs
3. Larynx
4. Pharynx
5. Nasal cavity
6. Bronchi
7. Diaphragm
8. Cartilaginous rings
9. Epiglottis
10. Bronchioles
11. Alveoli
12. Respiratory zone
13. Conducting zone

When the diaphragm contracts (moves down), what do the lungs do?

Expands the lungs pulling the air into the lungs

What does a pulse oximetry measure?

Pulse ox is a test used to measure the oxygen level in the blood,

What measures lung volumes during normal breathing and with maximum effort.

Spirometer

What is a Normal reading for a pulse ox?

Ranges from 95 to 100 percent. Below 92% indicates poor oxygen distribution from the lungs to the cells

what is a spirometry?

A common medical test of lung function

Define Tidal Volume (TV)

The volume of air breathed in and out without conscious effort.

Define Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

The additional volume of air that can be inhaled with maximum effort after normal inspiration.

Define Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)

The additional volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after normal exhalation.

Define Vital Capacity (VC)

The total volume of air that can be exhaled after maximum inhalation: VC = TV + IRV + ERV.

Define Residual Volume (RV)

The volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximum exhalation. Under normal conditions, the lungs are never completely emptied.

Define Total Lung Capacity (TLC)

Total volume of the lungs: The sum of the vital capacity and the residual volume: TLC = VC + RV

What is albuterol?

a short-acting bronchodilator

What is a Flow Rate?

The volume of air moved in a given amount of time. This is another measurement doctors use to evaluate how well air is moving in and out of the lungs.

What is Pulmonary edema?

Pulmonary edema is a lung condition characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli (air sacs) within the lungs.

What is hyperventilation?

Rapid or deep breathing. It is a response to stress on the body usually caused by anxiety or panic. Hyperventilation is also sometimes referred to as overbreathing.

What different types of blood tests are indicated for cardiovascular health?

RBC, HDL, LDL, and Triglycerides.

You are viewing a specimen using the 40x objective. What is the total magnification?

10 x 40 = 400x

Different agents of disease

prions, viruses, bacteria, protists, fungi, and helminths

Examples of prions

prion

Examples of viruses

Any of various infectious proteins that are abnormal forms of normal cellular proteins. Prions proliferate by inducing normal proteins to convert to the abnormal form that causes diseases, such as mad cow disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, and kuru

Examples of bacterium

A single-celled, prokaryotic microorganism such a Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyrogenes, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Escherichia coli.

Examples of protists

Any eukaryotic protist of the phylum or subkingdom Protozoa

Examples of fungi

Aprophytic and parasitic spore-producing eukaryotic organisms that lack chlorophyll, such as molds, rusts, mildews, smuts, mushrooms, and yeasts

Examples of helminths

A large, eukaryotic, multicellular, parasitic worm, such as a tapeworm, liver fluke, ascarid, or leech.

What is the first line of defense in the integumentary system?

Skin, the largest organ of the body, is the first layer of defense for the body and is an immediate barrier to outside invaders.

What is the function of the mucus?

Mucus, a secretion from mucus membranes, covers cells that line our respiratory and digestive systems and helps trap pathogens that enter the body.

What are the 3 layers of the skin?

Skin is composed of three layers—epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous fatty tissue

What is the epidermis?

The top layer of the skin that provides a barrier, makes new skin, and provides skin color.

What is the dermis?

The middle layer of skin that contains collagen and elastin, grows hair, makes oil and sweat, and contains blood vessels and nerve endings.

What is the subcutaneous fatty tissue?

The bottom layer of the skin consisting of fat that cushions muscles and bones and helps to regulate body temperature.

What is sepsis?

Sepsis can be a serious, life-threatening condition that can occur when the body has an extreme response to a pathogen. Without treatment, it can lead to tissue damage, organ failure, or death.

What are the 3 stages of sepsis?

1. sepsis, 2. severe sepsis, and 3. septic shock.

Define 1st stage of sepsis?

The body’s immune system overreacts to an infection causing inflammation

Define 2nd stage of severe sepsis?

Organs in the body begin to malfunction, blood pressure is low, and inflammation continues.

Define 3rd stage of septic shock?

Extremely low blood pressure that does not respond to IV fluids.

What are symptoms of sepsis?

TIME=Temperature (Higher or lower than normal)
Infection with Signs and symptoms of an infection (swollen lymph nodes)
Mental Decline (Confused, sleepy, difficult to rouse)
Extremely (Severe pain or discomfort)

What do the lymphatic system consists of?

Organs, ducts, and lymph nodes

What are Lymph nodes?

Any of the rounded masses of lymphoid tissue that are surrounded by a capsule of connective tissue, are distributed along the lymphatic vessels, and contain numerous lymphocytes which filter the flow of lymph passing through the node.

Define what lymph is.

A usually clear fluid that passes from intercellular spaces of body tissue into the lymphatic vessels.

What is the primary function of the immune system?

The body's defense against harmful germs and diseases. The liver, bone marrow, and spleen are important parts of the immune system.

What are the components of the immune system?

The liver, bone marrow, and spleen are important parts of the immune system.

What are the functions of the liver?

The liver helps filter the blood and remove harmful substances. It also produces proteins that help fight off infections and diseases.

What is the function of the bone marrow?

The bone marrow is the soft tissue inside bones that produces blood cells, including white blood cells.

What is the function of the white blood cells (WBCs)?

Important for fighting infections and diseases.

What is the function of the spleen?

The spleen also helps fight infections and diseases by filtering the blood and removing old or damaged blood cells. It also produces white blood cells.

What are Lymphatic tissues and functions?

Lymphatic tissues such as the spleen, tonsils, and thymus contain high concentrations of white blood cells and are able to identify and destroy toxins in lymph fluid.

What is the function of the Thymus?

The thymus helps in the development of T-cells. T-cells are a type of white blood cell that help fight infections.

What is the function the Spleen?

The spleen filters the blood of foreign cells and old red blood cells in need of replacement. A person missing their spleen gets sick much more often than someone with a spleen.

What is the function the Tonsils?

Tonsils help to stop germs entering the body through the mouth or the nose. And, they contain white blood cells, which help kill germs. You can live a healthy life without tonsils.

What are the 2 transport of fluid systems in the body?

The Lymphatic and the Cardiovascular

Since movement of lymphatic fluid is not fueled by a pump such as the heart, how do you think this liquid is propelled around the body?

The lymphatic vessels have a series of valves that help keep the fluid moving in one direction.

How many lymph nodes do adults typically have?

The adult body has 600–800 lymph nodes, with most clustered in the groin, armpit, and neck

What do lymphs contain?

Lymph contains white blood cells, hormones, nutrients, microorganisms, and cell waste

What is the primary function of the Lymph nodes?

Lymph nodes are bean-shaped organs distributed along the lymphatic vessels. They play a vital role in the immune system and are responsible for receiving and filtering lymph before it is distributed into the blood.

List the anatomy of the Lymph node

Afferent vessel, Efferent vessel, Germinal center
Valve
Medulla
Capsule
Veins
Arteries
Cortex
Sinus

What is lymphedema?

Swelling of the lymph fluid.

what are thrombocyte (platelet)?

A minute, colorless, anucleate disk-like body of mammalian blood that assists in blood clotting by adhering to other platelets and damaged epithelium.

What are Erythrocyte (red blood cell)?

Hemoglobin-rich, red blood cells that transport oxygen through a body. Erythrocytes give the red color to vertebrate blood and do not have nuclei.

What are Leukocyte (white blood cell)?

One of the many cells in the blood that lack hemoglobin but have a nucleus and are active in the immune response. Lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are leucocytes.

Define innate immunity

Non-specific immune defense mechanisms that people are born with. These mechanisms work to keep anything outside us from coming in.

Define acquired immunity

Specific immune defense mechanisms. This type of immunity is acquired over a lifetime. Acquired immunity has two forms: Active immunity: acquired after infection and recovery, or from a vaccine. Passive immunity: acquired by a child from its mother through the placenta or through breast feeding.

What is an antigen?

Anything that stimulates an immune response.

What is a B-cell?

A type of lymphocyte (white blood cell) that matures in bone marrow and produces antibodies.

What is an Antibody?

A protein produced by B cells in the blood; works to impair pathogens. Also called an immunoglobulin.

What are Autoimmune Disorders? Give examples.

Multiple Sclerosis, Rheumatoid arthritis. The cells in your body attacks itself as if they are foreign tissues.

What are prodromal symptoms?

Early signs or symptoms that precede the onset of a disease.

What is the name of the virus that causes common cold?

Rhinoviruses - there are 165-350!

Define convalesce.

To recover health gradually after sickness.

What are B lymphocyte (B cell)?

A type of lymphocyte (white blood cell) that matures in bone marrow and produces antibodies.

What are T lymphocyte (T cell)?

A type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking cells infected with foreign pathogens or cancer cells.

When there is a secondary response to the same virus, how does the body respond?

Quicker response

What happens in the "Incubation" in the stage of illness?

The antigen is engulfed by a macrophage and is presented to a helper T cell.

What happens in the "prodromal stage" in the stage of illness?

The helper T-cell shows the antigen to the B cell.

What happens in the "period of illness" in the stage of illness?

The B cell clones itself into many plasma cells that are producing antibodies specific to the antigen. Memory B cells form.

What happens in the "period of decline" in the stage of illness?

Plasma cells stop producing antibodies and memory B cells remain, ready for another exposure to the antigen.

What happens in the "Convalescence" in the stage of illness?

Antibody concentrations begin to decline.

What are the stages of viral production?

Attachment, Entry, Uncoating, Replication, Assembly, Maturation, Release,

What method for measuring viral load is used in our HBS?

Plaque Assay

What is a serial dilution?

A stepwise dilution of a substance (in Plaque assay, an antiviral treatment) in a solution such as PBS (phosphate buffered saline), a saline solution.

What’s a Solution?

A liquid mixture in which the minor component (the solute) is uniformly distributed within the major component (the solvent).

What is the universal solvent?

Mrs. Williams' most favorite chemical compound!!! H₂O

What is Aseptic Technique?

The practice and/or process of preventing contamination.

What are examples of disinfecting solutions?

10% Bleach, 70% alcohol (IPA or EtOH)

Who developed an explanation of how our eyes work that still holds true today?

Felix Platter

Who proved that by placing a viewing screen in place of the retina was a smaller, upside-down version of the scene in front of the bull eye?

Rene Descartes

What is Subconjunctival hemorrhage?

A bright red patch appearing in the white of the eye. This condition is also called red eye.

What is the difference between an Optometrist vs Ophthalmologist?

Both are doctors but the Ophthalmologist is an MD.

What happens after the light hits the retina?

The light is translated into electrical signals at the retina. Those signals are carried to the brain through the optic nerve.

why do you think it is important that the cornea is clear and free of blood vessels?

The cornea is the outer layer of the eyeball needs to be clear and free of blood vessels so it can let light into the eye without interference.

State the function of the pupil.

The pupil regulates how much light is let into the eye.

why does the human eye not have a tapetum?

Because we are primarily active during the day and have adapted to use lights like headlights, flashlights, and lamps, to help see in the dark or dim light.

The optic nerve takes messages to the brain, which then interprets the signal projected on the retina. Which area(s) of the brain is (are) responsible for processing these signals?

The occipital lobe of the cerebrum.

What is the name for a visual condition in which vision is better for a distance than for reading and is caused when the eye focuses an image behind the retina?

Hyperopia

What is The difference between a rod and a cone?

cones sense color and rods sense faint light.

What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?

Iris

Light passes through the following structures in which order?

1. Cornea, 2. Aqueous humor, 3. Lens, 4. Vitreous humor, 5. Retina

Which of the following is an eye disorder where the loss of vision is caused by damage to the optic nerve because of increased intraocular pressure on the retina?

glaucoma