Test 4
Correct answer: A. The innermost layer is composed of dividing cells.
Explanation: The basal layer (stratum basale) of the epidermis contains actively dividing keratinocytes.
Option analysis:
A. The innermost layer is composed of dividing cells: Correct. The basal layer is mitotically active.
B. Numerous blood vessels: Incorrect. The epidermis is avascular.
C. Stratum corneum is very thick in mucous membranes: Incorrect. It is thinner or absent in mucous membranes.
D. Stratum corneum is formed of nucleated cells: Incorrect. The stratum corneum consists of anucleate keratinized cells.
Correct answer: D. Only one single row of cells.
Explanation: The basal cell layer (stratum basale) consists of a single row of columnar or cuboidal cells.
Option analysis:
A. Cells filled with keratin: Incorrect. Keratinization occurs in upper layers.
B. Cells without any organelles: Incorrect. Basal cells contain organelles for division and protein synthesis.
C. Three rows of dividing cells: Incorrect. Only one row is present.
D. Only one single row of cells: Correct.
Correct answer: A. Keratinocyte.
Explanation: Keratinocytes are the primary cell type in the epidermis.
Option analysis:
A. Keratinocyte: Correct. They make up ~90% of epidermal cells.
B. Lymphocyte: Incorrect. Found in the dermis, not as a primary epidermal cell.
C. Eosinophils: Incorrect. They are white blood cells.
D. Fibroblasts: Incorrect. Found in the dermis.
Correct answer: B. Divided into papillary layer and reticular layer.
Explanation: The dermis has two layers: a superficial papillary layer and a deeper reticular layer.
Option analysis:
A. Contains most melanocytes that give the skin its color: Incorrect. Melanocytes are in the basal layer of the epidermis.
B. Divided into papillary layer and reticular layer: Correct.
C. Blood vessels are rarely found in this layer: Incorrect. The dermis is vascular.
D. Is thicker in palms and soles: Correct but secondary; B is more direct.
Correct answer: C. Stratum basalis.
Explanation: Melanocytes reside in the basal layer (stratum basale) of the epidermis and produce melanin.
Option analysis:
A. Stratum corneum: Incorrect. No living cells are present.
B. Stratum spinosum: Incorrect. Found one layer deeper.
C. Stratum basalis: Correct.
D. Stratum lucidum: Incorrect. Found only in thick skin.
Correct answer: C. Is the travel of cells from the basal layer to the corneal layer with formation of keratin.
Explanation: Keratinization involves the differentiation of keratinocytes as they migrate upward.
Option analysis:
A. Is the process of cell division in the corneal layer every 28 days: Incorrect. Cell division occurs in the basal layer.
B. Is the process of losing keratin and cell organelles: Incorrect. Cells gain keratin and lose organelles.
C. Is the travel of cells from basal layer to corneal layer with formation of keratin: Correct.
D. While cells travel upward, cell organelles increase in size: Incorrect. Organelles degenerate.
Correct answer: A. Papules and plaques.
Explanation: Primary lesions are the initial, unaltered skin manifestations.
Option analysis:
A. Papules and plaques: Correct.
B. Erosions and ulcers: Incorrect. These are secondary lesions.
C. Hyperkeratosis: Incorrect. Secondary change.
D. Atrophic scars: Incorrect. Secondary lesion.
Correct answer: C. Lichenification.
Explanation: Secondary lesions arise from primary lesions or external factors.
Option analysis:
A. Macules and patches: Incorrect. Primary lesions.
B. Vesicles and bullae: Incorrect. Primary lesions.
C. Lichenification: Correct.
D. Keratinocytes: Incorrect. These are cells, not lesions.
Correct answer: A. Collection of dried exudates and cellular debris.
Explanation: Crusts are formed by dried serum, pus, or blood.
Option analysis:
A. Collection of dried exudates and cellular debris: Correct.
B. Collection of clear fluid of more than 5 mm: Incorrect. This describes a bulla.
C. Presence of pus regardless of the size: Incorrect. This describes pustules.
D. Superficial loss of epidermal continuity: Incorrect. Describes an erosion.
Correct answer: A. The thickening of corneal layer.
Explanation: Hyperkeratosis refers to the thickening of the stratum corneum (the outermost layer of the skin).
Option analysis:
A. The thickening of corneal layer: Correct.
B. The thinning of corneal layer: Incorrect. Thinning is called atrophy.
C. Absence of corneal layer: Incorrect. Absence would lead to compromised skin barrier.
D. The increase in granular layer: Incorrect. Granular layer changes are a separate process.
Correct answer: C. Urticaria.
Explanation: Wheals are raised, red, itchy areas commonly seen in urticaria (hives).
Option analysis:
A. Pityriasis rosea: Incorrect. It typically presents as a herald patch and oval lesions.
B. Erythema multiformis: Incorrect. Characterized by target lesions, not wheals.
C. Urticaria: Correct. Wheals are the hallmark of urticaria.
D. Heat rash: Incorrect. Presents with small, red, itchy spots.
Correct answer: D. Diagnosis is confirmed by KOH examination.
Explanation: KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination is used to detect fungal elements in skin scrapings for diagnosing tinea infections.
Option analysis:
A. Is the dermatophyte infection of glabrous skin: Incorrect. Tinea capitis affects the scalp, not glabrous skin.
B. Typical lesion is a plaque covered with crusts: Incorrect. Tinea capitis usually presents as scaly, round patches.
C. Topical antifungal (imidazoles or miconazole) is enough to treat the condition: Incorrect. Oral antifungals are required for tinea capitis.
D. Diagnosis is confirmed by KOH examination: Correct.
Correct answer: C. Appears as scaly patch with elevated margins.
Explanation: Tinea corporis (ringworm) presents as a ring-shaped lesion with raised, scaly borders.
Option analysis:
A. The superficial fungal infection of the groin: Incorrect. This describes tinea cruris.
B. The face is never affected: Incorrect. Tinea corporis can affect the face.
C. Appears as scaly patch with elevated margins: Correct.
D. Can be treated by Wood's lamp applied in a dark room: Incorrect. Wood's lamp is helpful for diagnosing tinea capitis, not corporis.
Correct answer: A. Superficial dermatophyte infection of groin.
Explanation: Tinea cruris, also known as "jock itch," is a fungal infection of the groin area.
Option analysis:
A. Superficial dermatophyte infection of groin: Correct.
B. Patches of localized loss of groin hair covered with fine scales: Incorrect. This more closely describes tinea capitis.
C. Typical lesion is a hypopigmented patch with unclear margins: Incorrect. It presents as a well-demarcated, scaly, red patch.
D. Systemic antifungal is mandatory for treatment: Incorrect. Topical antifungals are typically sufficient.
Correct answer: D. Molluscum contagiosum.
Explanation: Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a poxvirus.
Option analysis:
A. Scabies: Incorrect. Scabies is caused by a mite.
B. Pediculosis: Incorrect. Pediculosis is a parasitic infestation caused by lice.
C. Impetigo contagiosum: Incorrect. Impetigo is bacterial.
D. Molluscum contagiosum: Correct.
Correct answer: B. Usually starts with the characteristic herald/mother patch.
Explanation: Pityriasis rosea typically begins with a "herald patch," a large, scaly patch on the body.
Option analysis:
A. If not treated, complications are not preventable: Incorrect. Pityriasis rosea often resolves on its own.
B. Usually starts with the characteristic herald/mother patch: Correct.
C. Systemic steroids is the available treatment: Incorrect. Steroids are not commonly used; symptomatic treatment is given.
D. Topical antibiotics (Fucidic acid) is the treatment of choice: Incorrect. Topical antibiotics are not used for pityriasis rosea.
Correct answer: A. Is the causative organism of Tinea versicolor & scalp dandruff.
Explanation: Malassezia furfur (also called Pityrosporum ovale) is responsible for fungal infections like tinea versicolor and seborrheic dermatitis (scalp dandruff).
Option analysis:
A. Is the causative organism of Tinea versicolor & scalp dandruff: Correct.
B. Differentiated from seborrhoeic dermatitis by absence of itching: Incorrect. Seborrheic dermatitis can be itchy, while tinea versicolor is often not.
C. Causes hyper-pigmented plaques: Incorrect. Tinea versicolor typically causes hypopigmented or hyperpigmented patches.
D. The scalp is commonly affected: Incorrect. The scalp is more affected by seborrheic dermatitis, not tinea versicolor.
Correct answer: A. Causative parasite is O. volvulus.
Explanation: Onchocerciasis, also known as river blindness, is caused by the parasitic worm Onchocerca volvulus.
Option analysis:
A. Causative parasite is O. volvulus: Correct.
B. Vector is the river strain of sandfly: Incorrect. The vector is the blackfly, not a sandfly.
C. Skin is commonly affected and eyes can never be affected: Incorrect. Onchocerciasis can also affect the eyes.
D. Is prevalent only in the Republic of South Sudan: Incorrect. Onchocerciasis is found in many parts of sub-Saharan Africa and parts of Central and South America.
Correct answer: D. Tinea unghium & Tinea capitis.
Explanation: Both tinea unghium (onychomycosis) and tinea capitis are difficult to treat with topical antifungals alone, so systemic antifungals like terbinafine or itraconazole are necessary.
Option analysis:
A. Tinea corporis: Incorrect. Usually treated with topical antifungals.
B. Tinea cruris: Incorrect. Topical antifungals are sufficient.
C. Tinea pedis & Tinea cruris: Incorrect. Most cases can be treated topically.
D. Tinea unghium & Tinea capitis: Correct.
Correct answer: B. Apart from the face, it may involve chest and shoulders.
Explanation: Acne vulgaris primarily affects the face, chest, and shoulders due to the concentration of sebaceous glands.
Option analysis:
A. A disease of sweat glands: Incorrect. Acne involves sebaceous glands.
B. Apart from the face, it may involve chest and shoulders: Correct.
C. Topical antibiotics can induce scar formation: Incorrect. Scar formation is not a side effect of topical antibiotics.
D. Although it appears with puberty, hormonal changes of adolescence has no role: Incorrect. Hormonal changes play a critical role in acne development.
Correct answer: C. Topical antibiotics.
Explanation: Topical antibiotics, such as clindamycin, are commonly used in treating acne vulgaris.
Option analysis:
A. Topical steroids: Incorrect. Steroids can worsen acne.
B. Topical antifungal: Incorrect. Antifungals are not used for acne.
C. Topical antibiotics: Correct.
D. Topical emollient creams: Incorrect. Emollients do not address acne pathogenesis.
Correct answer: A. Follicular hyper-cornification & inflammation.
Explanation: Acne vulgaris involves follicular hyperkeratinization, sebum overproduction, Propionibacterium acnes infection, and inflammation.
Option analysis:
A. Follicular hyper-cornification & inflammation: Correct.
B. Decreased turnover of epidermal cells: Incorrect. There is increased turnover in acne.
C. Excess sweating: Incorrect. Sweat glands are not involved in acne.
D. Thinning of the sebaceous glands: Incorrect. Sebaceous glands are hyperactive in acne.
Correct answer: B. Has two forms: bullous and non-bullous.
Explanation: Impetigo has two clinical forms: bullous (caused by Staphylococcus aureus) and non-bullous (caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes).
Option analysis:
A. Covered areas of the body are most affected: Incorrect. Exposed areas are more affected.
B. Has two forms: bullous and non-bullous: Correct.
C. Lesions are usually in the palms and soles: Incorrect. Lesions occur on the face and extremities.
D. Topical treatment is not effective, so systemic treatment must be used in all cases: Incorrect. Topical antibiotics are often sufficient for mild cases.
Correct answer: C. Presented as plaques covered with silvery scales.
Explanation: Psoriasis commonly presents as erythematous plaques covered with silvery-white scales, often on extensor surfaces.
Option analysis:
A. Turnover of epidermal cells is very slow: Incorrect. Psoriasis involves rapid turnover of epidermal cells.
B. Scalp and nails are never involved: Incorrect. Both are frequently affected.
C. Presented as plaques covered with silvery scales: Correct.
D. Presented as hyperpigmented macules associated with itching: Incorrect. Psoriasis is not primarily a condition of macules or itching.
Correct answer: B. Topical steroids or antifungal.
Explanation: Treatment involves topical antifungal agents (e.g., ketoconazole) or mild topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
Option analysis:
A. Topical anti-acne for seborrheic areas: Incorrect. Acne treatments are not used for seborrheic dermatitis.
B. Topical steroids or antifungal: Correct.
C. Systemic steroids and antibiotics: Incorrect. These are not typically required.
D. Is self-limited and no treatment required: Incorrect. It often requires treatment to control symptoms.
Correct answer: B. Infection of the scalp, being a complication of Tinea capitis.
Explanation: Kerion is a severe inflammatory response to dermatophyte infection, typically seen in tinea capitis.
Option analysis:
A. Parasitic infection of the scalp associated with pediculosis: Incorrect. It is fungal, not parasitic.
B. Infection of the scalp, being a complication of Tinea capitis: Correct.
C. A painful ulcer in the scalp: Incorrect. It is not an ulcer but an inflammatory mass.
D. Bacterial infection of the hair follicles especially of lower limbs: Incorrect. Kerion is fungal, not bacterial.
Correct answer: C. Varicella-zoster virus.
Explanation: Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox.
Option analysis:
A. Herpes simplex virus: Incorrect. Causes oral/genital herpes.
B. Herpes-zoster virus: Incorrect. No such virus exists.
C. Varicella-zoster virus: Correct.
D. Corynebacterium: Incorrect. Bacterial, not viral.
Correct answer: C. Hair follicles.
Explanation: Folliculitis is an infection or inflammation of hair follicles, often caused by bacteria like Staphylococcus aureus.
Option analysis:
A. Sebaceous glands: Incorrect. Inflammation of sebaceous glands is seen in acne.
B. Sweat glands: Incorrect. Sweat gland inflammation leads to hidradenitis suppurativa.
C. Hair follicles: Correct.
D. Connective tissue: Incorrect.
Correct answer: C. Appear in acne vulgaris as whiteheads or blackheads.
Explanation: Comedones are characteristic lesions in acne vulgaris. Open comedones (blackheads) result from oxidized keratin, while closed comedones (whiteheads) form due to blocked follicles.
Option analysis:
A. Bacterial infection of the hair follicles especially of lower limbs: Incorrect. Comedones are not infections.
B. Parasitic infection of the scalp associated with pediculosis: Incorrect. Comedones are not parasitic.
C. Appear in acne vulgaris as whiteheads or blackheads: Correct.
D. Is one of the secondary skin lesions: Incorrect. Comedones are primary lesions.
Correct answer: B. Characterized by hypo-pigmented or hyper-pigmented patches.
Explanation: Tinea versicolor is a superficial fungal infection caused by Malassezia species, leading to hypo- or hyper-pigmented scaly patches.
Option analysis:
A. Skin coloured papules and plaques: Incorrect. Lesions are typically scaly patches.
B. Characterized by hypo-pigmented or hyper-pigmented patches: Correct.
C. Requires no treatment because it is resistant to all methods: Incorrect. Antifungal treatments like topical ketoconazole are effective.
D. Dermatophyte infection of the face and neck: Incorrect. It is caused by Malassezia, not dermatophytes.
Correct answer: D. Hair in Tinea capitis.
Explanation: Wood's light (UV light) is used to detect fungal infections like tinea capitis by fluorescing infected hair.
Option analysis:
A. Burrows in scabies: Incorrect. Wood’s light is not used for scabies.
B. Nits (eggs) in pediculosis: Incorrect. Nits are identified visually, not with Wood’s light.
C. Nails in Tinea unghium: Incorrect. Wood’s light does not fluoresce on nails.
D. Hair in Tinea capitis: Correct.
Correct answer: A. Has three phases: infantile, childhood, and adult.
Explanation: Atopic dermatitis progresses through three phases, each with distinct clinical features.
Option analysis:
A. Has three phases: infantile, childhood, and adult: Correct.
B. Starts in infants commonly at age of 2 weeks: Incorrect. Typically begins after 2 months of age.
C. Usually there is no family history of atopy: Incorrect. Family history is common.
D. Can be treated by topical ketoconazole: Incorrect. It is treated with emollients, corticosteroids, and antihistamines, not antifungals.
Correct answer: A. Cautery and Cryotherapy.
Explanation: Viral warts are treated by physical methods like cautery, cryotherapy, or chemical agents.
Option analysis:
A. Cautery and Cryotherapy: Correct.
B. Highly potent topical steroid: Incorrect. Steroids do not treat warts.
C. Topical antiviral: Incorrect. Antivirals are not effective for warts.
D. Is a self-limiting and needs no treatment: Incorrect. Many warts require active treatment.
Correct answer: B. Obscure lesions of tinea corporis due to use of topical corticosteroids.
Explanation: Tinea incognito results when corticosteroids mask the typical appearance of dermatophyte infections.
Option analysis:
A. Is the superficial dermatophyte infection of the groin: Incorrect. This describes tinea cruris.
B. Obscure lesions of tinea corporis due to use of topical corticosteroids: Correct.
C. Typical lesions are tiny pustules in the affected area: Incorrect. Lesions are often atypical and altered.
D. Super-potent topical steroid will treat the condition: Incorrect. Steroids worsen the condition.
Correct answer: C. Mechanical removal of scales results in pin-point bleeding.
Explanation: Auspitz sign refers to pinpoint bleeding observed when psoriatic scales are removed.
Option analysis:
A. Usually negative in children: Incorrect. It is positive in most cases.
B. Appearance of erythema with silvery scales: Incorrect. This describes psoriasis lesions but not the sign.
C. Mechanical removal of scales results in pin-point bleeding: Correct.
D. Not recommended in plaque type: Incorrect. The sign is often seen in plaque psoriasis.
Correct answer: D. Sarcoptes species.
Explanation: Scabies is caused by Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis, a mite that burrows into the skin.
Option analysis:
A. Treponema pallidum: Incorrect. Causes syphilis.
B. Pediculus humanus: Incorrect. Causes pediculosis.
C. Human Papilloma species: Incorrect. Causes warts.
D. Sarcoptes species: Correct.
Correct answer: A. Skin-colored papules with a central depression.
Explanation: Molluscum contagiosum presents as dome-shaped papules with a central dimple.
Option analysis:
A. Skin-colored papules with a central depression: Correct.
B. Can never be transmitted sexually: Incorrect. It can be sexually transmitted in adults.
C. A disease of unwashed people: Incorrect. Hygiene is not a cause.
D. Treated by topical creams or ointments: Incorrect. Requires physical removal or cryotherapy.
Correct answer: D. Causative organism is the same for both conditions.
Explanation: Both conditions are caused by the varicella-zoster virus.
Option analysis:
A. Both start with vesicles containing pus: Incorrect. Vesicles contain clear fluid.
B. If chickenpox is not treated, it can proceed to herpes zoster: Incorrect. Herpes zoster occurs from reactivation, not lack of treatment.
C. Patients with chickenpox usually have past history of herpes zoster: Incorrect. Herpes zoster occurs after chickenpox, not vice versa.
D. Causative organism is the same for both conditions: Correct.
Correct answer: A. The lice feed on the body, but live in the clothing.
Explanation: Pediculus humanus corporis lives in clothing seams and feeds on the body.
Option analysis:
A. The lice feed on the body, but live in the clothing: Correct.
B. The lice live and feed in the seams of clothing: Incorrect. Feeding occurs on the body.
C. They lay eggs in tunnels made in skin: Incorrect. Eggs are laid in clothing seams.
D. The parasite uses skin keratin as nutrient: Incorrect. They feed on blood.
Correct answer: B. Systemic treatment with ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
Explanation: Ivermectin is effective for treating scabies, particularly in crusted forms or outbreaks.
Option analysis:
A. There is marked itching during the day: Incorrect. Itching worsens at night.
B. Systemic treatment with ivermectin is the treatment of choice: Correct.
C. Transmission starts when the parasite takes a blood-meal from a human host: Incorrect. Transmission occurs via direct skin contact.
D. Can never be transmitted by sexual contact: Incorrect. It can be sexually transmitted.
Correct answer: A. The innermost layer is composed of dividing cells.
Explanation: The basal layer (stratum basale) of the epidermis contains actively dividing keratinocytes.
Option analysis:
A. The innermost layer is composed of dividing cells: Correct. The basal layer is mitotically active.
B. Numerous blood vessels: Incorrect. The epidermis is avascular.
C. Stratum corneum is very thick in mucous membranes: Incorrect. It is thinner or absent in mucous membranes.
D. Stratum corneum is formed of nucleated cells: Incorrect. The stratum corneum consists of anucleate keratinized cells.
Correct answer: D. Only one single row of cells.
Explanation: The basal cell layer (stratum basale) consists of a single row of columnar or cuboidal cells.
Option analysis:
A. Cells filled with keratin: Incorrect. Keratinization occurs in upper layers.
B. Cells without any organelles: Incorrect. Basal cells contain organelles for division and protein synthesis.
C. Three rows of dividing cells: Incorrect. Only one row is present.
D. Only one single row of cells: Correct.
Correct answer: A. Keratinocyte.
Explanation: Keratinocytes are the primary cell type in the epidermis.
Option analysis:
A. Keratinocyte: Correct. They make up ~90% of epidermal cells.
B. Lymphocyte: Incorrect. Found in the dermis, not as a primary epidermal cell.
C. Eosinophils: Incorrect. They are white blood cells.
D. Fibroblasts: Incorrect. Found in the dermis.
Correct answer: B. Divided into papillary layer and reticular layer.
Explanation: The dermis has two layers: a superficial papillary layer and a deeper reticular layer.
Option analysis:
A. Contains most melanocytes that give the skin its color: Incorrect. Melanocytes are in the basal layer of the epidermis.
B. Divided into papillary layer and reticular layer: Correct.
C. Blood vessels are rarely found in this layer: Incorrect. The dermis is vascular.
D. Is thicker in palms and soles: Correct but secondary; B is more direct.
Correct answer: C. Stratum basalis.
Explanation: Melanocytes reside in the basal layer (stratum basale) of the epidermis and produce melanin.
Option analysis:
A. Stratum corneum: Incorrect. No living cells are present.
B. Stratum spinosum: Incorrect. Found one layer deeper.
C. Stratum basalis: Correct.
D. Stratum lucidum: Incorrect. Found only in thick skin.
Correct answer: C. Is the travel of cells from the basal layer to the corneal layer with formation of keratin.
Explanation: Keratinization involves the differentiation of keratinocytes as they migrate upward.
Option analysis:
A. Is the process of cell division in the corneal layer every 28 days: Incorrect. Cell division occurs in the basal layer.
B. Is the process of losing keratin and cell organelles: Incorrect. Cells gain keratin and lose organelles.
C. Is the travel of cells from basal layer to corneal layer with formation of keratin: Correct.
D. While cells travel upward, cell organelles increase in size: Incorrect. Organelles degenerate.
Correct answer: A. Papules and plaques.
Explanation: Primary lesions are the initial, unaltered skin manifestations.
Option analysis:
A. Papules and plaques: Correct.
B. Erosions and ulcers: Incorrect. These are secondary lesions.
C. Hyperkeratosis: Incorrect. Secondary change.
D. Atrophic scars: Incorrect. Secondary lesion.
Correct answer: C. Lichenification.
Explanation: Secondary lesions arise from primary lesions or external factors.
Option analysis:
A. Macules and patches: Incorrect. Primary lesions.
B. Vesicles and bullae: Incorrect. Primary lesions.
C. Lichenification: Correct.
D. Keratinocytes: Incorrect. These are cells, not lesions.
Correct answer: A. Collection of dried exudates and cellular debris.
Explanation: Crusts are formed by dried serum, pus, or blood.
Option analysis:
A. Collection of dried exudates and cellular debris: Correct.
B. Collection of clear fluid of more than 5 mm: Incorrect. This describes a bulla.
C. Presence of pus regardless of the size: Incorrect. This describes pustules.
D. Superficial loss of epidermal continuity: Incorrect. Describes an erosion.
Correct answer: A. The thickening of corneal layer.
Explanation: Hyperkeratosis refers to the thickening of the stratum corneum (the outermost layer of the skin).
Option analysis:
A. The thickening of corneal layer: Correct.
B. The thinning of corneal layer: Incorrect. Thinning is called atrophy.
C. Absence of corneal layer: Incorrect. Absence would lead to compromised skin barrier.
D. The increase in granular layer: Incorrect. Granular layer changes are a separate process.
Correct answer: C. Urticaria.
Explanation: Wheals are raised, red, itchy areas commonly seen in urticaria (hives).
Option analysis:
A. Pityriasis rosea: Incorrect. It typically presents as a herald patch and oval lesions.
B. Erythema multiformis: Incorrect. Characterized by target lesions, not wheals.
C. Urticaria: Correct. Wheals are the hallmark of urticaria.
D. Heat rash: Incorrect. Presents with small, red, itchy spots.
Correct answer: D. Diagnosis is confirmed by KOH examination.
Explanation: KOH (potassium hydroxide) examination is used to detect fungal elements in skin scrapings for diagnosing tinea infections.
Option analysis:
A. Is the dermatophyte infection of glabrous skin: Incorrect. Tinea capitis affects the scalp, not glabrous skin.
B. Typical lesion is a plaque covered with crusts: Incorrect. Tinea capitis usually presents as scaly, round patches.
C. Topical antifungal (imidazoles or miconazole) is enough to treat the condition: Incorrect. Oral antifungals are required for tinea capitis.
D. Diagnosis is confirmed by KOH examination: Correct.
Correct answer: C. Appears as scaly patch with elevated margins.
Explanation: Tinea corporis (ringworm) presents as a ring-shaped lesion with raised, scaly borders.
Option analysis:
A. The superficial fungal infection of the groin: Incorrect. This describes tinea cruris.
B. The face is never affected: Incorrect. Tinea corporis can affect the face.
C. Appears as scaly patch with elevated margins: Correct.
D. Can be treated by Wood's lamp applied in a dark room: Incorrect. Wood's lamp is helpful for diagnosing tinea capitis, not corporis.
Correct answer: A. Superficial dermatophyte infection of groin.
Explanation: Tinea cruris, also known as "jock itch," is a fungal infection of the groin area.
Option analysis:
A. Superficial dermatophyte infection of groin: Correct.
B. Patches of localized loss of groin hair covered with fine scales: Incorrect. This more closely describes tinea capitis.
C. Typical lesion is a hypopigmented patch with unclear margins: Incorrect. It presents as a well-demarcated, scaly, red patch.
D. Systemic antifungal is mandatory for treatment: Incorrect. Topical antifungals are typically sufficient.
Correct answer: D. Molluscum contagiosum.
Explanation: Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a poxvirus.
Option analysis:
A. Scabies: Incorrect. Scabies is caused by a mite.
B. Pediculosis: Incorrect. Pediculosis is a parasitic infestation caused by lice.
C. Impetigo contagiosum: Incorrect. Impetigo is bacterial.
D. Molluscum contagiosum: Correct.
Correct answer: B. Usually starts with the characteristic herald/mother patch.
Explanation: Pityriasis rosea typically begins with a "herald patch," a large, scaly patch on the body.
Option analysis:
A. If not treated, complications are not preventable: Incorrect. Pityriasis rosea often resolves on its own.
B. Usually starts with the characteristic herald/mother patch: Correct.
C. Systemic steroids is the available treatment: Incorrect. Steroids are not commonly used; symptomatic treatment is given.
D. Topical antibiotics (Fucidic acid) is the treatment of choice: Incorrect. Topical antibiotics are not used for pityriasis rosea.
Correct answer: A. Is the causative organism of Tinea versicolor & scalp dandruff.
Explanation: Malassezia furfur (also called Pityrosporum ovale) is responsible for fungal infections like tinea versicolor and seborrheic dermatitis (scalp dandruff).
Option analysis:
A. Is the causative organism of Tinea versicolor & scalp dandruff: Correct.
B. Differentiated from seborrhoeic dermatitis by absence of itching: Incorrect. Seborrheic dermatitis can be itchy, while tinea versicolor is often not.
C. Causes hyper-pigmented plaques: Incorrect. Tinea versicolor typically causes hypopigmented or hyperpigmented patches.
D. The scalp is commonly affected: Incorrect. The scalp is more affected by seborrheic dermatitis, not tinea versicolor.
Correct answer: A. Causative parasite is O. volvulus.
Explanation: Onchocerciasis, also known as river blindness, is caused by the parasitic worm Onchocerca volvulus.
Option analysis:
A. Causative parasite is O. volvulus: Correct.
B. Vector is the river strain of sandfly: Incorrect. The vector is the blackfly, not a sandfly.
C. Skin is commonly affected and eyes can never be affected: Incorrect. Onchocerciasis can also affect the eyes.
D. Is prevalent only in the Republic of South Sudan: Incorrect. Onchocerciasis is found in many parts of sub-Saharan Africa and parts of Central and South America.
Correct answer: D. Tinea unghium & Tinea capitis.
Explanation: Both tinea unghium (onychomycosis) and tinea capitis are difficult to treat with topical antifungals alone, so systemic antifungals like terbinafine or itraconazole are necessary.
Option analysis:
A. Tinea corporis: Incorrect. Usually treated with topical antifungals.
B. Tinea cruris: Incorrect. Topical antifungals are sufficient.
C. Tinea pedis & Tinea cruris: Incorrect. Most cases can be treated topically.
D. Tinea unghium & Tinea capitis: Correct.
Correct answer: B. Apart from the face, it may involve chest and shoulders.
Explanation: Acne vulgaris primarily affects the face, chest, and shoulders due to the concentration of sebaceous glands.
Option analysis:
A. A disease of sweat glands: Incorrect. Acne involves sebaceous glands.
B. Apart from the face, it may involve chest and shoulders: Correct.
C. Topical antibiotics can induce scar formation: Incorrect. Scar formation is not a side effect of topical antibiotics.
D. Although it appears with puberty, hormonal changes of adolescence has no role: Incorrect. Hormonal changes play a critical role in acne development.
Correct answer: C. Topical antibiotics.
Explanation: Topical antibiotics, such as clindamycin, are commonly used in treating acne vulgaris.
Option analysis:
A. Topical steroids: Incorrect. Steroids can worsen acne.
B. Topical antifungal: Incorrect. Antifungals are not used for acne.
C. Topical antibiotics: Correct.
D. Topical emollient creams: Incorrect. Emollients do not address acne pathogenesis.
Correct answer: A. Follicular hyper-cornification & inflammation.
Explanation: Acne vulgaris involves follicular hyperkeratinization, sebum overproduction, Propionibacterium acnes infection, and inflammation.
Option analysis:
A. Follicular hyper-cornification & inflammation: Correct.
B. Decreased turnover of epidermal cells: Incorrect. There is increased turnover in acne.
C. Excess sweating: Incorrect. Sweat glands are not involved in acne.
D. Thinning of the sebaceous glands: Incorrect. Sebaceous glands are hyperactive in acne.
Correct answer: B. Has two forms: bullous and non-bullous.
Explanation: Impetigo has two clinical forms: bullous (caused by Staphylococcus aureus) and non-bullous (caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes).
Option analysis:
A. Covered areas of the body are most affected: Incorrect. Exposed areas are more affected.
B. Has two forms: bullous and non-bullous: Correct.
C. Lesions are usually in the palms and soles: Incorrect. Lesions occur on the face and extremities.
D. Topical treatment is not effective, so systemic treatment must be used in all cases: Incorrect. Topical antibiotics are often sufficient for mild cases.
Correct answer: C. Presented as plaques covered with silvery scales.
Explanation: Psoriasis commonly presents as erythematous plaques covered with silvery-white scales, often on extensor surfaces.
Option analysis:
A. Turnover of epidermal cells is very slow: Incorrect. Psoriasis involves rapid turnover of epidermal cells.
B. Scalp and nails are never involved: Incorrect. Both are frequently affected.
C. Presented as plaques covered with silvery scales: Correct.
D. Presented as hyperpigmented macules associated with itching: Incorrect. Psoriasis is not primarily a condition of macules or itching.
Correct answer: B. Topical steroids or antifungal.
Explanation: Treatment involves topical antifungal agents (e.g., ketoconazole) or mild topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
Option analysis:
A. Topical anti-acne for seborrheic areas: Incorrect. Acne treatments are not used for seborrheic dermatitis.
B. Topical steroids or antifungal: Correct.
C. Systemic steroids and antibiotics: Incorrect. These are not typically required.
D. Is self-limited and no treatment required: Incorrect. It often requires treatment to control symptoms.
Correct answer: B. Infection of the scalp, being a complication of Tinea capitis.
Explanation: Kerion is a severe inflammatory response to dermatophyte infection, typically seen in tinea capitis.
Option analysis:
A. Parasitic infection of the scalp associated with pediculosis: Incorrect. It is fungal, not parasitic.
B. Infection of the scalp, being a complication of Tinea capitis: Correct.
C. A painful ulcer in the scalp: Incorrect. It is not an ulcer but an inflammatory mass.
D. Bacterial infection of the hair follicles especially of lower limbs: Incorrect. Kerion is fungal, not bacterial.
Correct answer: C. Varicella-zoster virus.
Explanation: Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox.
Option analysis:
A. Herpes simplex virus: Incorrect. Causes oral/genital herpes.
B. Herpes-zoster virus: Incorrect. No such virus exists.
C. Varicella-zoster virus: Correct.
D. Corynebacterium: Incorrect. Bacterial, not viral.
Correct answer: C. Hair follicles.
Explanation: Folliculitis is an infection or inflammation of hair follicles, often caused by bacteria like Staphylococcus aureus.
Option analysis:
A. Sebaceous glands: Incorrect. Inflammation of sebaceous glands is seen in acne.
B. Sweat glands: Incorrect. Sweat gland inflammation leads to hidradenitis suppurativa.
C. Hair follicles: Correct.
D. Connective tissue: Incorrect.
Correct answer: C. Appear in acne vulgaris as whiteheads or blackheads.
Explanation: Comedones are characteristic lesions in acne vulgaris. Open comedones (blackheads) result from oxidized keratin, while closed comedones (whiteheads) form due to blocked follicles.
Option analysis:
A. Bacterial infection of the hair follicles especially of lower limbs: Incorrect. Comedones are not infections.
B. Parasitic infection of the scalp associated with pediculosis: Incorrect. Comedones are not parasitic.
C. Appear in acne vulgaris as whiteheads or blackheads: Correct.
D. Is one of the secondary skin lesions: Incorrect. Comedones are primary lesions.
Correct answer: B. Characterized by hypo-pigmented or hyper-pigmented patches.
Explanation: Tinea versicolor is a superficial fungal infection caused by Malassezia species, leading to hypo- or hyper-pigmented scaly patches.
Option analysis:
A. Skin coloured papules and plaques: Incorrect. Lesions are typically scaly patches.
B. Characterized by hypo-pigmented or hyper-pigmented patches: Correct.
C. Requires no treatment because it is resistant to all methods: Incorrect. Antifungal treatments like topical ketoconazole are effective.
D. Dermatophyte infection of the face and neck: Incorrect. It is caused by Malassezia, not dermatophytes.
Correct answer: D. Hair in Tinea capitis.
Explanation: Wood's light (UV light) is used to detect fungal infections like tinea capitis by fluorescing infected hair.
Option analysis:
A. Burrows in scabies: Incorrect. Wood’s light is not used for scabies.
B. Nits (eggs) in pediculosis: Incorrect. Nits are identified visually, not with Wood’s light.
C. Nails in Tinea unghium: Incorrect. Wood’s light does not fluoresce on nails.
D. Hair in Tinea capitis: Correct.
Correct answer: A. Has three phases: infantile, childhood, and adult.
Explanation: Atopic dermatitis progresses through three phases, each with distinct clinical features.
Option analysis:
A. Has three phases: infantile, childhood, and adult: Correct.
B. Starts in infants commonly at age of 2 weeks: Incorrect. Typically begins after 2 months of age.
C. Usually there is no family history of atopy: Incorrect. Family history is common.
D. Can be treated by topical ketoconazole: Incorrect. It is treated with emollients, corticosteroids, and antihistamines, not antifungals.
Correct answer: A. Cautery and Cryotherapy.
Explanation: Viral warts are treated by physical methods like cautery, cryotherapy, or chemical agents.
Option analysis:
A. Cautery and Cryotherapy: Correct.
B. Highly potent topical steroid: Incorrect. Steroids do not treat warts.
C. Topical antiviral: Incorrect. Antivirals are not effective for warts.
D. Is a self-limiting and needs no treatment: Incorrect. Many warts require active treatment.
Correct answer: B. Obscure lesions of tinea corporis due to use of topical corticosteroids.
Explanation: Tinea incognito results when corticosteroids mask the typical appearance of dermatophyte infections.
Option analysis:
A. Is the superficial dermatophyte infection of the groin: Incorrect. This describes tinea cruris.
B. Obscure lesions of tinea corporis due to use of topical corticosteroids: Correct.
C. Typical lesions are tiny pustules in the affected area: Incorrect. Lesions are often atypical and altered.
D. Super-potent topical steroid will treat the condition: Incorrect. Steroids worsen the condition.
Correct answer: C. Mechanical removal of scales results in pin-point bleeding.
Explanation: Auspitz sign refers to pinpoint bleeding observed when psoriatic scales are removed.
Option analysis:
A. Usually negative in children: Incorrect. It is positive in most cases.
B. Appearance of erythema with silvery scales: Incorrect. This describes psoriasis lesions but not the sign.
C. Mechanical removal of scales results in pin-point bleeding: Correct.
D. Not recommended in plaque type: Incorrect. The sign is often seen in plaque psoriasis.
Correct answer: D. Sarcoptes species.
Explanation: Scabies is caused by Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis, a mite that burrows into the skin.
Option analysis:
A. Treponema pallidum: Incorrect. Causes syphilis.
B. Pediculus humanus: Incorrect. Causes pediculosis.
C. Human Papilloma species: Incorrect. Causes warts.
D. Sarcoptes species: Correct.
Correct answer: A. Skin-colored papules with a central depression.
Explanation: Molluscum contagiosum presents as dome-shaped papules with a central dimple.
Option analysis:
A. Skin-colored papules with a central depression: Correct.
B. Can never be transmitted sexually: Incorrect. It can be sexually transmitted in adults.
C. A disease of unwashed people: Incorrect. Hygiene is not a cause.
D. Treated by topical creams or ointments: Incorrect. Requires physical removal or cryotherapy.
Correct answer: D. Causative organism is the same for both conditions.
Explanation: Both conditions are caused by the varicella-zoster virus.
Option analysis:
A. Both start with vesicles containing pus: Incorrect. Vesicles contain clear fluid.
B. If chickenpox is not treated, it can proceed to herpes zoster: Incorrect. Herpes zoster occurs from reactivation, not lack of treatment.
C. Patients with chickenpox usually have past history of herpes zoster: Incorrect. Herpes zoster occurs after chickenpox, not vice versa.
D. Causative organism is the same for both conditions: Correct.
Correct answer: A. The lice feed on the body, but live in the clothing.
Explanation: Pediculus humanus corporis lives in clothing seams and feeds on the body.
Option analysis:
A. The lice feed on the body, but live in the clothing: Correct.
B. The lice live and feed in the seams of clothing: Incorrect. Feeding occurs on the body.
C. They lay eggs in tunnels made in skin: Incorrect. Eggs are laid in clothing seams.
D. The parasite uses skin keratin as nutrient: Incorrect. They feed on blood.
Correct answer: B. Systemic treatment with ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
Explanation: Ivermectin is effective for treating scabies, particularly in crusted forms or outbreaks.
Option analysis:
A. There is marked itching during the day: Incorrect. Itching worsens at night.
B. Systemic treatment with ivermectin is the treatment of choice: Correct.
C. Transmission starts when the parasite takes a blood-meal from a human host: Incorrect. Transmission occurs via direct skin contact.
D. Can never be transmitted by sexual contact: Incorrect. It can be sexually transmitted.