Anatomy Exam 1

P wave → The atria (top chambers of the heart) contract (atrial depolarization).
QRS complex → The ventricles (bottom chambers) contract (ventricular depolarization).
- The atria also relax here, but you don’t see it because the ventricles’ signal is stronger.
T wave → The ventricles relax (ventricular repolarization).

So basically:

P wave = Atria squeeze
QRS = Ventricles squeeze
T wave = Ventricles relax

Blood coming TO the heart (low oxygen)

Body → Right Atrium (via superior & inferior vena cava)
Right Atrium → Right Ventricle (through tricuspid valve)
Right Ventricle → Lungs (via pulmonary artery)
💨 Lungs add oxygen and remove CO₂

2. Blood IN the heart (now high in oxygen)

Lungs → Left Atrium (via pulmonary veins)
Left Atrium → Left Ventricle (through bicuspid/mitral valve)

3. Blood going FROM the heart (oxygen-rich)

Left Ventricle → Body (via aorta)
Oxygen gets used by the body, and the cycle repeats

Of the following structures of the heart wall, which consumes the most energy?
a. epicardium
b. myocardium
c. endocardium
d. serous pericardium
Which of the following structures is an exception to the general principle surrounding blood vessel oxygen levels?
a. pulmonary artery
b. aorta
c. pulmonary veins
d. both a and c
What purpose does the coronary circuit serve?
a. None: it is a vestigial set of vessels.
b. It delivers 1/20 of the body’s blood supply necessary to support heart function.
c. It delivers blood to the anterior lung surface for gas exchange.
d. It feeds the anterior thoracic wall.
A heart murmur would be detected when blood is heard flowing from the ________ to the __________ through the ___________.
(Hint: A murmur is a sound associated with abnormal backflow.)
a. right atrium → right ventricle; tricuspid valve
b. right atrium → left atrium; tricuspid valve
c. left ventricle → left atrium; bicuspid valve
d. left atrium → left ventricle; bicuspid valve
The function of intercalated disks between adjacent cardiac cells is to:
a. deliver glucose to the myocardium.
b. facilitate extremely fast communication among myocardial cells.
c. create a “skeleton” to support and hold together the very active cardiac muscle cells.
d. both a and c.
The stimulus for the heart’s rhythmic contractions comes from:
a. intercalated discs
b. a neuromuscular junction
c. acetylcholine
d. a pacemaker potential of the conduction system
In a normal heart, which of the following structures is responsible for setting the heart’s pace?
a. sinoatrial node
b. atrioventricular node
c. atrioventricular bundle
d. left bundle branch
The “lub-dup” heart sounds are produced by:
a. the wall of the atria and ventricles slapping together during a contraction.
b. the blood hitting the wall of the ventricle and arteries, respectively.
c. “Lub” corresponds to the closing of the atrioventricular valves, and “dup” corresponds to the closing of the semilunar valves.
d. “Lub” corresponds to the closing of the semilunar valves, and “dup” corresponds to the closing of the atrioventricular valves.
The majority (80%) of ventricular filling occurs:
a. during late ventricular systole
b. passively through blood flow alone
c. with atrial systole
d. both a and b
Cardiac output is determined by:
a. heart rate
b. stroke volume
c. cardiac reserve
d. both a and b
Cardiac reserve:
a. is unrelated to health
b. can be improved by regular exercise
c. can be determined by auscultation
d. is determined genetically and is not subject to improvement
The T wave of a normal ECG indicates:
a. atrial repolarization
b. atrial depolarization
c. ventricular repolarization
d. ventricular depolarization
Hemorrhage with a large blood loss would cause:
a. a rise in blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
b. a lowering of the blood pressure due to changes in cardiac output
c. no change in blood pressure
d. a significantly slower heart rate
Blood ejected from the ventricles enters which of these vessels during ventricular systole?
a. both vena cava and pulmonary veins
b. aorta only
c. pulmonary arteries only
d. pulmonary veins only
e. both the aorta and the pulmonary trunk
The first heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
a. isovolumetric relaxation
b. isovolumetric contraction
c. ventricular ejection
d. ventricular filling
The P wave of an ECG corresponds to:
a. atrial depolarization
b. atrial repolarization
c. ventricular depolarization
d. ventricular repolarization
What does the QRS complex of an ECG represent?
a. atrial repolarization
b. ventricular depolarization
c. atrial depolarization
d. ventricular repolarization

Of the following vessel types, which are those that conduct blood toward the heart, regardless of oxygen content?
a. arteries
b. arterioles
c. capillaries
d. veins
Of the following blood vessel components, which is the most critical in regulating systemic blood pressure?
a. tunica intima
b. tunica media
c. tunica externa
d. venous valves
Of the following cardiovascular components, which contains the majority of the body’s blood volume at any one time?
a. pulmonary capillaries
b. heart
c. systemic veins and venules
d. systemic capillaries
Some of the least permeable capillaries are found in the ________, while some of the most permeable capillaries are found in the _________.
a. kidney → brain
b. intestine → muscles
c. bone marrow → brain
d. brain → bone marrow
Predict the change in peripheral resistance as blood vessel diameter increases.
a. peripheral resistance decreases
b. peripheral resistance increases
c. peripheral resistance remains unchanged
d. peripheral resistance is constant in humans
Baroreceptors detect changes in __________.
a. blood O₂ levels
b. stretch in arterial walls
c. blood CO₂ levels
d. blood H⁺ levels
Capillary osmotic pressure created by _________ tends to _______.
a. blood volume → push fluids out of the capillary
b. non-diffusible plasma proteins → draw fluids into the capillary
c. interstitial fluid → draw fluids out of the capillary
d. proteins in the interstitial fluid → push fluids into the interstitial fluid
What role do the lymphatic vessels have when it comes to fluid movements across capillary beds?
a. lymphatic vessels reclaim fluid from the tissue spaces and return it to the cardiovascular system
b. lymph vessels also deliver O₂ to tissues
c. lymph vessels provide the hydrostatic pressure that drives filtration
d. lymph vessels are responsible for making lymphocytes
Blood is returned to the heart via_________.
a. the superior vena cava
b. the inferior vena cava
c. coronary sinus
d. all return blood to the heart above
Blood drained from digestive organs empties into the ______ before it perfuses the liver.
a. inferior vena cava
b. hepatic vein
c. hepatic portal vein
d. dural sinus
The major vessel(s) delivering deoxygenated blood to the lungs is (are) the ______.
a. pulmonary arteries
b. pulmonary veins
c. aorta
d. superior vena cava
How many arteries branch directly from the aortic arch in humans?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
The superior vena cava receives systemic blood draining from all areas superior to the diaphragm except the ________.
a. lungs
b. upper arm
c. heart wall
d. brain

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of blood flow through the vessels?
a. veins → arteries → capillaries
b. arteries → veins → capillaries
c. arteries → capillaries → veins
d. capillaries → veins → arteries
The primary function of albumin in plasma is:
a. to maintain osmotic pressure
b. to transport oxygen
c. to form blood clots
d. both a and b
How many oxygen molecules can a single hemoglobin transport?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 40
d. 400
A hematopoietic stem cell (hemocytoblast) can differentiate into:
a. only red blood cells
b. only white blood cells
c. only platelets
d. all of the above
What is a possible consequence of excessive erythropoietin production?
a. increased blood viscosity, leading to heart risks
b. decreased red blood cell count
c. improved immune response
d. no significant effect on the blood
What physiological response is expected when living at a high altitude for an extended period?
a. reduced iron levels
b. increased secretion of erythropoietin
c. increased blood oxygen levels
d. no changes in blood composition
Pernicious anemia results from the inability to absorb vitamin B12. Which symptom would be expected?
a. decreased blood iron levels
b. inability of bone marrow cells to divide properly
c. an increase in red blood cell count
d. no impact on red blood cells
What process allows white blood cells to move toward damaged areas?
a. breaking of capillaries to release WBCs
b. chemical signaling from other WBCs
c. independent migration of tissue cells
d. none of the above
A high neutrophil count is most indicative of:
a. a viral infection
b. a bacterial infection
c. a parasitic infection
d. an allergic reaction
Antihistamines primarily block the action of which WBC?
a. neutrophils
b. lymphocytes
c. basophils
d. eosinophils
Which of the following describes leukemia?
a. low WBC count
b. overproduction of abnormal white blood cells
c. overproduction of normal neutrophils
d. abnormal growth of red blood cells
What is the precursor to platelets?
a. thrombocyte
b. megakaryocyte
c. hemocytoblast
d. erythroblast
Which statement is TRUE regarding platelets?
a. They only form after blood vessel damage occurs.
b. They adhere to collagen fibers to form plugs.
c. Blood vessels prevent platelet adhesion with chemicals.
d. More than one of the above is correct.
Why might a person be prescribed heparin?
a. to prevent spontaneous blood clotting
b. to treat low platelet count
c. to counteract hemophilia
d. to increase clotting factor production
Why could a Type A– person react negatively to a transfusion of whole Type O– blood?
a. Type O blood might contain anti-A antibodies.
b. The Rh factor would cause a reaction.
c. Blood transfusions must occur within the same group.
d. Type O red cells might carry B antigens.
What are the two most life-threatening consequences of excessive blood loss?
a. loss of clotting ability and osmotic balance
b. loss of blood pressure and oxygen transport
c. loss of immune function and blood pressure
d. loss of CO₂ transport and immune response
Which blood cell type is responsible for gas transport?
a. neutrophils
b. leukocytes
c. lymphocytes
d. erythrocytes

. What blood type is known as the universal donor?

a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type AB
d. Type O

2. A person with type AB blood can receive blood from which of the following?

a. Type A and Type B only
b. Type O only
c. Type AB only
d. All blood types

3. If a person with type A blood needs a transfusion, which blood types can they safely receive?

a. Type A and Type B
b. Type A and Type O
c. Type O and Type B
d. Type AB and Type A

4. What determines a person’s blood type?

a. The number of red blood cells
b. The presence or absence of A and B antigens
c. The amount of hemoglobin in the blood
d. The size of the white blood cells

5. What is the Rh factor in blood typing?

a. A measure of blood clotting ability
b. A type of white blood cell
c. A protein that can be present (+) or absent (-) on red blood cells
d. The ratio of plasma to red blood cells

6. A mother with Rh-negative blood is pregnant with an Rh-positive baby. Why could this be a problem?

a. The baby might have low oxygen levels.
b. The mother’s immune system might attack the baby’s red blood cells.
c. The baby’s white blood cells could attack the mother’s red blood cells.
d. There is no issue; Rh factor does not affect pregnancy.

7. If a person has type O negative blood, who can they donate to?

a. Only type O negative
b. Only type O and type A
c. Only type O and type B
d. All blood types

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