RMA Practice Exam & Answer Key

✅ RMA PRACTICE EXAM (100 QUESTIONS)

1. Medical Terminology and Anatomy (8 Questions)

Q1. Which suffix means “surgical removal”?
A. -itis
B. -ectomy
C. -otomy
D. -scopy

Q2. The prefix “brady-” means:
A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Above
D. Below

Q3. Which body plane divides the body into left and right halves?
A. Coronal
B. Transverse
C. Sagittal
D. Frontal

Q4. The term “hepatomegaly” refers to:
A. Inflammation of the liver
B. Enlargement of the liver
C. Tumor of the liver
D. Disease of the liver

Q5. The femur is located in the:
A. Arm
B. Lower leg
C. Thigh
D. Pelvis

Q6. The medical term for high blood pressure is:
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Bradycardia

Q7. The abbreviation “WBC” stands for:
A. White blood component
B. Whole blood content
C. White blood count
D. White blood cell

Q8. The organ responsible for filtering blood and producing urine is the:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Pancreas
D. Bladder

2. Law, Ethics, and Professionalism (8 Questions)

Q9. HIPAA stands for:
A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
B. Health Information Patient Privacy Act
C. Hospital Insurance Privacy and Protection Agreement
D. Health Information Protection and Assurance Act

Q10. A patient has the right to refuse treatment. This is an example of:
A. Assault
B. Negligence
C. Autonomy
D. Battery

Q11. Informed consent includes all of the following except:
A. Alternative treatments
B. Prognosis
C. Personal opinion of the physician
D. Risks involved

Q12. What is the term for failing to act as a reasonably prudent person would?
A. Assault
B. Battery
C. Negligence
D. Defamation

Q13. The ethical principle of “beneficence” means:
A. Do no harm
B. Be fair
C. Act in the patient’s best interest
D. Respect autonomy

Q14. Which document outlines a patient’s wishes regarding life-saving treatment?
A. HIPAA form
B. Consent form
C. Advance directive
D. Insurance waiver

Q15. Protected Health Information (PHI) can be shared without consent in which situation?
A. With a friend
B. For treatment purposes
C. With the media
D. For marketing

Q16. The legal term for “false written statements that damage a person’s reputation” is:
A. Libel
B. Slander
C. Assault
D. Malpractice

3. Psychology and Communication (8 Questions)

Q17. A patient who crosses their arms and avoids eye contact is likely showing signs of:
A. Interest
B. Anxiety or resistance
C. Joy
D. Empathy

Q18. Active listening involves:
A. Interrupting to ask questions
B. Repeating the patient’s words
C. Fully concentrating and responding appropriately
D. Writing notes silently

Q19. Which defense mechanism involves reverting to an earlier stage of development?
A. Projection
B. Regression
C. Repression
D. Rationalization

Q20. A therapeutic communication technique includes:
A. Offering false reassurance
B. Changing the subject
C. Using silence
D. Giving personal opinions

Q21. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs begins with:
A. Self-esteem
B. Love and belonging
C. Self-actualization
D. Physiological needs

Q22. The best way to communicate with a hearing-impaired patient is to:
A. Shout
B. Face them directly and speak clearly
C. Speak quickly
D. Use medical terminology

Q23. A patient states they feel “nervous all the time.” What is the best response?
A. “Don’t worry, it’ll be fine.”
B. “Why are you nervous?”
C. “Tell me more about how you’re feeling.”
D. “That’s not unusual.”

Q24. Empathy is best described as:
A. Feeling sorry for a patient
B. Agreeing with the patient
C. Understanding and sharing feelings
D. Providing clinical advice

4. Bookkeeping, Credits, and Collections (8 Questions)

Q25. Which form is used to summarize charges and payments for a patient’s visit?
A. CMS-1500
B. Ledger
C. Superbill
D. Day sheet

Q26. When a patient’s account has a credit balance, it means:
A. The patient owes money
B. Insurance owes money
C. An overpayment has occurred
D. The account is delinquent

Q27. The act of recording financial transactions is known as:
A. Auditing
B. Billing
C. Posting
D. Coding

Q28. Accounts receivable refers to:
A. Money the office owes
B. Money owed to the office
C. Payroll
D. Bank statements

Q29. A patient cannot pay in full. What’s the best course of action?
A. Send to collections immediately
B. Offer a payment plan
C. Waive the balance
D. Refuse future care

Q30. Petty cash is used for:
A. Payroll
B. Insurance claims
C. Minor office expenses
D. Monthly rent

Q31. Which item ensures financial accountability for every dollar received?
A. General ledger
B. Trial balance
C. Receipt log
D. Deposit slip

Q32. The aging report is used to track:
A. Staff vacations
B. Medical supplies
C. Outstanding accounts
D. Lab results

5. Billing, Coding, and Insurance (8 Questions)

Q33. What does ICD stand for in medical coding?
A. International Coverage Directive
B. Insurance Claim Diagnosis
C. International Classification of Diseases
D. Insurance Coding Document

Q34. Which code would be used for a routine physical exam?
A. CPT
B. ICD-10
C. HCPCS
D. NPI

Q35. A modifier on a CPT code is used to:
A. Deny a claim
B. Indicate a change in service
C. Identify the diagnosis
D. Delay payment

Q36. What is the first step in the insurance claims process?
A. Appeal denial
B. Code procedures
C. Verify patient eligibility
D. Call the provider

Q37. Which insurance plan is for individuals over 65 or disabled?
A. Medicaid
B. Medicare
C. TRICARE
D. PPO

Q38. A deductible is:
A. A payment made by insurance
B. The total bill
C. The amount the patient pays before insurance
D. The copay amount

Q39. What does “EOB” stand for?
A. Explanation of Benefits
B. End of Billing
C. Estimated Office Bill
D. Eligible Out-of-network Benefits

Q40. What is a claim scrubber?
A. A billing agent
B. A software tool that checks for errors
C. A cleaning service
D. An eligibility checker

6. Medical Records and Office Supplies (8 Questions)

Q41. Which of the following is an example of demographic data in a medical record?
A. Diagnosis
B. Progress note
C. Date of birth
D. Lab results

Q42. The method of organizing a medical record by patient complaint is called:
A. Source-oriented
B. SOAP
C. Problem-oriented
D. Alphabetical

Q43. What does the “S” in SOAP note stand for?
A. Status
B. Symptoms
C. Subjective
D. Signs

Q44. The process of placing documents in the correct order in a medical record is:
A. Coding
B. Filing
C. Indexing
D. Shredding

Q45. How long should adult medical records typically be retained (unless state law differs)?
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 7–10 years
D. 20 years

Q46. A tickler file is used to:
A. Store expired medications
B. Track future dates or tasks
C. File patient allergies
D. Organize financial records

Q47. When ordering supplies, what is important to track to avoid overstocking?
A. Serial number
B. Quantity used
C. Budget
D. Expiration date

Q48. A locked cabinet is recommended for storing:
A. Pens
B. Patient charts
C. Office decorations
D. Brochures

7. Oral and Written Communication (8 Questions)

Q49. Which of the following is most important in written communication?
A. Size of the paper
B. Correct grammar and spelling
C. Number of words
D. All capital letters

Q50. A memo should include:
A. The office policy manual
B. Detailed patient history
C. To, From, Date, Subject
D. A greeting and signature line

Q51. When answering the phone, you should:
A. Say “Hello”
B. Wait for the caller to speak first
C. Identify the office and yourself
D. Ask for insurance information immediately

Q52. A business letter should end with:
A. Regards
B. Yours truly
C. Signature and title
D. Just a name

Q53. When handling written complaints, it is best to:
A. Ignore them
B. Correct spelling errors
C. Escalate them to the appropriate staff
D. File and forget

Q54. Which of the following is an example of written communication?
A. Text message from patient
B. Verbal consent
C. Documented phone note
D. Voicemail

Q55. Triage calls should be:
A. Answered by the physician only
B. Documented clearly
C. Ignored if minor
D. Answered by billing staff

Q56. The most secure method of written patient communication is:
A. Voicemail
B. Social media
C. Encrypted email
D. Fax

8. Scheduling and Office Management (8 Questions)

Q57. A matrix schedule is used to:
A. Arrange staff birthdays
B. Show unavailable times for appointments
C. Record patient billing
D. Color-code insurance types

Q58. What is wave scheduling?
A. One patient every 30 minutes
B. Grouping patients with same needs
C. Multiple patients booked at the top of the hour
D. Emergency scheduling only

Q59. A patient calls to cancel. What should you do first?
A. Tell them to call back later
B. Mark them as a no-show
C. Offer to reschedule
D. Hang up

Q60. The primary advantage of computerized scheduling is:
A. Privacy
B. Speed and efficiency
C. Manual control
D. Bigger screens

Q61. A tickler file helps with:
A. Financial planning
B. Legal cases
C. Future follow-ups
D. Clinical procedures

Q62. The abbreviation “appt” stands for:
A. Apparatus
B. Appointment
C. Application
D. Appendix

Q63. When scheduling a fasting blood draw, the best time is:
A. Afternoon
B. Evening
C. Early morning
D. Late morning

Q64. The first step in resolving a scheduling conflict is to:
A. Cancel everything
B. Ignore the issue
C. Review availability and call patients
D. Blame the receptionist

9. Exam Room Techniques, Patient Prep, and Infection Control (8 Questions)

Q65. The best method for identifying a patient before a procedure is:
A. Ask for their favorite color
B. Check their photo ID
C. Ask for name and date of birth
D. Call them by their first name

Q66. What is the correct angle for an intramuscular injection?
A. 10°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 15°

Q67. A blood pressure reading is taken with which device?
A. Thermometer
B. Otoscope
C. Sphygmomanometer
D. Glucometer

Q68. The term “asepsis” refers to:
A. Complete sterilization
B. Absence of pathogens
C. Cleaning instruments
D. Infection control report

Q69. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection?
A. Wear gloves
B. Use alcohol
C. Handwashing
D. Use bleach

Q70. Which of the following is considered PPE?
A. Clipboard
B. Face shield
C. Thermometer
D. Stethoscope

Q71. When a patient faints during a procedure, the first action should be to:
A. Call 911 immediately
B. Throw water on them
C. Lower them to the floor and elevate legs
D. Leave them and get help

Q72. How long should a thermometer remain in place for an accurate oral temperature reading?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. As per manufacturer’s instructions
D. 1 minute

10. Office Laboratory Procedures (8 Questions)

Q73. CLIA regulates:
A. Insurance billing
B. Clinical laboratory testing
C. Physician licensing
D. Medical coding

Q74. What is used to obtain a throat culture?
A. Scalpel
B. Tongue blade
C. Cotton swab
D. Thermometer

Q75. Which urine test checks for glucose and ketones?
A. Urine culture
B. Dipstick
C. 24-hour collection
D. Microscopy

Q76. A centrifuge is used to:
A. Heat samples
B. Mix chemicals
C. Spin specimens to separate components
D. Freeze specimens

Q77. Which of the following should be labeled immediately after collection?
A. Lab requisition form
B. Patient chart
C. Specimen container
D. Lab table

Q78. Which test monitors long-term glucose control?
A. Fasting glucose
B. A1C
C. GTT
D. Random glucose

Q79. What is the universal color for biohazard containers?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Blue

Q80. A hematocrit test measures:
A. Blood sugar
B. White blood cells
C. The percentage of red blood cells
D. Iron levels

11. Emergency Procedures and First Aid (8 Questions)

Q81. The first step in CPR is to:
A. Give breaths
B. Check for response and call for help
C. Start compressions
D. Check blood pressure

Q82. A patient experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath may be having:
A. Panic attack
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Stroke
D. Asthma attack

Q83. The proper ratio for adult CPR is:
A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 10:1
D. 5:1

Q84. If a patient is bleeding heavily, the first step is to:
A. Apply a tourniquet
B. Clean the wound
C. Apply direct pressure
D. Elevate the limb

Q85. Anaphylaxis is treated with:
A. Aspirin
B. Albuterol
C. Epinephrine
D. Nitroglycerin

Q86. What is the term for a broken bone?
A. Strain
B. Sprain
C. Fracture
D. Contusion

Q87. For a suspected neck injury, what is the best action?
A. Move the patient to a stretcher
B. Remove helmet immediately
C. Stabilize head and neck
D. Let them sit up

Q88. Signs of shock include:
A. Warm skin
B. Rapid pulse and cold, clammy skin
C. High fever
D. Severe thirst only

12. Pharmacology (8 Questions)

Q89. The abbreviation “PRN” means:
A. By mouth
B. Every day
C. As needed
D. Before meals

Q90. Which of the following routes allows the fastest absorption of medication?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intravenous
D. Rectal

Q91. A drug used to reduce fever is called an:
A. Antibiotic
B. Antitussive
C. Antipyretic
D. Antacid

Q92. What does “bid” mean on a prescription?
A. Every 4 hours
B. Twice a day
C. Before meals
D. As directed

Q93. The generic name of a drug is:
A. Brand name
B. Chemical structure
C. Nonproprietary name
D. Company name

Q94. What is a contraindication?
A. A side effect
B. A reason not to give the drug
C. A symptom
D. A dosage instruction

Q95. Insulin is typically administered via:
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Oral
D. Intravenous

Q96. The study of how drugs affect the body is:
A. Pathology
B. Pharmacology
C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Toxicology

13. Pathophysiology (8 Questions)

Q97. Diabetes is a disorder primarily affecting the:
A. Kidneys
B. Pancreas
C. Liver
D. Heart

Q98. Which disease is characterized by chronic inflammation of the joints?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Scoliosis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Gout

Q99. A stroke is caused by:
A. Blocked airway
B. Bacterial infection
C. Lack of blood flow to the brain
D. Broken bone

Q100. Which of the following is a viral disease?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Influenza
C. Ringworm
D. Strep throat

1. Medical Terminology and Anatomy

1. B. -ectomy – Means surgical removal.

2. B. Slow – “Brady-” refers to slow.

3. C. Sagittal – Divides the body into right and left.

4. B. Enlargement of the liver – “Megaly” means enlargement; “hepato” = liver.

5. C. Thigh – The femur is the thigh bone.

6. B. Hypertension – High blood pressure.

7. D. White blood cell – WBC stands for white blood cell.

8. B. Kidney – Filters blood and produces urine.

2. Law, Ethics, and Professionalism

9. A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act – HIPAA governs patient privacy.

10. C. Autonomy – Patients have the right to make their own decisions.

11. C. Personal opinion of the physician – Not part of informed consent.

12. C. Negligence – Failure to act prudently.

13. C. Act in the patient’s best interest – Beneficence.

14. C. Advance directive – Guides treatment when the patient cannot speak for themselves.

15. B. For treatment purposes – Permitted under HIPAA without consent.

16. A. Libel – Written defamation.

3. Psychology and Communication

17. B. Anxiety or resistance – Closed body language.

18. C. Fully concentrating and responding appropriately – Active listening.

19. B. Regression – Reverting to an earlier developmental stage.

20. C. Using silence – Encourages patients to share.

21. D. Physiological needs – Base of Maslow’s pyramid.

22. B. Face them directly and speak clearly – Best way to communicate with hearing-impaired patients.

23. C. “Tell me more about how you’re feeling.” – Open-ended, therapeutic.

24. C. Understanding and sharing feelings – Empathy.

4. Bookkeeping, Credits, and Collections

25. C. Superbill – Summarizes charges and procedures.

26. C. An overpayment has occurred – Credit balance.

27. C. Posting – Entering transactions.

28. B. Money owed to the office – Accounts receivable.

29. B. Offer a payment plan – Keeps patient in care and allows repayment.

30. C. Minor office expenses – Petty cash.

31. C. Receipt log – Documents all received payments.

32. C. Outstanding accounts – Aging reports show past due balances.

5. Billing, Coding, and Insurance

33. C. International Classification of Diseases – ICD codes diagnoses.

34. A. CPT – Codes for procedures and services.

35. B. Indicate a change in service – CPT modifiers add detail.

36. C. Verify patient eligibility – First step before submitting a claim.

37. B. Medicare – For 65+ and disabled individuals.

38. C. The amount the patient pays before insurance – Deductible.

39. A. Explanation of Benefits – Summary of insurance decision.

40. B. A software tool that checks for errors – Scrubbers help prevent claim denials.

6. Medical Records and Office Supplies

41. C. Date of birth – Demographic info.

42. C. Problem-oriented – Organized by patient complaint.

43. C. Subjective – What the patient reports.

44. C. Indexing – Sorting records for filing.

45. C. 7–10 years – Standard for adult record retention.

46. B. Track future dates or tasks – Tickler file is a reminder system.

47. B. Quantity used – Tracks supply usage to prevent overstocking.

48. B. Patient charts – Require secure, confidential storage.

7. Oral and Written Communication

49. B. Correct grammar and spelling – Ensures professionalism.

50. C. To, From, Date, Subject – Basic memo format.

51. C. Identify the office and yourself – Professional and helpful.

52. C. Signature and title – Ends a business letter formally.

53. C. Escalate them to the appropriate staff – Professional complaint management.

54. C. Documented phone note – Becomes part of the patient record.

55. B. Documented clearly – Legal and clinical necessity.

56. C. Encrypted email – Best for privacy.

8. Scheduling and Office Management

57. B. Show unavailable times for appointments – Matrix blocks time.

58. C. Multiple patients booked at the top of the hour – Wave scheduling.

59. C. Offer to reschedule – Maintains continuity of care.

60. B. Speed and efficiency – Computerized systems are fast and flexible.

61. C. Future follow-ups – Tickler files manage upcoming events.

62. B. Appointment – “Appt” is standard abbreviation.

63. C. Early morning – Fasting blood draws require no food overnight.

64. C. Review availability and call patients – Best way to resolve conflicts.

9. Exam Room Techniques, Patient Prep, Infection Control

65. C. Ask for name and date of birth – Two identifiers.

66. C. 90° – For intramuscular injections.

67. C. Sphygmomanometer – Measures BP.

68. B. Absence of pathogens – Asepsis.

69. C. Handwashing – #1 way to prevent spread of infection.

70. B. Face shield – PPE = Personal Protective Equipment.

71. C. Lower them to the floor and elevate legs – Standard response for syncope.

72. C. As per manufacturer’s instructions – Depends on thermometer type.

10. Office Laboratory Procedures

73. B. Clinical laboratory testing – CLIA ensures lab testing quality.

74. C. Cotton swab – Used for collecting throat samples.

75. B. Dipstick – Checks for glucose, ketones, etc.

76. C. Spin specimens to separate components – Centrifuge function.

77. C. Specimen container – Label immediately to prevent mix-ups.

78. B. A1C – Reflects blood glucose control over ~3 months.

79. C. Red – Universal color for biohazard.

80. C. The percentage of red blood cells – Hematocrit measures RBC volume.

11. Emergency Procedures and First Aid

81. B. Check for response and call for help – Always assess first.

82. B. Myocardial infarction – Classic symptoms of heart attack.

83. B. 30:2 – Adult CPR: 30 compressions, 2 breaths.

84. C. Apply direct pressure – First aid for bleeding.

85. C. Epinephrine – First-line for anaphylaxis.

86. C. Fracture – A broken bone.

87. C. Stabilize head and neck – Prevent spinal damage.

88. B. Rapid pulse and cold, clammy skin – Classic signs of shock.

12. Pharmacology

89. C. As needed – PRN is Latin for “pro re nata.”

90. C. Intravenous – Fastest route due to direct access to bloodstream.

91. C. Antipyretic – Reduces fever (e.g., acetaminophen).

92. B. Twice a day – “Bid” is from Latin “bis in die.”

93. C. Nonproprietary name – Generic drug name.

94. B. A reason not to give the drug – Contraindication.

95. B. Subcutaneous – Common route for insulin.

96. B. Pharmacology – Study of drugs and their effects.

13. Pathophysiology

97. B. Pancreas – In diabetes, insulin production or use is impaired.

98. C. Rheumatoid arthritis – Autoimmune, chronic joint inflammation.

99. C. Lack of blood flow to the brain – Causes a stroke.

100. B. Influenza – A virus; others listed are bacterial or fungal.