10. An individual who specializes in carrying out treatments designed to correct or improve the function of a particular body part or system is known as a:

a. diagnostician

b. histologist

c. technologist

d. therapist

Chapter 2 Professional Organizations, Development, and Advancement

1. Which of the following is a voluntary process through which an agency grants recognition to an individual on demonstration, usually by examination, of specialized professional skills?

a. accreditation

b. certification

c. licensure

d. registration

2. Which of the following is a listing of individuals holding certification credentials in a particular profession?

a. accreditation

b. certification

c. licensure

d. registry

3. What organization certifies individuals in radiography?

a. American Society of Radiologic Technologists

b. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists

c. Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology

d. Radiological Society of North America

4. Which of the following organizations represents the interests of radiologic technologists to the public and federal government?

a. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists

b. American Society of Radiologic Technologists

c. International Society of Radiographers and Radiologic Technologists

d. American Roentgen Ray Society

5. What purpose is served by the standards document for a profession?

a. It sets the legal and ethical standards for a profession

b. It determines the minimum standards for an individual to become certified by a registry organization

c. It establishes the sponsorship of a joint review committee

d. It specifies the requirements for accreditation of an educational program by a joint review committee

6. Which of the following is the process by which a governmental agency (usually at the state level) grants permission to individuals to practice their profession?

a. accreditation

b. certification

c. licensure

d. registration

7. Which title is granted to a radiographer after successful completion of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologist’s examination in radiography?

a. radiologic technologist

b. radiologic technologist, radiographer

c. registered technologist

d. registered technologist, radiographer

8. Which of the following organizations is a sponsor of the Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology and the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists?

a. Society of Nuclear Medicine

b. American Society of Radiologic Technologists

c. American Healthcare Radiology Administrators

d. Radiological Society of North America

9. Which of the following is a voluntary peer process through which an agency grants recognition to an institution for a program of study that meets specified criteria?

a. accreditation

b. certification

c. licensure

d. registration

10. Approximately how many individuals are registered by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists?

a. 10,000

b. 90,000

c. 250,000

d. 330,000

Chapter 3 Educational Survival Skills

1. Stress is defined as:

a. a feeling of anxiety and fear

b. not having enough time to complete commitments

c. a breaking point

d. demand on time, energy, and resources with some threat included

2. Causes of stress include:

a. individual perception of wants

b. poor physical health

c. lack of time management

d. all of the above

3. The best ways to reduce stress are by:

a. managing finances better and saving money

b. controlling time, thinking positively, and buffering stressors

c. choosing a nonmedical profession and vacationing often

d. avoiding worry and practicing relaxation

4. When taking a test, always:

a. cram the night before

b. arrive early and review notes just before the test

c. answer all questions you know first, then go back and repeat, leaving the most difficult questions for last

d. review your test, but do not change answers

5. In-control language:

a. is used when driving to class

b. is positive and expresses choice

c. identifies where others are wrong

d. is critical and powerful

6. The biggest thief of time is:

a. indecision

b. worry

c. traffic

d. mistakes

7. When managing time, practice self-management, which includes which of the following?

a. setting your alarm and limiting phone calls and texting

b. doing only the important tasks

c. prioritizing, setting limits, and providing for self-care

d. avoiding worry

8. Good study habits include:

a. reading out loud and writing down important facts

b. planned group activity

c. a regular plan for study and review

d. all of the above

9. Stress buffers include:

a. exercise and good nutrition

b. taking a personal day off work

c. avoiding studying the night before a test

d. avoiding worry

10. Vitamins and minerals depleted as a result of stress are:

a. iron, B12, and C

b. B complex, C, and magnesium

c. magnesium, E, and B complex

d. A, E, and C

Chapter 4 Critical-Thinkingand Problem-Solving Strategies

1. Students in medical professions often learn to apply theories through the review of a real-life situation or scenario. What is this activity called?

a. code review

b. case study

c. role playing

d. laboratory practice

2. Which of the following is (are) characteristic of professional critical thinking?

a. sound professional judgment

b. uncomfortable and challenging decision making

c. quick and inventive response

d. action based on professional knowledge and experience

e. all of the above

3. What is the first step involved in problem solving associated with critical thinking?

a. Identify and clarify the problem

b. Remove yourself from the situation

c. Brainstorm all possible solutions

d. Analyze how the problem affects you personally

4. The second step involved in problem solving associated with critical thinking is to undergo an objective examination of the problem. What element(s) of this step is (are) reflected below?

a. implications of the problem

b. safety risks and potential liability

c. technical considerations

d. number and type or types of solutions required

e. all of the above

5. What is the primary factor in determining the solution to the problem in critical thinking?

a. the solution that gives the most profit for the health care institution

b. the solution that most closely resembles what the most experienced radiologic science professional in the department would do

c. the solution that results in the least damage to your reputation

d. the solution that provides the best outcome for the patient

6. In what aspect of the education program for a radiologic science professional is the student exposed to real-life experiences that allow him or her to transfer knowledge into action?

a. cognitive

b. classroom

c. laboratory

d. clinical

7. Analyzing personal values and feelings and managing uncomfortable ethical situations are components of what type of critical thinking?

a. affective

b. cognitive

c. psychomotor

d. technical

8. Which of the following describes a situation in which technical critical-thinking skills are required?

a. A patient arrives for a routine procedure and asks questions

b. A female patient responds that she is pregnant before a procedure

c. A male patient requests that he be permitted to go to the bathroom before the procedure

d. A trauma patient has a broken femur, and specialized hip radiographs are required

9. You are working the 4:00 AM to midnight shift in the emergency room, and as you enter a room to identify your patient for a chest x-ray, you witness a nurse, the head nurse, preparing for an injection. As you peer through the door, you see her brush the needle against the bed sheet and then before you can say anything, she puts the needle into the patient’s vein. Identify the problem.

a. Use of a dirty needle is a violation of standard precautions

b. The patient may acquire an infection as a result of the injection

c. The nurse is in a position of authority

d. All of the above

10. For the scenario in question 9, which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in solving this problem?

a. Take no action; this is not your problem

b. Ask the patient if he or she saw the needle touch the bed sheet

c. Bring to the nurse’s attention that you saw the needle touch the sheet outside the patient room

d. Report the nurse to the CEO of the hospital

Chapter 5 Introduction to Clinical Education

1. Clinical procedures and activities are performed in what setting?

a. classroom

b. hospital/cancer center

c. laboratory

d. library

2. Cognitive learning includes:

a. attitudes, values, and beliefs

b. physical actions, neuromuscular manipulations, and coordination

c. assistance, observation, and performance

d. knowledge, reason, and judgment

3. “The observable, successful achievement of performance objectives” defines which of the following?

a. objective

b. competency

c. affective

d. learning outcome

4. A qualified medical imaging and radiologic sciences professional directly supervises a student by:

a. reviewing the request in relation to the student’s achievement

b. evaluating the condition of the patient in relation to the student’s knowledge

c. being present while the student conducts the treatment/examination

d. reviewing and approving the treatment/examination

e. all of the above

5. A clinical instructor works directly with the students in the clinical setting and provides students with one-on-one instruction and evaluation. Which of the following must a successful clinical instructor possess?

a. knowledge of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures

b. competence in clinical instruction and evaluation techniques

c. patience and willingness to guide students to clinical success

d. all of the above

6. Disciplinary action may be initiated if a student commits which serious infraction?

a. disclosure of confidential information

b. falsification of records

c. cheating

d. intoxication

e. all of the above

7. Which of the following may be assessed to determine students’ knowledge or comprehension of clinical skills?

a. communication with staff and patients

b. manipulation of exposure factors or setting for treatment plan

c. evaluating the radiographic image or ensuring the appropriate treatment plan

d. none of the above

e. all (a-c)

8. Of the following, which is a communication method used to assure an effective handoff of patients from one healthcare worker to another?

a. HIPAA

b. TeamSTEPPS

c. IPE

d. SBAR

9. In order to perform diagnostic or therapeutic procedures competently students in medical imaging and radiologic sciences programs, must always:

a. observe a qualified medical imaging and radiologic sciences professional

b. develop and refine the appropriate skills and behaviors

c. assist the radiologist or radiation oncologist as much as possible

d. perform as many diagnostic or therapeutic procedures as possible

e. all of the above

10. Which of the following is an approach to teaching students and healthcare workers how to interact and work with each other in the clinical setting?

a. SBAR

b. TeamSTEPPS

c. IPE

d. HIPAA

Chapter 6 Radiology Administration

1. The driving and guiding force that outlines the reason for the existence of a hospital is its:

a. chief executive officer

b. medical director

c. mission statement

d. adherence to The Joint Commission guidelines

2. The board of directors employs ________, who interacts with the medical staff to ensure coordination and quality of patient care and services.

a. an insurance agent

b. a radiology chairman

c. a vice president of nursing

d. a president or chief executive officer

3. Forces causing hospitals to reorganize include:

a. state regulators

b. economic hardships

c. total quality management

d. The Joint Commission

4. When an organization focuses on quality or patient safety, it:

a. undergoes a cultural revolution

b. prohibits employees from participating in groups

c. encourages employees to focus on one department to the exclusion of others

d. lowers workers’ perceptions of patient or physician expectations

5. The management function that charts a course of action for the future to enable coordinated and consistent fulfillment of goals and objectives is:

a. coordinating

b. planning

c. communicating

d. setting goals

6. The management function that involves the development of a structure or framework that identifies how people do their work is:

a. staffing

b. planning

c. organizing

d. coordinating

7. The management function that involves getting the right people to do the work and developing their abilities is:

a. staffing

b. organizing

c. directing

d. describing

8. Performance standards or guidelines used to measure progress toward the goals of the organizations are defined as:

a. employee evaluations

b. feedback

c. controlling

d. The Joint Commission guidelines

9. The internal hospital committee that ensures safe operations for the facility for both patients and employers is the:

a. safety committee

b. certificate of need

c. hazardous chemicals group

d. radiation safety committee

10. Besides acquiring a strong knowledge of technical skills, a radiologic technology student should develop:

a. a broad range of procedural abilities

b. referrals of patients from physicians

c. skills in magnetic resonance imaging, computed tomography, ultrasonography, and nuclear medicine

d. superior skills in interactive relationships

Chapter 7 Radiographic Imaging

1. The process by which a beam of x-ray photons is reduced as it passes through matter is known as:

a. density

b. attenuation

c. fog

d. processing

2. Computed radiography (CR) uses which of the following as its image receptor?

a. photostimulable phosphor plate

b. charge-coupled device

c. radiographic film

d. flat-panel detector

3. The factor that controls the amount of x-radiation produced by the x-ray tube is:

a. milliampere-seconds (mAs)

b. source-to-image receptor distance (SID)

c. object-to-image receptor distance (OID)

d. kilovoltage peak

4. What mAs value would result using the 500 mA setting at 0.25 second?

a. 12.5 mAs

b. 20 mAs

c. 125 mAs

d. 2000 mAs

5. Which of the following image receptor systems does NOT use light during exposure?

a. direct conversion DR

b. indirect conversion DR

c. computed radiography (CR)

d. film/screen radiography

6. A radiograph is made using 40 mAs at a 40-inch SID. If the image must be repeated at a 72-inch SID, what mAs value is necessary to maintain the same exposure?

a. 12 mAs

b. 13 mAs

c. 120 mAs

d. 130 mAs

7. The 15% rule helps to explain the effect of _____ on exposure.

a. grids

b. mAs

c. SID

d. kilovoltage peak

8. Which of the following is NOT a radiographic contrast medium?

a. barium compounds

b. air

c. iodine compounds

d. water

9. The most common cause of radiographic unsharpness is:

a. motion

b. detector characteristics

c. increased OID

d. decreased SID

10. What term in digital imaging is used to describe a numeric representation of the quantity of exposure received by a digital image receptor?

a. window level

b. exposure indicator

c. window width

d. exposure latitude

Chapter 8 Medical Imaging Equipment

1. The component of the radiographic system that produces radiation is the:

a. collimator

b. high tension transformer

c. x-ray tube

d. goniometer

2. The selection of radiographic exposure factors such as mAs and kVp is performed at the operator:

a. control console

b. fluoroscopic tower

c. image receptor assembly

d. x-ray tube

3. The quantity of electrons for x-ray exposure is determined by the mAs. This is calculated by:

a. dividing the milliamperage by the kVp

b. multiplying the milliamperage by the exposure time

c. adding the milliamperage and the exposure time

d. adding the kVp and the exposure time

4. The primary components of the x-ray tube important to x-ray production are the:

a. the high-voltage cables and tube support mechanism

b. anode bearings and rotor

c. diode and triode

d. anode and cathode

5. The component that controls the size and shape of the x-ray exposure field is the:

a. x-ray tube housing

b. collimator assembly

c. anode

d. goniometer

6. True digital image receptors are referred to as:

a. flat panel detectors

b. photostimulable phosphor technology (PSP)

c. storage phosphor technology (SPT)

d. analog systems

7. All of the following are typical features of radiographic tables EXCEPT:

a. they have motorized, variable height adjustment

b. they permit four-way “floating” tabletop mobility

c. the tabletop materials offer high attenuation to lower patient dose

d. they have electric locks on tabletop motions

8. The component that supports and permits the x-ray tube to be moved in different directions is the:

a. tube stand or overhead tube crane assembly

b. Bucky mechanism and cassette tray

c. upright image receptor

d. collimator assembly

9. In a fluoroscopic system, the surface or face of the fluoroscopic detector is considered the:

a. lead curtain

b. thin film transistor

c. scatter source

d. primary barrier

10. All of the following are true of fluoroscopy EXCEPT:

a. the lead protective apron attached to the fluoroscopic carriage is of little value in reducing operator dose

b. it permits “real-time” imaging of dynamic patient functions

c. modern day fluoroscopy systems record images electronically rather than using cassettes

d. dose reduction features such as last image hold (LIH), pulsed fluoroscopy, and electronic shuttering are essential

Chapter 9 Basic Radiation Protection and Radiobiology

1. Which of the following is not necessary for x-rays to be produced?

a. a source of electrons

b. rapid particle acceleration

c. a source of protons

d. instantaneous deceleration

2. For pair production to occur, the energy of the incoming x-ray photon must be at least:

a. 10 keV

b. 1.02 keV

c. 10 MeV

d. 1.02 MeV

3. The interaction of x-rays with matter that constitutes the greatest hazard to patients in diagnostic radiography is:

a. photoelectric interaction

b. Compton interaction

c. classic coherent scattering

d. pair production

4. The unit used to measure the amount of energy absorbed in any medium is the:

a. Sievert

b. Gray

c. Coulombs per kilogram

d. Air kerma

5. The maximum accumulated whole-body dose for a 35-year-old occupational worker is:

a. 85 mSv

b. 5 mSv

c. 350 mSv

d. 0.5 mSv

6. According to the law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, the characteristics that determine the sensitivity of a cell to radiation are:

a. mitotic activity and metabolic function

b. metabolic function and cell type

c. mitotic activity and structure and function of the cell

d. cell type and life span of the cell

7. The intensity of radiation from a radiographic tube was 35 mR at a distance of 2.5 m from the tube. What would the intensity be at a distance of 4 m from the tube, all other factors remaining the same?

a. 5.5 mR

b. 55 mR

c. 14 mR

d. 90 mR

8. Which of the following is not a component of an optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter?

a. exposure meter

b. plastic blister pack

c. aluminum oxide strip

d. metal filters

9. What is the annual dose limit for occupational exposure?

a. 10 mSv

b. 25 mSv

c. 50 mSv

d. 100 mSv

10. Lead absorbs x-rays through the process of __________.

a. classical coherent scattering

b. the Compton effect

c. the photoelectric effect

d. pair production

Chapter 10 Human Diversity

1. Human diversity consists of characteristics associated with:

a. age

b. ethnicity

c. gender

d. lifestyle

e. all of the above

2. Individuals born between 1981 and 1995 are generally referred to as:

a. the baby boom generation

b. generation X

c. generation Y

d. the lost generation

3. Over the next three decades, which of the following age groups is expected to be the fastest-growing segment of the population?

a. 35+

b. 55+

c. 65+

d. 75+

e. 85+

4. Which one of the following does not relate to a person’s ethnicity?

a. dress

b. language

c. religion

d. race

5. Which of the following is not one of the ways that culturally different individuals have interacted with the US majority culture in the past?

a. assimilation

b. biculturalism

c. multiculturalism

d. a and b

e. b and c

6. Government statutes to protect people from discrimination are based on:

a. ethnicity or race

b. disability

c. age

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

7. Sexual orientation regards an individual’s designation as any of the following EXCEPT:

a. asexuality

b. bisexuality

c. heterosexuality

d. homosexuality

8. Approximately what percentage of world’s population has some type of disability?

a. 5

b. 10

c. 15

d. 20

9. Which of the following is considered the most profound step that the United States has ever undertaken to prevent discrimination toward people with a disability?

a. The Civil Rights Act of 1964

b. The Rehabilitation Act of 1973

c. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

d. The Human Rights Declaration of 1999

10. Of the following, which one is not considered an element that may contribute to the ability of an organization to become culturally competent?

a. valuing diversity

b. institutionalizing cultural knowledge

c. possessing the capacity for cultural self-assessment

d. ignoring cultural norms and values

e. developing of adaptations for the delivery of services that reflect an understanding of a multicultural environment

Chapter 11 Patient Interactions

1. The highest level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is:

a. self-actualization

b. belonging

c. physiologic

d. self-esteem

2. The word ambulatory means that the patient:

a. must be confined to a wheelchair

b. must be moved by ambulance

c. can be moved by stretcher

d. can walk

3. Which of the following would you not want to discuss with a patient?

a. hobbies

b. medical chart

c. ability to walk

d. weather

4. Questions about the diagnosis of an examination from a patient or visitor are best answered by:

a. explaining that only a radiologist can read radiographs

b. providing the best diagnosis available

c. explaining that the results are not available yet

d. suggesting that the question is inappropriate

5. Which method is effective in communicating with a patient?

1. professional appearance

2. touch

3. pantomime techniques

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2, and 3

6. When is touching a patient valuable?

a. for emotional support

b. for emphasis

c. for palpation

d. all of the above

7. Which of the following characterize the development of a toddler (1 to 3 years of age)?

a. understands simple abstractions

b. is unable to understand more than one word for something

c. is unable to take the viewpoint of another

d. all of the above

8. Of the changes that occur in geriatric patients that are especially important when patients are undergoing radiologic examinations, which of the following may produce patient paranoia about potential falls with potential for permanent loss of mobility?

a. osteoporotic loss of bone mass

b. arthritis

c. decreased muscle strength

d. atrophied muscle mass

9. Which of the following is considered to be the first stage of acceptance of dying for a terminally ill patient?

a. anger

b. frustration

c. denial and isolation

d. shock

10. Which of the following permits the patient to begin to work through the various stages that precede dying?

a. suspicious awareness

b. mutual pretense

c. open awareness

d. all of the above

Chapter 12 History Taking

1. Which of the following is undesirable for conducting a clinical history interview?

a. clarifying terminology

b. asking open-ended questions

c. asking vague questions

d. repeating information

2. Which of the following includes a description of the color, quantity, and consistency of blood or other body substances?

a. localization

b. chronology

c. quality

d. occurrence

3. Which of the following is the determination of a precise area, usually through gentle palpation or careful wording of questions?

a. localization

b. chronology

c. quality

d. occurrence

4. Which of the following is (are) usually included as part of the chronology of a clinical history?

a. onset

b. duration

c. frequency

d. all of the above

5. Which of the following includes the tone of voice, the speed of speech, and the position of the speaker’s extremities and torso?

a. nonverbal communication

b. palpation

c. quality

d. facilitation

6. What term describes the primary medical problem as defined by the patient?

a. chief complaint

b. palpation

c. onset

d. nonverbal communication

7. Which of the following describes an undesirable method of questioning that provides information that may direct the answer toward a suspected symptom or complaint?

a. facilitation

b. palpation

c. nonverbal communication

d. leading question

8. Which of the following is (are) part of the sacred seven elements of the patient clinical history?

a. localization

b. aggravating factors

c. quality

d. all of the above

9. Which of the following is (are) desirable method(s) of conducting a clinical history interview?

a. positive nonverbal communication

b. defining and specifying terms

c. subjectiveness

d. a and b

10. Which term describes gentle touching to determine the precise location of a symptom or complaint?

a. nonverbal communication

b. palpation

c. quality

d. facilitation

Chapter 13 Biomechanics and Ergonomics

1. Which of the following is the foundation on which a body rests?

a. center of gravity

b. base of support

c. orthostatic hypotension

d. biomechanics

2. What term is used to describe the drop in blood pressure some patients experience when they stand up quickly?

a. center of gravity

b. base of support

c. orthostatic hypotension

d. a and b

3. Where is the human center of gravity located?

a. at the center of the diaphragm

b. within 1 to 2 inches of the umbilicus

c. midway between the hip joints

d. at approximately sacral level two

4. Which of the following transfers can be used to move a patient from a wheelchair to an examination table?

a. pivot

b. assisted standing

c. standby assist

d. all of the above

5. Toward which side should all transfers be initiated?

a. left

b. right

c. patient’s weak side

d. patient’s strong side

6. What causes patients to feel lightheaded, queasy, or faint when they stand up quickly from a sitting or supine position?

a. increased respiration from the effort of standing

b. decreased blood pressure

c. increased body temperature

d. increased pulse rate

7. What term describes the hypothetical point around which all mass appears to be concentrated?

a. center of gravity

b. base of support

c. orthostatic hypotension

d. a and b

8. If a patient arrives in a wheelchair and on a sling, which type of transfer is indicated?

a. hydraulic lift

b. pivot

c. standby assist

d. cart to table by means of a moving device

9. How can the base of support be increased?

a. standing on one toe

b. standing on one foot

c. standing with the legs apart

d. bending the knees with the feet together

10. What is the minimum number of persons to use for a cart-to-table transfer when no moving devices are available?

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. four

Chapter 14 Immobilization Techniques

1. Voluntary motion is under the control of the:

a. technologist

b. patient

c. radiologist

d. student

2. The most important communication that occurs in a radiology department takes place between the radiographer and the:

a. administrator

b. patient

c. radiologist

d. student

3. A key component to effective communication with a patient is:

a. establishing rapport

b. assessing the patient’s physical condition

c. introducing the patient to the radiologist

d. giving a detailed, technical explanation of the examination

4. What is the most commonly used immobilization device?

a. sheet restraint

b. cervical collar

c. positioning sponge

d. Velcro straps

5. Which of the following might be used to immobilize a patient for an upright lateral chest radiograph?

a. sandbags

b. Velcro straps

c. head clamps

d. positioning sponge

6. Which of the following is an example of a spinal trauma immobilization device?

a. air splint

b. antishock garment

c. traction splint

d. backboard

7. When is removing a cervical collar permissible?

a. before the initial radiographic examination

b. after a radiographer makes the exposure

c. after the physician has reviewed the images and determined it is safe

d. after a paramedic reads the radiograph and approves removal

8. Which immobilization device is radiopaque?

a. sponge

b. cervical collar

c. sandbag

d. none of the above

9. The Pigg-O-Stat is an immobilization device used for which pediatric examination?

a. upper extremity

b. pelvis

c. skull

d. chest

10. One of the greatest fears of a geriatric patient is:

a. falling

b. being unable to hear the radiographer

c. having to lie on a radiolucent pad

d. getting lost on the way to the radiology department

Chapter 15 Vital Signs, Oxygen, Chest Tubes, and Lines

1. Rectal thermometry is believed to most accurately reflect core body temperature measures. Use of which alternative thermometer provides measures that closely correlate to the rectal method?

a. oral

b. temporal artery

c. axillary

d. tympanic

2. A patient is thought to have suffered cardiac arrest. The ____________ peripheral artery may be assessed to verify the effectiveness of chest compressions during cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

1. Apical

2. Femoral

3. Radial

a. 1, 2

b. 1, 3

c. 2, 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

3. In the healthy adult the normal range for blood pressure is:

a. systolic less than 95 mm Hg, diastolic less than 60 mm Hg

b. systolic less than 60 mm Hg, diastolic greater than 95 mm Hg

c. systolic less than 120 mm Hg, diastolic less than 80 mm Hg

d. systolic less than 80 mm Hg, diastolic greater than 120 mm Hg

4. Hypoxia is:

a. a drug that must be prescribed by a physician

b. necessary for cellular repair

c. a state describing oxygen-deficient tissue

d. necessary for cellular function

5. Which of the following devices can be classified as a high-flow oxygen delivery device?

a. air-entrainment mask

b. nasal cannula

c. simple mask

d. nonrebreathing mask

6. Regarding oxygen delivery, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

a. oxygen dose is ordered in liters per minute or in concentration as a fractional concentration of oxygen

b. the maximum dose should always be given to obtain the desired results

c. the oxygen flowmeter is green

d. the regulator attached to the oxygen tank consists of a flowmeter and pressure manometer

7. An artificial airway is inserted into a patient’s the trachea and connected to a mechanical ventilator. In this circumstance, all of the following are true statements EXCEPT:

a. the ventilator delivers a minimum set respiratory rate

b. the inspiratory volume is preset

c. a consistent Fio2 is delivered

d. during chest imaging, the radiographer must fully extend the patient’s neck for proper head position

8. A properly placed endotracheal tube will be radiographically confirmed when the:

a. distal tip is positioned 1 inch inferior to the tracheal bifurcation

b. distal tip is positioned 1 inch superior to the tracheal bifurcation

c. distal tip is positioned adjacent to the vocal folds

d. cuff is positioned between the vocal folds

9. Thoracostomy tubes are:

a. used to monitor pulmonary arterial pressures

b. central venous lines used to administer parenteral nutrition

c. chest tubes used to drain the intrapleural space

d. used to administer oxygen with mechanical ventilators

10. A patient is admitted to the emergency room and chest images are ordered. The order states the following: Unless sitting up or standing erect, the patient has dyspnea. In this case the patient has which of the following?

a. tachypnea

b. bradypnea

c. apnea

d. orthopnea

Chapter 16 Basic Cardiac Monitoring: The Electrocardiogram

1. Regarding the electrocardiographic tracing, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

a. repolarization of atrial muscle cells is represented by the P wave

b. the QRS-complex represents depolarization of ventricular muscle cells

c. the S portion of the QRS complex represents a return to the baseline (isoelectric point)

d. the U wave is theorized to represent repolarization of the papillary muscles and Purkinje fibers

2. When multiplying heart rate times stroke volume, the product is:

a. systolic pressure

b. diastolic pressure

c. cardiac cycle

d. cardiac output

3. Depending on the cause and severity of an arrhythmia, treatment may include which of the following?

a. cardiac pacemakers or ICD devices

b. ablation therapy

c. cardioversion external shock therapy

d. all of the above might be useful in treating an arrhythmia

4. Systolic pressures greater than _____ mm Hg generally ensure adequate perfusion of tissues.

a. 80

b. 90

c. 100

d. 120

5. Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the chambers of the heart are controlled by principal cell types to include which of the following?

1. working cardiac cells

2. specialized neural conductive cells

3. striated muscle cells

a. 1, 2

b. 1, 3

c. 2, 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

6. All of the following are true of atrial fibrillation EXCEPT:

a. it is always fatal

b. it is caused by additional ectopic pacemaker firings in the atria that exceed SA node firings

c. the atria syncytium quivers instead of fully contracting

d. formation of atrial emboli is a potential complication

7. To ensure a normal sequence for each cardiac cycle, each P wave should be followed by a:

a. T wave

b. U wave

c. QRS complex

d. PR wave

8. When the resting membrane potential is reversed, ____________occurs and myocardial cells are stimulated to contract.

a. depolarization

b. repolarization

c. cardiac action potential

d. dysrhythmia

9. All of the following are visible on an ECG tracing EXCEPT:

a. depolarization of atrial muscle

b. atrial contraction

c. depolarization of ventricular muscle

d. repolarization of ventricular muscle

10. For analysis of an ECG tracing, which of the below indicates regular rhythm?

11. QRS complexes (RR intervals) are consistent for evaluating ventricular rhythm

12. The duration of the QRS complex exceeds 0.20 seconds (five small squares)

13. Intervals between P waves (PP intervals) are consistent for atrial rhythm

a. 1, 2

b. 1, 3

c. 2, 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Chapter 17 Infection Control

1. Microorganisms that cause infectious diseases can be classified as:

a. lytic

b. endogenous

c. pathogenic

d. nosocomial

2. The best method of preventing the spread of aerosol infections is by:

a. the patient wearing a mask

b. the health care worker wearing a gown

c. handwashing

d. all of the above

3. All of the following are types of indirect transmission EXCEPT:

a. fomite

b. vector

c. aerosol

d. touching

4. The common cold is an example of an infection by a:

a. bacterium

b. virus

c. fungus

d. protozoan

5. The term that best describes the absolute removal of all life forms is:

a. antisepsis

b. medical asepsis

c. disinfection

d. sterilization

6. A person is bitten by a mosquito and develops an infection. This type of transmission is known as:

a. vector

b. fomite

c. nosocomial

d. iatrogenic

7. A health care worker is accidentally punctured with a contaminated needle. This type of transmission is known as:

a. vector

b. fomite

c. nosocomial

d. iatrogenic

8. An outpatient develops a staphylococcal infection after a surgical procedure. This type of transmission is known as:

a. vector

b. fomite

c. nosocomial

d. more than one of the above, but not all

9. An infectious microbe can gain entrance into the human body by:

a. ingression

b. penetration

c. both a and b

d. neither a nor b

10. Handwashing uses which of the following methods of infection control?

a. chemical

b. physical

c. sterile

d. both a and b

Chapter 18 Aseptic Techniques

1. A pacemaker prevents bradycardia by:

1. sensing the patient’s heartbeats

2. pacing the heart when it does not contract

3. producing electrical impulses

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

2. What type of catheter is the Foley?

a. retention balloon

b. straight

c. coiled

d. self-cleansing

3. When handling sterile gloves with a nonsterile hand, which of the following is not considered sterile?

a. outside of the cuff

b. inside of the cuff

c. fingertips of the glove

d. thumb of the glove

4. Outside air is prevented from entering the pleural cavity through the chest tube by the:

a. collection chamber

b. water seal chamber

c. suction control chamber

d. first compartment

5. The goal of good sterile technique is to:

a. protect the health care worker from infection

b. remove all infected material

c. protect the patient from infection

d. remove all viable microorganisms

6. The first rule of caring for a tracheostomy patient is:

a. watch for secretions

b. establish communication

c. contact the nurse in charge of the patient

d. attempt to finish the procedure as quickly as possible

7. The purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to:

1. remove debris and transient microorganisms from the hands, nails, and forearms

2. destroy infected material

3. inhibit rapid rebound growth of microorganisms

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

8. All of the following are true in regard to Foley catheters EXCEPT:

a. this type of catheter is held in place by an inflatable balloon at the end

b. this type of closed drainage system catheter is used for a long-tern use and sutured to the skin

c. this type of catheter is used primarily to empty the bladder

d. this type of catheter can be made of varying materials such as latex or plastic

9. What parts of a gown are considered sterile?

1. sleeves

2. front from the waist up

3. back from below the waist

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

10. Neonatal portable radiography requires the most care to maintain asepsis; which one of the following will best ensure asepsis of the infant?

1. careful attention paid to everything that the radiographer comes in contact with and proper cleaning protocols followed

2. hand washing after each patient

3. wiping down the machine before each patient

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

Chapter 19 Nonaseptic Techniques

1. The most common types of nasogastric tubes is:

a. Levin

b. Salem-sump

c. Miller-Abbott

d. Cantor

2. How can leakage from a double-lumen tube be prevented?

a. Clamp with a hemostat

b. Clamp with a regular clamping device

c. Use a piston-like syringe

d. Leakage is not a problem with a double-lumen tube

3. Bedpans should be:

a. rinsed between uses

b. sterilized between uses

c. disposed of after use

d. none of the above

4. Hypertonic solution is not used when:

a. fluid must be of the same osmolarity as that of the interstitial spaces of the colon

b. stool must be softened

c. the patient cannot tolerate large amounts of fluid

d. infant or neonate safety is a primary concern

5. The normal adult patient should be able to tolerate how much fluid from a barium enema?

a. 200 mL

b. 500 mL

c. 1000 mL

d. 1500 mL

6. What should be done if cramping occurs during a barium enema?

a. The patient should be told to use deep oral breathing

b. The enema should be stopped

c. The bag should be raised

d. Both a and b should be done

7. Desirable characteristics of a barium suspension include:

1. rapid flow

2. good mucosal adhesion

3. thick layering

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2

c. 1 and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

8. A postural drop in blood pressure can occur after a barium enema as a result of:

a. a reaction from the barium

b. dehydration

c. trapping of barium in the transverse colon

d. none of the above

9. With a double-barrel colostomy, the proximal stoma delivers_______ and the distal stoma produces _______:

a. stool/mucus

b. mucus/stool

c. mucus/flatus

d. solids/fluids

10. Approximately what percentage of colostomy patients has recurrences of cancer?

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 30%

d. 40%

Chapter 20 Medical Emergencies

1. In working with a patient, which of the following would be the first priority for attention?

a. providing an open airway

b. splinting a fractured extremity

c. controlling bleeding

d. treating shock

2. Which of the following signs or symptoms is typically associated with a deteriorating head injury?

a. increasing pulse rate

b. increasing respiratory rate

c. lethargy

d. thirst

3. Which of the following actions would help prevent a patient from going into shock?

a. minimizing pain

b. providing emotional support

c. maintaining a normal body temperature

d. all of the above

4. A patient suffering from hypoglycemia needs which of the following?

a. rest

b. insulin

c. carbohydrates

d. a and c

5. Where should the heel of the hand be placed when performing chest compressions during cardiopulmonary resuscitation on an adult?

a. near the sternal angle

b. at the xiphoid process

c. two fingers above the xiphoid process

d. anywhere along the length of the sternum

6. Syncope is a medical term for which of the following?

a. dizziness

b. fainting

c. hemorrhage

d. nosebleed

7. Which of the following is typically associated with shock?

a. decreasing pulse rate

b. decreasing blood pressure

c. fever

d. flushed face

8. The Heimlich maneuver is used in response to which of the following situations?

a. asthmatic crisis

b. cardiac arrest

c. choking

d. wound dehiscence

9. How long can the brain be deprived of oxygen before cerebral function impairment is likely?

a. 30 seconds

b. 60 seconds

c. 2 to 3 minutes

d. 4 to 6 minutes

10. Which of the following actions is appropriate in handling a patient who begins a violent seizure?

a. Restrain the patient in any way possible

b. Ensure an open airway, putting your hands into the victim’s mouth if necessary

c. Attempt to prevent the patient from injuring himself or herself

d. All of the above are true

Chapter 21 Pharmacology

1. Who is the person licensed to prepare and dispense drugs?

a. nurse

b. radiologist

c. physician

d. pharmacist

2. The name given to a drug manufactured by a specific company is the

a. trade (brand) name

b. chemical name

c. generic name

d. nonproprietary name

3. A drug that relieves pain without causing a loss of consciousness is a(an):

a. sedative

b. analgesic

c. anesthetic

d. hypnotic

4. The following is true of a schedule II drug:

a. does not have a high potential for drug abuse

b. has a currently accepted medical use

c. has a lack of accepted safety for use

d. will not lead to abuse of the drug or other substances

5. What class of drug is Benadryl?

a. diuretic

b. antibiotic

c. anticholinergic

d. antihistamine

6. In case of emergency, a patient would be treated with the following arrhythmia drug:

a. Adenosine

b. Cardiazem

c. Narcan

d. both a and b

7. It is recommended that this medication used for type 2 diabetes be temporarily discontinued before the use of radiographic contrast agents.

a. Glipizide

b. Metformin

c. Pioglitazone

d. Sitagliptin

8. This agent used to treat anemia may transiently affect magnetic resonance diagnostic imaging studies for up to 3 months after the last dose.

a. Canagliflozin

b. Pregabalin

c. Duloxetine

d. Ferumoxytol

9. Which of the following reverses respiratory depression associated with opioids?

a. Flumazenil

b. Epinephrine

c. Naloxone

d. Atropine

10. Which of the following is classified as a general anesthetic?

a. Propofol

b. Xylocaine

c. Fentanyl

d. Enoxaparin

Chapter 22 Principles of Drug Administration

1. Which are the appropriate methods to determine the right patient before drug administration?

1. Confirm type of medication

2. Check patient’s identification band

3. Ask the patient to verify name and/or date of birth

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 2

d. All of the above

2. What is the appropriate next step, when the incorrect patient is identified?

a. continue with the procedure

b. make the correction on the patient’s armband

c. go with the patient to have another armband made with correct patient information

d. call the ordering physician

3. Volume is measured in:

1. milliliters

2. cubic centimeters

3. liters

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

4. If a drug is administered PO, the patient receives the medicine:

a. subcutaneously

b. parenterally

c. topically

d. by mouth

5. This method of drug delivery has a rapid onset because the drug is absorbed directly into the bloodstream.

a. oral

b. topical

c. sublingual

d. parenteral

6. All of the following are methods to ensure safe injections EXCEPT:

a. use of safety needles

b. injecting a drug without a physician order

c. following facility protocol

d. correct patient identification

7. Parenteral drug administration includes all of the following routes except:

a. Subcutaneous

b. Sublingual

c. Intravenous

d. Intramuscular

8. Which of the following statements expresses the correct relation between lumen diameter and gauge number?

a. As the diameter increases, the gauge number increases

b. As the diameter decreases, the gauge number decreases

c. As the diameter decreases, the gauge number increases

d. As the diameter increases, the gauge number stays the same

9. When using an angiocath it is best to:

a. use a bifurcated vein

b. use a vein valve

c. wash hands and use a clean work surface

d. use a specialist

10. Which vein is best suitable for venipuncture?

a. femoral vein

b. popliteal vein

c. cephalic vein

d. brachial vein

Chapter 23 Contrast Media and Introduction to Radiopharmaceuticals

1. Contrast media are used in radiographic imaging to:

a. increase the radiographic density of the area of interest

b. enhance the subject contrast of the area of interest

c. decrease the radiographic density of the area of interest

d. lower the subject contrast of the area of interest

2. Radiographic images that demonstrate few density differences define:

a. low subject contrast

b. high subject contrast

c. low x-ray photon absorption

d. high x-ray photon absorption

3. A negative contrast agent will:

a. increase density and is radiopaque

b. decrease density and is radiopaque

c. decrease density and is radiolucent

d. increase density and is radiolucent

4. A radiopharmaceutical is a:

a. radioactive contrast agent

b. molecular imaging contrast agent

c. radiographic contrast agent

d. radioactive organ specific pharmaceutical

5. Contrast media that dissociate into two molecular particles are known as:

a. ionic agents

b. low osmolality agents

c. nonionic agents

d. oil-based agents

6. Hydroxyl groups on nonionic water-soluble iodinated contrast media increase:

a. osmotic effects

b. solubility

c. blood pressure

d. bronchospasm

7. External contamination of a short-lived diagnostic radioisotope is a problem because it might:

a. cause major harm to the patient and the caregiver

b. be misconstrued as a pathologic condition on an image

c. burn a patient

d. disable a gamma camera

8. Which one of the following drugs should be discontinued 48 hours before and 48 hours after administration of water-soluble iodine contrast media?

a. insulin

b. glucagons

c. beta-blockers

d. metformin

9. What can be done to reduce allergic-like effects for a patient who will receive water-soluble iodine contrast media?

a. premedicate with steroids and antihistamines

b. give intravenous fluids

c. instruct the patient to drink warm salt water before the procedure

d. give a negative contrast agent with the iodinated medium

10. Which of the following acute reactions to contrast media usually requires no medical treatment?

a. bronchospasm

b. laryngeal edema

c. urticaria

d. seizures

Chapter 24 Professional Ethics for Medical Imaging Personnel

1. A personal value system can be defined in terms of:

a. virtues

b. values

c. ethical principles

d. morals

e. all of the above

2. Professional ethics can be best defined as:

a. reflective decision making

b. rules of right living

c. the science of rightness and wrongness of human conduct

d. a common concern for collective self-discipline

e. rules promulgated by professional societies

3. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. Ethics apply to specific groups

b. Laws apply to political subdivisions

c. Morals apply to individuals

d. Morals control individuals within a group

e. Ethics control a group from within

4. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Codes of ethics are usually written by individuals

b. Religious writings form the basis for ethical control

c. Codes of ethics are a form of legislation

d. Conscience controls individual morality

e. Laws provide an internal control for society

5. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. Ethical dilemmas may have competing moral principles

b. Ethical dilemmas involve decisions based on human values

c. Ethical dilemmas are easily solved by codes of ethics

d. Ethical dilemmas can be resolved by problem solving

e. Ethical dilemmas invite a wide range of personal opinions

6. Moral rules are best applied to ethical dilemmas when:

a. religious beliefs are strongly held

b. religious beliefs are not strongly held

c. the ethical dilemma is very narrow in scope

d. the ethical dilemma is very wide in scope

e. all individuals agree to use moral rules

7. Action to benefit others is defined as:

a. veracity

b. fidelity

c. beneficence

d. justice

e. autonomy

8. Which is NOT a step in the problem-solving process?

a. identifying the problem

b. developing alternative solutions

c. selecting the best solution

d. defending your selection

e. determining ethical sanctions

9. The strict observance of promises or duties is defined as:

a. fidelity

b. justice

c. autonomy

d. confidentiality

e. veracity

10. Generally accepted customs of right living and conduct are:

a. codes

b. morals

c. laws

d. ethics

e. rules

Chapter 25 Health Informatics and Information Management

1. Which of the following defines Health Informatics?

a. The allied health profession that is built around managing the patient record

b. The interdisciplinary field that works to improve health and healthcare

c. The allied health profession that applies Informatics and information technology to deliver patient care

d. The information technology that supports the sharing of patient information

2. Which of the following is an example of an organization that accredits hospitals and other health care institutions in the United States?

a. American Hospital Association

b. American Medical Association

c. The Joint Commission

d. American College of Radiology

3. The chief complaint, included in a patient’s history, is a statement made by the:

a. physician

b. patient

c. admitting officer

d. admitting nurse

4. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) legislation affects radiology and other hospital departments by its focus on:

a. patient record confidentiality.

b. facility reimbursement.

c. quality management and performance improvement.

d. risk management.

5. A patient was scheduled to have an x-ray. When the technologist searched for the patient by last name it was noted that there were two patients with the same name and same date of birth. This scenario is an example of what?

a. A potential duplication error

b. A potential medication error

c. An error in data reporting

d. A documentation error

6. When a physician orders a diagnostic exam, what must be included on the order?

a. The diagnosis or symptoms

b. The medical record number

c. The ICD-10-CM code

d. The CPT-4 code

7. Which of the following is used to assigned codes for the diagnostic exam?

a. ICD-10-CM

b. CPT-4

c. Charge code

d. Revenue code

8. Which part of the HIPAA privacy rule requires workforce training to ensure patient privacy?

a. Notice of Privacy Practices

b. Right of Access

c. Accounting of disclosures

d. Administrative requirements

9. Which of the following system is designed to manage imaging orders?

a. HIS

b. RIS

c. PACS

d. AI

10. Which of the following technology is used to identify and classify cancer?

a. Artificial Intelligence

b. Machine Learning

c. HIPAA

d. Electronic health record systems

Chapter 26 Medical Law

1. If a technologist threatens a patient during the course of a procedure and has an apparent immediate ability to perform the threatened act, which of the following torts may be claimed?

a. assault

b. battery

c. negligence

d. false imprisonment

2. The legal theory of respondeat superior requires that:

a. the employee is responsible for the actions of the employee

b. each person is responsible for his or her superior

c. the employer is responsible for the employee’s actions

d. the employee is responsible for the employer’s actions

3. A technologist who has completed a procedure on a patient leaves the area grumbling, “I hate to do AIDS patients because I am afraid of catching the disease.” A member of the housekeeping staff hears the technologist and asks who has AIDS. The technologist responds by giving the patient’s name and room number. After this incident, housekeeping personnel refuse to clean the room. One person from housekeeping tells the story to members of the housekeeper’s church, where the patient is also a member. After learning of the patient’s condition, the church asks the patient not to return. What type of complaint might be brought against the technologist?

a. negligence

b. defamation

c. assault

d. false imprisonment

4. The claim of false imprisonment requires the patient to show proof that the technologist restrained his or her freedom without consent. The defenses a technologist may raise include all of the following EXCEPT the:

a. risk that the patient was going to hurt himself or herself

b. risk that the patient was going to hurt the technologist

c. life-threatening condition of the patient’s health

d. need for motionless images

5. In a case in which the legal theory of res ipsa loquitur is being raised, the evidence presented must show all the following elements EXCEPT that the:

a. injury would not have occurred except for negligence

b. patient contributed to his or her injury

c. defendant was in complete control

d. patient did not contribute to his or her injury in any way

6. A consent form has been signed by a patient who will be undergoing an excretory urogram. A witness should sign the form after the patient. Who is the best witness?

a. a member of the patient’s family

b. the radiographer performing the procedure

c. a ward clerk who has no relationship with the patient or the procedure

d. the patient’s physician

7. Informed consent requires that the patient be given enough information to make an educated decision about his or her health care. The information the patient needs to make this decision includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a. how the procedure will be performed

b. the benefits of the procedure

c. the alternatives to the procedure

d. the cost of the procedure

8. What complaint may be brought against a technologist if he or she touches a patient in any way without the patient’s permission?

a. assault

b. battery

c. false imprisonment

d. harassment

9. A radiographer is performing an abdominal series on a patient from the emergency department. To complete the examination, the patient must be moved from a supine to an upright position using the remote control on the table. During this movement, the patient falls from the table and suffers a fractured hip. A complaint of negligence is brought against both the radiographer and the hospital. The elements that the patient (plaintiff) must prove include all the following EXCEPT:

a. a breach of the duty to the patient

b. an injury

c. a direct causal relation between the breach of duty and the injury

d. that the radiographer acted outside of his or her scope of practice

10. A patient consents to a procedure in the radiology department, but after it has started, he decides that he does not want the procedure completed. The technologist should:

a. stop immediately

b. complete the procedure because the patient may not revoke consent once it is given

c. stop the procedure as soon as it is safe to do so

d. none of the above should be done

Knowt