Microbiology 150

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Classifying Life

1.

Q: What are the three domains of life? A: Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya1

2.

Q: Which domains contain prokaryotic organisms? A: Archaea and Bacteria1

3.

Q: Which domain contains eukaryotic organisms? A: Eukarya1

4.

Q: What is the main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A: Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus1

5.

Q: What is the standard reference for identifying and classifying prokaryotes? A: Bergey’s Manuals2

6.

Q: What is the study of evolutionary relationships called? A: Phylogeny3

7.

Q: What are the two names in binomial nomenclature? A: Genus and species2

8.

Q: How did Woese and Fox classify organisms? A: Using rRNA4

9.

Q: What is the basis of the Baltimore classification system? A: Viral genomes (DNA or RNA, single or double-stranded)5

10.

Q: What is a phylogenetic tree? A: A diagram showing evolutionary relationships6

11.

Q: What is the traditional concept of species not readily applicable to microbes? A: Asexual reproduction and horizontal gene transfer7

Structure of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells

12.

Q: What is the main component of bacterial cell walls? A: Peptidoglycan8

13.

Q: Do all bacteria have cell walls? A: Most do, but not all8

14.

Q: What is a structure found in eukaryotic cells but not prokaryotic cells? A: Nucleus1

15.

Q: What are plasmids? A: Small, circular pieces of DNA in prokaryotes9

16.

Q: What are the functions of the cell membrane? A: Barrier and control of transport10

17.

Q: Name one external structure of a prokaryotic cell. A: Flagella or pili11

18.

Q: What are the internal structures of eukaryotic cells? A: Organelles12

19.

Q: What is the function of a ribosome? A: Protein synthesis11

20.

Q: What is the function of the mitochondria? A: ATP production13

21.

Q: What is the function of the chloroplast? A: Photosynthesis14

22.

Q: What is a capsule? A: A structure that aids in immune evasion15

23.

Q: What is the function of fimbriae? A: Attachment16

Microbial Genetics

24.

Q: What is the central dogma of molecular biology? A: DNA -> RNA -> protein17

25.

Q: What is the process of DNA replication? A: Copying DNA

26.

Q: What is transcription? A: Making RNA from DNA

27.

Q: What is translation? A: Making protein from RNA

28.

Q: What is a mutation? A: A change in DNA sequence

29.

Q: What is an operon? A: A cluster of genes regulated together

30.

Q: What is a plasmid? A: A small circular piece of DNA9

31.

Q: What is horizontal gene transfer? A: Transfer of genes between cells

32.

Q: What is a point mutation? A: Change in a single base

33.

Q: What is a frameshift mutation? A: Insertion or deletion that changes reading frame

34.

Q: What is a silent mutation? A: Mutation that does not change the amino acid sequence

35.

Q: What is a missense mutation? A: Mutation that changes the amino acid

36.

Q: What is a nonsense mutation? A: Mutation that results in a stop codon

37.

Q: What enzyme is used to make cDNA? A: Reverse transcriptase18

Viral Structure, Classification, Replication, and Clinical Aspects

38.

Q: What are viruses composed of? A: Proteins and genetic material (DNA or RNA)19

39.

Q: What are the basic shapes of viral capsids? A: Helical, polyhedral, and complex20

40.

Q: What is a bacteriophage? A: A virus that infects bacteria21

41.

Q: What is a virion? A: An individual virus particle22

42.

Q: Are viruses cellular or acellular? A: Acellular19

43.

Q: What is the lytic cycle? A: Viral replication that lyses the host cell23

44.

Q: What is the lysogenic cycle? A: Viral replication where the viral DNA is incorporated into the host DNA23

45.

Q: What is reverse transcriptase? A: An enzyme used by retroviruses to convert RNA to DNA24

46.

Q: What is a retrovirus? A: A virus with an RNA genome that uses reverse transcriptase25

47.

Q: What is a latent viral infection? A: A virus remains dormant in the host21

48.

Q: What is an enveloped virus? A: A virus with a lipid membrane surrounding the capsid5

49.

Q: What are spikes on viruses? A: Proteins that aid in attachment to host cells20

50.

Q: What are the main components of the viral life cycle? A: Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, and release21...

51.

Q: What is transduction? A: Transfer of genes by a virus21

52.

Q: What is a plaque? A: A clear area on a bacterial lawn caused by viral lysis12

53.

Q: How are viral diseases classified? A: Using ICD codes25

54.

Q: What are cytopathic effects? A: Cell abnormalities caused by viral infection24

55.

Q: What is a filterable agent? A: Viruses were originally described as filterable agents26

56.

Q: What is a common method for cultivating viruses? A: Using tissue culture or embryonated eggs12

Growing, Staining, Viewing, and Identifying Microbes

57.

Q: What is a pure culture? A: A culture containing only one species27

58.

Q: What is agar? A: A solidifying agent in culture media13

59.

Q: What are the two main types of light microscopes? A: Brightfield and electron microscopes28

60.

Q: What is a simple stain? A: Using one dye to stain the specimen29

61.

Q: What is a differential stain? A: Using more than one dye to stain different structures29

62.

Q: What is the Gram stain? A: A differential stain to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria29

63.

Q: What color do gram-positive bacteria stain? A: Purple29

64.

Q: What color do gram-negative bacteria stain? A: Pink29

65.

Q: What is a mordant? A: A substance that fixes a stain29

66.

Q: What is a counterstain? A: A stain used after the primary stain29

67.

Q: What is fluorescence microscopy? A: Using fluorochromes to illuminate specimens30

68.

Q: What is an electron microscope used for? A: Observing small objects like viruses22

69.

Q: What is the purpose of a condenser lens? A: To focus light on the specimen31

70.

Q: What is the purpose of immersion oil? A: To improve resolution at high magnification32

71.

Q: What is a biochemical test? A: A test to identify microbes based on their metabolic properties2

72.

Q: What is a serological test? A: Test using antibodies to identify a specific microbe2

73.

Q: What is a selective media? A: Media used to inhibit growth of unwanted microbes13

74.

Q: What is a differential media? A: Media used to distinguish between microbes13

75.

Q: What is a defined media? A: Media with a known chemical composition13

76.

Q: What is complex media? A: Media with an unknown chemical composition13

77.

Q: What is an inoculation loop? A: A tool used to transfer microorganisms33

78.

Q: What is a Bunsen burner? A: A tool used to sterilize equipment33

79.

Q: What is a colony? A: A visible population of microbes grown from a single cell14

80.

Q: What is a spectrophotometer? A: A tool to measure turbidity of microbial growth14

Microbial Growth and Prevention Strategies

81.

Q: What is binary fission? A: How bacteria reproduce by simple cell division14

82.

Q: What is generation time? A: Doubling time of a bacterial population14

83.

Q: What is a growth curve? A: A graph showing bacterial population growth over time14

84.

Q: What are the phases of a bacterial growth curve? A: Lag, log, stationary, and death14

85.

Q: What are biofilms? A: Microbial communities encased in a matrix34

86.

Q: What is quorum sensing? A: Cell-to-cell communication in bacteria27

87.

Q: What are the different oxygen requirements of microbes? A: Aerobes, anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, microaerophiles

88.

Q: What is an obligate aerobe? A: A microbe that requires oxygen

89.

Q: What is an obligate anaerobe? A: A microbe that cannot tolerate oxygen

90.

Q: What is a facultative anaerobe? A: A microbe that can grow with or without oxygen

91.

Q: What is a microaerophile? A: A microbe that requires a small amount of oxygen

92.

Q: What is the effect of pH on microbial growth? A: Influences enzyme activity

93.

Q: What are psychrophiles? A: Microbes that grow best in cold temperatures

94.

Q: What are mesophiles? A: Microbes that grow best in moderate temperatures

95.

Q: What are thermophiles? A: Microbes that grow best in hot temperatures

96.

Q: What are halophiles? A: Microbes that require high salt concentrations35

97.

Q: What are barophiles? A: Microbes that grow under high pressure

98.

Q: What are some methods of sterilization? A: Autoclaving, filtration, radiation36

99.

Q: What is disinfection? A: Removing pathogens from fomites37... 100.Q: What is degerming? A: Removing microbes from a surface by scrubbing38 101.Q: What is sanitization? A: Reducing microbial levels to meet public health standards38 102.Q: What are some common disinfectants? A: Alcohol, bleach, phenols38 103.Q: What is an antiseptic? A: A chemical used to kill or inhibit microbes on skin38 104.Q: What are fomites? A: Inanimate objects that can harbor microbes38 105.Q: What is pasteurization? A: Using heat to reduce the number of microbes in liquids38 106.Q: What does BSL stand for? A: Biological safety level38 107.Q: What are the 4 biosafety levels? A: BSL-1, BSL-2, BSL-3, BSL-438

Metabolic Pathways Used by Microbes

108.Q: What is metabolism? A: The sum of all chemical reactions in a cell39 109.Q: What is catabolism? A: Breakdown of molecules39 110.Q: What is anabolism? A: Synthesis of molecules39 111.Q: What is cellular respiration? A: Using an electron transport chain to produce ATP39 112.Q: What is fermentation? A: ATP production without an electron transport chain39 113.Q: What is glycolysis? A: The first step of carbohydrate catabolism, glucose is converted into pyruvate39 114.Q: What is the role of enzymes? A: Catalyze chemical reactions39 115.Q: What is the role of ATP? A: Provide energy for cellular activities39 116.Q: What is photosynthesis? A: Using light energy to synthesize organic molecules39 117.Q: What is the Calvin cycle? A: The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis39 118.Q: What is the electron transport chain? A: Series of electron carriers that generate a proton gradient, which creates ATP39 119.Q: What is a biogeochemical cycle? A: Recycling of elements by microorganisms

Principles of Infectious Disease and Epidemiology

120.Q: What is an infectious disease? A: A disease caused by a pathogen40 121.Q: What is a communicable disease? A: A disease that can spread from person to person40 122.Q: What is a noncommunicable disease? A: A disease that cannot spread from person to person41 123.Q: What is an opportunistic infection? A: An infection that occurs in immunocompromised patients41 124.Q: What is a sign of disease? A: Objective indication of disease40 125.Q: What is a symptom of disease? A: Subjective indication of disease40 126.Q: What is a pathogen? A: A disease-causing microbe40 127.Q: What is virulence? A: The degree of pathogenicity42 128.Q: What is a portal of entry? A: How pathogens enter the body40 129.Q: What is a portal of exit? A: How pathogens leave the body40 130.Q: What are Koch's postulates? A: Criteria to establish a causal relationship between a microbe and disease42 131.Q: What are molecular Koch's postulates? A: Criteria to establish a relationship between a virulence gene and disease43 132.Q: What is epidemiology? A: The study of the patterns and causes of disease44 133.Q: What is a vector? A: An organism that transmits a pathogen44 134.Q: What is a biological vector? A: A vector in which the pathogen reproduces44 135.Q: What is a mechanical vector? A: A vector that transmits a pathogen without reproduction44 136.Q: What is direct contact transmission? A: Transmission through physical contact44 137.Q: What is vehicle transmission? A: Transmission through contaminated food, water, or air44

Host-Microbe Interactions and Biosafety

138.Q: What is symbiosis? A: Close relationship between two organisms16 139.Q: What is mutualism? A: A symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit16 140.Q: What is commensalism? A: A symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits, and the other is not affected16 141.Q: What is parasitism? A: A symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits, and the other is harmed16 142.Q: What is the human microbiome? A: The community of microbes living in and on the human body45 143.Q: What is a nosocomial infection? A: An infection acquired in a healthcare setting42 144.Q: What is an iatrogenic disease? A: A disease resulting from medical treatment42 145.Q: What are virulence factors? A: Molecules that aid a pathogen in causing disease15 146.Q: What are exoenzymes? A: Enzymes secreted by pathogens to cause damage15 147.Q: What are toxins? A: Molecules that can cause damage to host cells15 148.Q: What are exotoxins? A: Toxins secreted by pathogens15 149.Q: What are endotoxins? A: Toxins released when gram-negative bacteria die15 150.Q: What is a capsule? A: A structure that aids in adhesion and immune evasion15 151.Q: What is a biofilm? A: Microbial communities encased in a matrix that are hard to treat34 152.Q: What are fimbriae? A: Hair-like structures used for attachment16

Immune Systems in Relation to Infectious Disease

153.Q: What is innate immunity? A: Nonspecific defenses present at birth46 154.Q: What is adaptive immunity? A: Specific defenses that develop in response to exposure46 155.Q: What are phagocytes? A: Cells that engulf and destroy pathogens46 156.Q: What are the primary phagocytic cells? A: Neutrophils and macrophages46 157.Q: What are antigens? A: Molecules that stimulate an immune response46 158.Q: What are antibodies? A: Proteins that bind to antigens46 159.Q: What are B cells? A: Cells that produce antibodies46 160.Q: What are T cells? A: Cells that play a key role in cell-mediated immunity46 161.Q: What is inflammation? A: A response to tissue damage or infection46 162.Q: What is a cytokine? A: A signaling molecule of the immune system46 163.Q: What are histamines? A: Molecules that promote inflammation46 164.Q: What are interferons? A: Cytokines that interfere with viral replication46 165.Q: What is complement? A: A group of proteins that aid in the immune response46 166.Q: What are the components of blood? A: Plasma and formed elements46 167.Q: What are the formed elements? A: Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets46 168.Q: What is hematopoiesis? A: The process of blood cell formation46 169.Q: What is the function of neutrophils? A: Phagocytize bacteria46 170.Q: What is the function of macrophages? A: Phagocytize bacteria and present antigens46 171.Q: What is an autoimmune disorder? A: When the immune system attacks the body's own cells46 172.Q: What are the major classes of antibody? A: IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE46

Vaccines and Biotech Based Diagnostics and Therapeutics

173.Q: What are vaccines? A: A preparation used to stimulate an immune response46 174.Q: What are live attenuated vaccines? A: Weakened form of a pathogen46 175.Q: What are inactivated vaccines? A: Killed form of a pathogen46 176.Q: What are subunit vaccines? A: Using specific antigens of a pathogen46 177.Q: What are toxoid vaccines? A: Using inactivated bacterial toxins46 178.Q: What is a DNA vaccine? A: Using genetic material from a pathogen46 179.Q: What is serology? A: The study of blood serum and the immune response46 180.Q: What is an agglutination assay? A: Using antibodies to clump cells46 181.Q: What is an ELISA? A: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay to detect antigens and antibodies46 182.Q: What are monoclonal antibodies? A: Antibodies from a single clone of cells that bind to the same epitope46 183.Q: What are polyclonal antibodies? A: Antibodies from different clones of cells that bind to different epitopes46 184.Q: What are hybridomas? A: Cells created by fusing B cells with myeloma cells46 185.Q: What are affinity-matured antibodies? A: Antibodies that are modified for higher binding to antigens46 186.Q: What is genetic engineering? A: Altering an organism’s genetics to achieve desirable traits47 187.Q: What is recombinant DNA technology? A: Manipulating DNA sequences in vitro47 188.Q: What is a genomic library? A: A complete copy of an organism’s genome contained as recombinant DNA48 189.Q: What is a cDNA library? A: Library of DNA molecules that contain sequences from transcribed mRNA18 190.Q: What is PCR? A: Polymerase chain reaction for amplifying DNA49 191.Q: What is gel electrophoresis? A: Separating DNA fragments based on size49 192.Q: What is a DNA probe? A: A DNA molecule used to find a complementary sequence50 193.Q: What is a reporter gene? A: A gene whose expression can be easily monitored48 194.Q: What is a Southern blot? A: A method to identify DNA sequences49 195.Q: What is a Northern blot? A: A method to identify RNA sequences49 196.Q: What is microarray analysis? A: A method to determine gene expression levels49 197.Q: What is Sanger sequencing? A: A method for determining the base sequence of a DNA molecule49

Antimicrobial Drugs

198.Q: What is chemotherapy? A: Using chemicals or drugs to treat disease51 199.Q: What are antimicrobial drugs? A: Drugs that target infectious microorganisms51 200.Q: What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactams? A: Inhibit cell wall biosynthesis52 201.Q: What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines? A: Inhibit protein synthesis52 202.Q: What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides? A: Inhibit protein synthesis52 203.Q: What is the mechanism of action of macrolides? A: Inhibit protein synthesis52 204.Q: What is the mechanism of action of quinolones? A: Inhibit DNA synthesis52 205.Q: What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides? A: Inhibit folic acid synthesis52 206.Q: What is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic? A: An antibiotic that targets a few types of bacteria52 207.Q: What is a broad-spectrum antibiotic? A: An antibiotic that targets many types of bacteria52 208.Q: What is selective toxicity? A: A drug that harms pathogens but not host cells52 209.Q: What is drug resistance? A: When microbes are no longer susceptible to a drug53 210.Q: What is cross-resistance? A: Resistance to one drug confers resistance to another53 211.Q: What are MDRs? A: Multidrug-resistant microbes53 212.Q: What is a superbug? A: A microbe resistant to many antimicrobials53 213.Q: What are ESKAPE pathogens? A: A group of pathogens known for antibiotic resistance53 214.Q: What is the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)? A: The lowest concentration of drug that inhibits visible bacterial growth54 215.Q: What is the minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC)? A: The lowest drug concentration that kills bacteria54 216.Q: What is the Kirby-Bauer test? A: A disk diffusion test to measure antimicrobial susceptibility54 217.Q: What is an antibiogram? A: A summary of antibiotic susceptibilities for a particular pathogen54 218.Q: What is a semi-synthetic drug? A: A chemically modified natural drug51 219.Q: What is a synthetic drug? A: A drug that is entirely man-made51