Bio review
What is the main difference between a Genetic Maps (using recombinant
frequency) and Physical Maps (using a variety of techniques that map loci)?
a. Genetic maps identify exact location of an allele, while physical maps
identify the relative location of an allele.
b. Genetic maps identify relative location of an allele, while physical maps
identify the exact location of an allele.
c. Genetic maps identify nucleic acids, physical maps identify histones.
d. Genetic maps identify the type of nucleotide at a loci, while physical maps
just identify that there is a nucleotide there.
2. Based on what you have been learning, a transgene is:
a. Hard to destroy once inserted into a genome.
b. Hard to study because of its psuedogenes.
c. Created by several of the DNA motifs.
d. An inserted foreign gene inferring new and hopefully improved functions.
3. Very early in development, ex. a zygote or an early blastocyst, each cell is
capable of expressing all its genes. This is referred to as being:
a. Gene regulation
b. Unipotent
c. Stem cell
d. Totipotent
4. There is a point in life where there is a tremendous increase in the number of
cells, faster cell divisions, coupled with a decrease in the size of the cells
composing the embryo. These mitotic divisions are called:
a. Cleavage. G1 and G2 phases of cell cycle short or eliminated
b. Blastocyst excitement.
c. Mitotic array.
d. Fetal development.
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5. How does pattern formation relate to morphogenesis?
a. Pattern formation is differentiation of cells/the blue print of the organism
and morphogenesis is the growth and migration of cells to take the form of
the organism.
b. Pattern formation is the growth into the form of the organism and
morphogenesis is the differentiation of cells based on the DNA blue print.
c. Pattern formation has no relation to morphogenesis.
d. Pattern formation takes place in the embryo and then stops so that
morphogenesis can continue.
6. What likely has happened if significant genetic variation has been lost in a
population especially if a small number have been isolated?
a. A genetic collapse effect.
b. A genetic bottleneck effect
c. An invasion of an exotic species
d. An extinction event.
7. What are the three conditions that must be met for evolution to occur by
natural selection?
a. No variation, no migration, exceedingly large population size
b. Genotypic variation, no genetic affect on survival, variation is not heritable
c. Populations are in Hardy – Weinberg Equilibrium
d. Phenotypic variation, variation affects survival, variation is heritable
8. What is fitness?
a. Strongest
b. Fastest
c. Multiple phenotypes that lead to survival
d. The one phenotype that leads to survival
9. Which of the following show how evolutionary forces are interactive?
a. Mutations and genetic drift don’t counter selection.
b. Gene flow has no impact on changes in allele frequency.
c. Stabilizing Selection eliminates extremes, so “fastest” or “slowest” may not
be “fittest”.
d. All of the above
10. Which of the following would be a Synapomorphy – a derived character
shared by the clade including all mammals?
a. Stripes
b. Tail loss
c. vertebral column
d. Hair
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11. Which of the following sets of conditions must be met for evolution to occur
by natural selection that could lead to speciation of subspecies?
a. No variation, no migration, exceedingly large population size, no
geographic separation
b. Genotypic variation, no genetic impact on survival, variation is not
heritable
c. Populations are in Hardy – Weinberg Equilibrium
d. Phenotypic variation, heritable variation affects survival, subspecies are
isolated for many generations.
12. What if two species are well adapted to the specific part of the environment
they inhabit so hybrids would be eliminated by natural selection. These two
species would then be a good example of:
a. An allopatric species
b. An ecological species
c. A phylogenetic species
d. A behavioral species
13. Fossil evidence is 3.2 billion years ago (BYA),
geochemical data points to 3.5 – 3.8 bya. What is this?
a. First evidence of oxygen – breathing multicellular life.
b. First evidence of mitochondria in cells.
c. First evidence of dinosaurs on Earth.
d. First evidence of life on Earth.
14. After the last major ice age on Earth 11,700 years ago marks the start of:
a. The Holocene epoch.
b. The Jurassic period.
c. The last dinosaur extinction.
d. The appearance of flowering plants.
15. If you study the evolutionary relationships between certain groups dessert
mammals, which of the following best describes your career?
a. Cladistics
b. Taxonomy
c. Embryonic development
d. Systematics
16. What is used to cut genes in both recombinant DNA research and DNA
fingerprinting?
a. Restriction endonucleases
b. nucleases
c. helicase
d. DNA ligase
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17. The process of designing organisms that contain genes from other species.
a. Hybridization
b. Proteomics
c. Genetic recombination
d. Transgenics
Answers are in the separate answer key file.
Continues
Part II: 85 Practice Questions encompassing all lessons
1. Which of these is an example of an organelle?
A. amoeba
B. muscle
C. stomach
D. chloroplast
2. What is a localized group of organisms that belong to the same species?
A. network
B. community
C. population
D. ecosystem
3. Which of these statements is one of the generalizations of the cell theory?
A. Life is extraterrestrial in origin.
B. All cells contain a nucleus.
C. DNA is the only genetic material of all cells.
D. New cells arise from preexisting cells.
4. Which of the following is not a part of the endomembrane system?
A. mitochondria
B. Golgi apparatus
C. rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. lysosomes
5. One of the key distinctions between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is the
presence of __________ cells, which is lacking in __________ cells.
A. a nucleus in eukaryotic ... prokaryotic
B. a nucleus in prokaryotic ... eukaryotic
C. DNA in prokaryotic ... eukaryotic
D. DNA in eukaryotic ... prokaryotic
6. Which of the following is not found in a prokaryotic cell?
A. DNA
B. cell wall
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C. endoplasmic reticulum
D. ribosomes
7. Which type of organelle is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils,
phospholipids, and steroids?
A. ribosomes
B. lysosomes
C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. mitochondria
8. Of the following, which is probably the most common route for membrane flow
in the endomembrane system?
A. Golgi > lysosome > ER > plasma membrane
B. tonoplast > plasma membrane > nuclear envelope > smooth ER
C. nuclear envelope > lysosome > Golgi > plasma membrane
D. rough ER > vesicles > Golgi > plasma membrane
9. Organelles that contain DNA include
A. ribosomes.
B. mitochondria.
C. chloroplasts.
D. B and C are correct.
10. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. nucleolus and ribosomal RNA
B. nucleus and DNA replication
C. lysosome and protein synthesis
D. cell membrane and lipid bilayer
11. The partial negative charge at one end of a water molecule is attracted to the
partial positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?
A. a covalent bond
B. a hydrogen bond
C. an ionic bond
D. a hydrophilic bond
12. Which of the following is an example of a hydrogen bond?
A. the bond between C and H in methane
B. the bond between the H of one water molecule and the O of another water
molecule
C. the bond between Na and Cl in salt
D. the bond between two electrons
13. Water is transported in plant tissues against gravity due to which of the
following properties?
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A. cohesion
B. adhesion
C. hydrogen bonding
D. all of the above
14. Which of the following is possible due to the surface tension of water?
A. Lakes don't freeze solid in the winter, despite low temperatures.
B. A water skipper (insect. can walk across a small pond.
C. Organisms resist temperature changes although they give off heat due to
chemical reactions.
D. Water can act as a solvent.
15. Why does ice float in liquid water?
A. The liquid water molecules have more energy and can push up the ice.
B. The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.
C. Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.
D. Hydrogen bonds keep the molecules of ice farther apart than in liquid water.
16. If the pH of a solution is decreased from 7 to 6, it means that the
A. concentration of H has increased one exponential power of 10 what it was at pH 7.
B. concentration of OH has increased one exponential power of 10 what it was at pH 7.
C. concentration of OH has decreased one exponential power of 10 what it was at pH 7.
D. Both A and C are correct.
17. Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between
dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
A. Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks them down.
B. Hydrolysis occurs during the day, and dehydration reactions happen at night.
C. Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
D. Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions destroy them.
18. The 20 different amino acids found in polypeptides exhibit different chemical
and physical properties because of variations in their:
A. carboxyl groups.
B. amino groups.
C. side chains (R groups).
D. peptide bonds.
19. Which term most precisely describes the general process of breaking down
large molecules into smaller ones?
A. catalysis
B. catabolism
C. anabolism
D. dehydration
20. Which of the following is part of the first law of thermodynamics?
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A. Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
B. The entropy of the universe is decreasing.
C. The entropy of the universe is constant.
D. Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of
matter.
21. Dideoxynucleotides lack a hydroxyl at the 3’ carbon. What is the significance of that in terms
of sequencing DNA?
A. The normal DNA nucleotides cannot form base-pairs with dideoxynucleotides.
B. Dideoxynucleotides halt a double helix from unwinding.
C. The lack of the hydroxyl stops the formation of a diester bond with the next nucleotide.
D. A polypeptide will not form when dideoxynucleotides are present.
22. Which process in eukaryotic cells will normally proceed whether O2 is
present or absent?
A. electron transport chain
B. glycolysis
C. oxidation of NADH and FADH2
D. oxidative phosphorylation
23. In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis?
A. CO2 and H2O
B. CO2 and ethyl alcohol
C. NADH and pyruvate
D. CO2 and NADH
24. All of the following are functions of the Krebs cycle except
A. production of ATP.
B. production of NADH.
C. production of FADH2.
D. adding electrons and protons to oxygen to form water.
25. During oxidative phosphorylation, H2O is formed. Where do the oxygen
atoms in the H2O come from?
A. carbon dioxide
B. glucose (from food)
C. molecular oxygen (breathed in)
D. pyruvate
26. During aerobic respiration, electrons travel down-gradient in which
sequence?
A. food > Krebs cycle > ATP >NAD+
B. food > NADH > electron transport chain > oxygen
C. glucose > ATP> oxygen
D. glucose> ATP > electron transport chain > NADH
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27. Organisms that can exist on light and an inorganic form of carbon and other
raw materials
A. are called photoautotrophs.
B. do not exist in nature.
C. are called heterotrophs.
D. are best classified as decomposers.
28. In eukaryote heterotrophs, after haploid gametes fuse:
A. Fertilization leads to mitosis.
B. Fertilization leads to meiosis.
C. Fertilization leads to Prophase II.
D. Fertilization leads to cells that are 1n1c.
29. A hormone can act as a signal that binds to a cell membrane and:
A. Then the hormone transcribes itself into mRNA.
B. Leads to signal transduction with a cell response.
C. Then the hormone becomes ATP along the electron transport chain.
D. The cell membrane turns into tRNA and carries the hormone to ribosomes.
30. All of the following are observable during prometaphase of mitosis in animal
cells except
A. the centrioles move toward opposite poles.
B. the nucleolus can no longer be seen.
C. the nuclear envelope disappears.
D. chromosomes are no longer replicated (no sister chromatids).
31. Which of the following are products of the light dependent reactions of
photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle?
A. CO2 and glucose
B. H2O and O2
C. ADP, Pi, and NADP+
D. ATP and NADPH
32. A compound contains several charged hydroxyl groups. Which of the
following statements is true concerning this compound?
A. It should dissolve in water.
B. It should dissolve in a nonpolar solvent.
C. It won't form hydrogen bonds with water.
D. It is hydrophobic.
33. If there are 20 centromeres in a cell, how many chromosomes are there?
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A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
34. All of the following occur during mitosis except
A. the condensing of chromosomes.
B. the uncoupling of chromatids at the centromere.
C. the formation of a spindle.
D. the synthesis of DNA.
35. Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal
cells, taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and
accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this
stops mitosis. Dr. Dammalapati observes this and knows that taxol must affect
A. the fibers of the mitotic spindle.
B. anaphase.
C. formation of the centrioles.
D. chromatid assembly.
36. Which of the following is not true of the bacterial chromosome?
A. It consists of a single, circular DNA molecule.
B. DNA replication begins at the origin of replication.
C. Its centromeres uncouple during replication.
D. It has genes that control binary fission.
37. Which of these statements is false?
A. In humans, each of the 22 autosomes includes a homologous chromosome
from each parent.
B. In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, are either (XX. XY)
C. Haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization,
forming a diploid (2n) single-celled zygote.
D. At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
38. Recombinant chromosomes are the result of
A. crossing-over.
B. environmental factors such as radiation and carcinogenic chemicals.
C. mutations.
D. separation of homologous chromosomes in metaphase I of meiosis.
39. What was the most significant result Gregor Mendel drew from his
experiments with pea plants?
A. There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.
B. Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of arbitrary "blending”.
C. Recessive genes occur more frequently than do dominant ones.
D. Genes are composed of DNA.
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40. Alleles
A. are the result of hybridization.
B. are present only in the haploid generation.
C. occur in a 3:1 ratio.
D. are alternative forms of a gene.
41. Mendel's law of independent assortment was nearly impossible for most
biologists to understand until there was a general understanding of
A. dominance.
B. meiosis.
C. mitosis.
D. pleiotropy.
42. A man who carries an X-linked allele will pass it on to
A. all of his daughters.
B. half of his daughters.
C. all of his sons.
D. half of his sons.
43. Beadle and Tatum proposed the one gene-one enzyme concept. Based on
its original form, this hypothesis could now be restated in which of the following
ways?
A. One DNA molecule contains the information to make one enzyme.
B. A given sequence of DNA nucleotides contains the information to synthesize a
gene product such as an enzyme.
C. Each gene contains the information to make one enzyme, one lipid, and one
carbohydrate.
D. Each gene is actually an enzyme that catalyzes the production of one protein.
44. Which of the following represents a similarity between mRNA and DNA?
A. the presence of a double-stranded helix
B. the presence of uracil
C. the presence of an OH group on the 3' carbon of the sugar
D. nucleotides consisting of a phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base
45. All of the following are directly related to transcription of DNA except
A. Okazaki fragments
B. exons
C. mRNA
D. introns
46. All of the following are directly involved in translation except
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A. mRNA.
B. tRNA.
C. DNA.
D. ribosomes.
47. Which of the following is a true statement about eubacteria?
A. They are classified as prokaryotes.
B. Their nuclei contain no genetic material.
C. These cells are not visible with microscopes.
D. A and B both true.
48. Archebacteria have the properties of living organisms. Which of the following
is a not a characteristic of all living things?
A. genetic information stored as nucleic acid
B. inability to maintain metabolic homeostasis
C. ability to reproduce
D. have genetic code that translates into proteins or other structures
49. The finding that homeotic genes are present in both mammals and insects
indicates that these genes:
A. Control the same traits.
B. Are on the same chromosomes.
C. Arose early in the evolutionary history of animals.
D. Code for the exact same proteins.
50. Signals produced and released by cells that travel through blood and bind to
or pass through cell membranes are called:
A. MAP kinase cascade.
B. Paracrine signals.
C. Synaptic signals.
D. Endocrine signals.
51. What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?
A. hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA.
B. Uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis in the host cell.
C. Converts host cell RNA into viral DNA.
D. Translates viral RNA into proteins.
52. In contrast to the cell cycle of adult somatic cells, the dividing cells of an
early embryo lack which cell cycle stage(s.?
A. M
B. S
C. G1 and G2
D. interphase
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53. Natural selection for a certain phenotype will affect the _____.
A. allele frequency of a population
B. genotype of an individual
C. allele frequency of an individual
D. genotype of a population
54. What is the most common source of genetic diversity in a bacterial colony?
A. mutation and transformation
B. independent assortment
C. meiotic recombination
D. crossing over
55. What does the operon model attempt to explain?
A. the control mechanism of gene expression in bacteria
B. bacterial resistance to antibiotics
C. how genes move between homologous regions of DNA
D. the mechanism of viral attachment to a host cell
56. Plasmids are important in biotechnology because they are
A. a vehicle (vector) for the insertion of recombinant DNA into bacteria.
B. recognition sites on recombinant DNA strands.
C. surfaces for protein synthesis in eukaryotic recombinants.
D. surfaces for respiratory processes in bacteria.
57. If you discovered a bacterial cell that contained no restriction enzymes,
which of the following would you expect to happen?
A. The cell would be unable to replicate its DNA.
B. The cell would create incomplete plasmids.
C. The cell would be easily infected and not well able to defend itself from bacteriophages.
D. The cell would become an obligate parasite.
58. What is the genetic function of restriction enzyme?
A. adds new nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA
B. cleaves nucleic acids at specific sites
C. joins nucleotides during transcription
D. joins nucleotides during replication
59. The restriction enzyme used in constructing hybrid molecules of certain gene
sequences acts by:
A. Opening DNA molecules at specific sites, leaving sticky ends exposed.
B. Allowing a hybrid plasmid DNA into a transformed molecule.
C. Transcribing plasmid DNA into a transformed molecule.
D. Sealing plasmid DNA and foreign DNA into a closed circle.
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60. What two enzymes are needed to produce recombinant DNA?
A. restriction enzyme, ligase
B. transcriptase, ligase
C. endonuclease, transcriptase
D. polymerase, ligase
61. What is a cloning vector?
A. an agent, such as a plasmid, used to transfer DNA from an in vitro solution
into a living cell
B. a DNA probe used to locate a particular gene in the genome
C. the laboratory apparatus used to clone genes
D. the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments
62. All of the following statements about probes are true except:
A. The probe must be labeled with a radioactive isotope or fluorescent tab.
B. Shorter probes adhere to more fragments than do longer probes.
C. They are single-stranded segments of DNA or RNA.
D. Probes don’t need complimentary base-pairs with target sequences.
63. After being digested with a restriction enzyme, DNA fragments are separated
by gel electrophoresis. Specific fragments are then identified through the use of a
A. nucleic acid probe.
B. plasmid.
C. sticky end.
D. restriction enzyme.
64. Dr. Shikimachi has cloned a gene thinking it important in conferring flea
resistance to dogs. What technique would Dr. Shikimachi use to test to see if
there were allele variants of that gene?
A. hybridization
B. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism analysis
C. DNA microarray assays
D. mutagenesis
65. Why is it difficult for bacteria to express cloned genes from eukaryotic DNA?
A. Eukaryotic genes contain introns.
B. Eukaryotic genes do not contain enhancer sequences.
C. Eukaryotic genes lack controlling regions.
D. Eukaryotic genes are not transcribed in a single transcript.
66. The principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into the
bacterial chromosome, and then getting that gene expressed, is that
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A. bacteria translate polycistronic messages only.
B. prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes.
C. bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns.
D. bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian
DNA.
67. A gene’s exons can be known for genetic engineering purposes by:
A. Using a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces.
B. Using RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene.
C. Using DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product.
D. Using reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its processed mRNA.
68. Specific DNA fragments of a genomic library are contained in
A. recombinant plasmids of bacteria.
B. recombinant viral DNA.
C. eukaryotic chromosomes.
D. A and B.
69. Dr. Argenta could use the polymerase chain reaction (PCR. to amplify DNA
from which of the following?
A. a fossil
B. a fetal cell
C. a virus
D. all of the above
70. Restriction fragments of DNA are separated from one another by which
process?
A. chromatography
B. gel electrophoresis
C. filtering
D. centrifugation
71. To what does independent assortment refer?
A. The separation of alleles in anaphase I.
B. The random arrangement of chromosomal tetrads at metaphase I.
C. The separation of chromatids at anaphase II.
D. The random arrangement of gene loci on a chromosome.
72. For a couple of decades, biologists knew the nucleus contained DNA and
proteins. The prevailing opinion was that proteins were the genetic material and
not DNA. The reason for this belief was that proteins were more complex than
DNA. This is because
A. proteins have a greater variety of three-dimensional forms than does DNA.
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B. proteins have two different levels of structural organization; DNA has four.
C. proteins are made of 20 amino acids and DNA is made of four nucleotides.
D. A and C only are correct.
73. The lac regulatory system is important to bacteria because the
sugar lactose:
A. Cannot be made by bacteria unless the genes are turned on.
B. Is the most common source of food and enzymes are needed all
the time.
C. Is not as available as glucose. Producing enzymes to digest lactase all the
time may reduce bacterial fitness.
D. Is incorporated into the nuclear membrane of the bacteria.
74. The role of DNA replication is to:
A. Reduce ploidy during meiosis and increase recombination.
B. Induce a favorable recombination of alleles during metaphase.
C. Produce exact replicas of the parent DNA with little to no
mutation.
D. Make directional selection favored during Mitosis.
75. Compare using Genetic Map data (using recombinant frequency. and
Physical Map data (using a variety of techniques that map loci.?
A. Genetic maps identify exact locations of alleles, while physical maps identify
the relative locations of an alleles.
B. Genetic maps identify relative frequency of crossing over along chromosomes,
physical maps identify the exact loci of alleles.
C. Genetic maps identify nucleic acids, physical maps only identify histones.
D. Genetic maps identify the type of nucleotide at a loci, while physical maps just
identify that there is a nucleotide there.
76. It has been found that the cells of early embryos of all chordates maintain the
ability to become any type of cell longer than the cells of most all invertebrate
embryos. In these chordate early embryos each cell is capable of expressing all
its genes. This is referred to as being:
A) Gene regulation
B) Unipotent
C) Stem cell
D) Totipotent
77. How does pattern formation relate to morphogenesis?
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A) Pattern formation is differentiation of cells/the blue print of the organism
and morphogenesis is the growth and migration of cells to take the form of
the organism.
B) Pattern formation is the growth into the form of the organism and
morphogenesis is the differentiation of cells based on the DNA blue print.
C) Pattern formation has no relation to morphogenesis.
D) Pattern formation takes place in the embryo and then stops so that
morphogenesis can continue.
78. Dr. O’Hara finds that Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
has evolved by natural selection in her hospital. What three conditions have been
met for this to happen to the bacteria?
A) No variation, no migration, exceedingly large population size
B) Genotypic variation, no genetic affect on survival, variation is not heritable
C) Populations are in Hardy – Weinberg Equilibrium
D) Phenotypic variation, variation affects survival, variation is heritable
79. The cladogram below investigates the evolutionary relationships between
groups of flowering plants. So, this cladogram is a study of the ____________ of
flowering plants
A. Systematics
B. Taxonomy
C. Symplesiomorphy
D. Homoplasy
80. Which of the following supports the traditional definition of a biological
species that describes two populations identified as separate species?
A. The gametes produced by two populations are compatible, but
continents separate them making fertilization unlikely.
B. The gametes produced by two populations are incompatible even
when fertilization is attempted artificially.
C. The gametes produced by two populations are compatible, but
sub-populations have slight phenotypic variation.
D. mating pairs in a controlled study are incompatible, and but their
gametes are compatible.
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81. The method of reasoning that you would use in the construction of a cell
theory by careful repeated experimentation and the validation of many supported
hypotheses is:
A. Inductive reasoning.
B. Theoretical reasoning.
C. Hypothetical reasoning.
D. Deductive reasoning
82. Water molecules are polar with ends that exhibit partial positive and negative
charges. Such opposite charges make water molecules attract to each other
through bonds called
A. ionic bonds.
B. covalent bonds.
C. hydrogen bonds.
D. radioactive bonds.
83. Which of the following are not endosymbiotic organelles?
A. Mitochondria
B. Chloroplasts
C. Golgi apparatus
84. A plant biologist treats a cell so that oxygen cannot diffuse out of the cell
membrane. Which organelle will be directly affected?
A. Mitochondria
B. Lysosome
C. Chloroplast
D. Ribosome
85. The First Law of Thermodynamics simply states that
A. Energy is constantly being created in the universe.
B. Disorder in the universe is continually increasing.
C. Energy can be created but not destroyed.
D. Energy cannot be created or destroyed, just changed from one form to another