TOPIC QUIZ: General Chemistry
1.Which among the processes of separating components of mixtures makes use of differences in solvent affinity?
A. Decantation
B. Evaporation
C. Chromatography
D. Distillation
2.When water undergoes electrolysis forming hydrogen and oxygen molecules, which of the following phrases BEST describes this occurrence?
A. Substitution reaction
B. Chemical change
C. Physical change
D. Evaporation
3. Formation of dry ice.
A. Condensation
B. Sublimation
C. Deposition
D. Freezing
4. It forms a yellow, curdy precipitate that is readily soluble in potassium cyanide and in sodium thiosulphate solutions, very slightly soluble in concentrated ammonia solution, and insoluble in dilute nitric acid.
A. AgCl
B. AgBr
C. Agl
D. AgF
5. A weak oxidizing agent oxidizes glucose into
A. Pyruvate
B. Lactate
C. Glutaric acid
D. Gluconic acid
6. Which of the following refers to a kind of chemical reaction whereby a substance splits into a simpler substance?
A. Decomposition reaction
B. Single replacement reaction
C. Double replacement reaction
D. Combination reaction
7. Determine the oxidation of chromium in potassium chromate with the chemical formula: KCrO4
A. 6
B. 5
C. 8
D.7
8. The rate of the reaction is proportional to the product of the concentrate of the reactants to the power of its coefficient in a balanced equation.
A. Law of Definite Proportion
B. Law of Conservation of Mass
C. Law of Mass Action
D. Le Chatelier's Principle
9. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons of an atom:
A. Atomic weight
B. Isotopes
C. Atomic number
D. Mass number
10. Elements having the same number of protons
A. Isotopes
B. Isobars
C. Isotones
D. Isomers
11. Elements having the different protons and neutrons but have the same mass number
A. Isotopes
B. Isobars
C. Isotones
D. Isomers
12. It gives the spatial orientation of the electron cloud with respect to the three areas in space:
A. Spin quantum number
B. Magnetic quantum number
C. Principal quantum number
D. Azimuthal
13. This is used to describe the approximate measure of the size of the electron cloud.
A. Principal quantum number
B. Azimuthal quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Spin quantum number
14. This quantum number is related to the shape of atomic orbitals.
A. Azimuthal quantum number
B. Principal quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Spin quantum number
15. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Pauli's Exclusion Principle?
A. No 2 electrons in an atom may have the same principal quantum number
B. An atom cannot have 2 electrons in the same energy level or orbital that have the same set of quantum numbers
C. No more than 2 electrons may have the same set of quantum numbers
D. Electrons in an atom may differ by, at most, one of four quantum numbers
16. Principle which states that it is impossible to accurately determine simultaneously the position and motion of an electron.
A. Pauli Exclusion Principle
B. Aufbau Principle
C. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
D. Hund's Rule of Maximum Multiplicity
17. Name this polyatomic anion: CIO4-
A. Perchlorate ion
B. Chlorate ion
C. Chlorite ion
D. Hypochlorite ion
18. Major cation of the extracellular fluid
A. K-
B. Na+
C. Mg2-
D. Ca2+
19. What is the predominant ion in the intracellular fluid?
A. Na+
B. K-
C. Mg2-
D. Ca2+
20. What element predominates in the plasma and interstitial fluids?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Magnesium
21. What is the principal anion in the intracellular fluid compartment?
A. Chlorine
B. Sulfate
C. Phosphate
D. Bicarbonate
22. The major physiological ions include the following except
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Manganese
D. Phosphorus
23. Which of the following elements is NOT found as a component of extracellular fluids in humans?
A. Calcium ion
B. Sodium ion
C. lodine in form of iodide
D. Chlorine in form of chloride
24. Replacement therapy is needed when there is:
I. Heavy loss of water
II. Prolonged fever
III. a fracture
IV. Diarrhea
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, III, IV
25. In the cation analysis, group I ions are often called:
A. Insoluble chloride group
B. Soluble chloride group
C. Soluble sulfide group
D. Insoluble sulfide group
26. Chlorides may be precipitated by:
A. Potassium nitrate
B. Silver nitrate
C. Sodium nitrate
D. Calcium chloride
27. It forms white precipitate with HCl but blackens upon addition of ammonium hydroxide.
A. Cupric
B. Mercurous
C. Plumbous
D. Silver
28. The ion that gives a white precipitate with HCl which is soluble in excess ammonium hydroxide but reprecipitated upon addition of nitric acid:
A. Silver
B. Plumbous
C. Mercurous
D. Cupric
29. The modern periodic table of elements was prepared by:
A. Lavoisier
C. Mendeleev
B. Dobereiner
D. Moseley
30. Which of the following does not belong to the period 2 in the periodic table?
A. C
B. H
C. O
D. N
31. Which of the following statements best describe the Periodic Table?
I. Helium is the first element in Group I-A
II. Non-metals occupy the upper right area of the periodic table.
III. Metals are located in the left are of the periodic table.
IV. Diagonally related elements are known as "bridge elements."
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV
32. The following are non-metals except:
A. B
B. C
C.N
D. S
33. The following elements form basic hydrides, EXCEPT:
A. Calcium
B. Sulfur
C. Strontium
D. Magnesium
34. Lightest of all metal
A. Platinum
B. Lithium
C. Nickel
D. Gold
35. Which of the alkali metals melts above 100°C?
A. Rubidium
B. Lithium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
36. Which group is referred to as "alkali metals"?
A. Group IV-A
B. Group I-A
C. Group II-A
D. Group III-A
37. Which of the following is referred to as the chalcogens?
A. II-B
B. VI-A
C. I-B
D. I-A
38. Also known as the salt forming group
A. Group VIA
B. Group VIIA
C. Group VIIIA
D. Group VIIB
39. Which elements belong to Group VII-A?
A. F, Br
B. Na, Ca
C. Mg, Ca
D. F, Na
40. Which group is referred to as "coinage" metal?
A. Group 0
B. Group II-B
C. Group I-B
D. Group III-A
41. Which of the following elements are referred to as volatile metals?
I. Cadmium
II. Mercury
III. Beryllium
IV. Zinc
A. I, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III
42. Which of the following elements are referred to as the triad of the Group VIII?
I. Co
II. Mn
III. Ni
IV. Fe
A. I, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, IV
43. Which statements best describe the properties of elements in the periodic table, from the upper right corner, going down and then to the left?
I. Elements increase in metallic character
II. Elements become more electronegative
III. Elements become more basic
IV. Elements become less electronegative
A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, IV
43. In the periodic table, when going across a period from right to left and top to bottom of a group, which of the following properties of elements increases?
A. Electron affinity
B. Electronegativity
C. lonization potential
D. Atomic size
44. MOST electronegative element?
A. F
B. CI
C. Br
D. I
45. Which of the following elements is the most reactive?
A. CI
B. Br
C. F
D. I
46. Arrange in decreasing electronegativity: F (z = 9) Br (z = 35) , Ca (Z = 20) Na (Z = m)
A. Na > Br > F > Ca
C. Ca > Br > Na > F
B. Br > Na > Ca > F
D. F > Br > Ca > Na
47. Which atom is the most metallic and has the largest atomic radius?
A. Lithium
B. Sodium
C. Cesium
D. Francium
48. Which of the following elements is the most metallic?
A. Br
B. I
C. CI
D. F
49. Elements that exist in two or more crystalline forms are said to be
A. Amphoteric
B. Polymorphic
C. Amorphous
D. Allotropic
50. This allotrope of Phosphorus is made by heating phosphorus at 200 degree celsius under a pressure of 1,200atm?
A. Black phosphorus
B. White phosphorus
C. Red phosphorus
D. Yellow phosphorus
51. Polymorphs differ in their:
I. Bioavailability
II. Stability
III. Melting Point
IV. Solubility
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
52. Which of the following elements are amphoteric?
I. Beryllium
II. Zinc
III. Aluminum
IV. Calcium
A. I, III
B. II, III
C. III, IV
D. I, II
53. All of the following physicochemical constants may be useful to predict the solubility of a compound EXCЕРТ ________.
A. pH of a solution
B. pka of the compound
C. dielectric constant
D. valence of the atoms
54. Which is NOT true for Mineral Oil USP?
A. Immiscible with castor oil
B. It is a mixture of liquid hydrocarbons obtained from petroleum.
C. An antioxidant may be added to prevent peroxide formation.
D. Miscible with alcohol
55. Which of the following is NOT soluble or miscible in alcohol USP?
A. Ether
B. Phenobarbital
C. Formaldehyde
D. Acacia
56. Petrolatum USP is NOT soluble in
A. Chloroform
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Ether
D. Benzene
57. Which of the following is not a solvent for polyethylene glycol?
A. Ethyl alcohol
B. n-propanol
C. water
D. mineral oil
58. Weight of solute in a given quantity of solvent is referred to as
A. Solvation
B. Volume
C. Solubility
D. Concentration
59. Which of the following is the concentration of a solution that contains one gram equivalent weight of solute in a liter of solution?
A. Formal solution
B. Molal solution
C. Normal solution
D. Molar solution
60. When acids are in solution, which of the following is released?
A. Positrons
B. Neutrons
C. Protons
D. Electrons
61. Which one of the following acid will undergo the least amount of ionization in water?
A. Acetic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Salicylic acid
D. Boric acid
62. Will form a salt with acid.
A. Tertiary amines
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Amides
D. Ether
63. Transfer of proton from one molecule to another identical molecule
A. Autoprotolytic
B. Protolytic
C. Protogenic
D. Autoproetolytic
64. Which of the following is an example of triprotic acid?
A. Acetic acid
B. Carbonic acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid
65. Reaction between a strong acid and a weak base.
A. BaCl₂ + H₂O
B. HF + Mg(OH)₂
C. NaCl + H₂O
D. C₂H₂NH₂ + HCI
66. Reaction between a weak acid and a strong base.
A. BaCl₂ + H₂O
B. HF + Mg(OH)₂
C. NaCl + H₂O
D. C₂H₂NH₂ + HCI
67. The negative log of the concentration of hydronium ions in a solution.
A. pH
B. pOH
C. Ka
D. Kb
68. The following are conditions that lead to metabolic acidosis, except:
A. Diabetic acidosis
B. Renal failureo
C. Diarrhea
D. Hypertension
69. Which of the following will be used to correct acute metabolic alkalosis?
A. NaCl
B. NaHCO
C. CaCl
D. KCI
70. Which salt is found in the bicarbonate buffer system of the extracellular fluid of the human body?
A. Magnesium bicarbonate
B. Potassium bicarbonate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Sodium chloride
71. The factors that may affect the pH of a buffer solution are as follows, except:
A. Presence of neutral salts.
B. Constant temperature
C. Dissolution of atmospheric CO2
D. Ionic strength changes of solution
72. What is the pH of a buffer solution containing acetic acid 0.35M and sodium acetate 0.45M? Ka of acetic acid is 1.75 x 10-5?
A. 4.89
B. 4.62
C. 4.65
D. 4.87
73. Which of the following refers to the amount of a strong acid or base that must be added to a liter of solution to change the pH by one unit?
A. lonization constant
B. Equilibrium constant
C. Concentration
D. Buffer capacity
74. The effect of the radioactive particles passing through biological tissue would depend upon which of the following characteristics?
I. The ability of the radiation to penetrate tissue
II. The nature of radiations emitted by radioactive elements
III. The energy of radiation
IV. The dose rate of the radiation
A. I, II, IV
C. II, III, IV
B. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III
75. Which of the following is correct regarding the handling and storage of radioactive materials?
I. Radioactive materials should never be touched by hand
II. Sufficient protective clothing must be used while handling the materials
III. Radioactive materials should be kept in suitable labeled containers
IV. Should be cost effectiveness
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV
76. Which of the following statements is NOT true about half-life of radioisotopes?
A. The faster the isotopes decay the more stable it is
B. Half-life is the time it takes for the amount of radioactivity to reduce 50%
C. The faster the isotope decays the more unstable it is
D. The half-life is unique for any given isotope
77. Beta particles penetrate tissue up cm.
A. 100
B. 10
C. 1000
D. 1
78. Which of the following type of radiation has the greatest penetrating power?
A. Beta radiation
C. Sun rays
B. Gamma radiation
D. Alpha radiation
79. Which of the following is NOT used as the unit of measure for radioactivity?
A. Becquerel
B. Disintegration per second
C. Volts
D. Curie
80. 1 Becquerel is equivalent to
A. 2.7 x 10^-5 curie
B. 2.7 x 10^-11 curie
C. 2.7 x 10^-6 curie
D. 2.7 x 10^-10 curie
81. Negative electrode
A. Cathode
C. Cation
B. Anode
D. Anion
82. A rule that states that when a stress is applied to a system in equilibrium, the equilibrium shifts to relieve the stress.
A. Law of Mass Action
B. Le Chatelier's Principle
C. Law of Definite proportion
D. Law of Conservation of Mass
83. Which of the following can cause a shift in chemical equilibrium?
A. Catalyst
B. Cations
C. Anions
D. Concentration
84. Affects the rate of reaction according to collision theory
A. Temperature, Surface area, Pressure, Presence of catalyst, Concentration
B. Physical state, Surface area, Temperature, Presence of catalyst, Concentration
C. Physical state, surface area, volume
D. Temperature, Pressure, Volume
85. Enthalpy in thermodynamics means:
A. Latent heat
B. Heat content
C. Degree of total molecular randomness
D. Heat of fusion
86. Select the statement that BEST describes solubility of solids in liquids.
A. The solubility of a solid in an ideal solution depends on the temperature, melting point of the solid and molar heat of fusion
B. Ideal solubility is affected by the nature of the solvent
C. In an ideal solution, the heat of fusion is NOT equal to the heat of solution
D. AOTA
87. If enthalpy is positive, the reaction is:
A. Exothermic
B. Endothermic
C. Spontaneous
D. Reversible
88. Which of the following describes potential energy?
A. Boiling water
C. Water flowing over a dam
B. Water inside a big dam
D. Burning gasoline
89. It is a thermodynamic potential that can be used to calculate the maximum reversible work that may be performed by a thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and pressure.
A. Ideal Gas Law
B. Gibbs Free Energy
C. Henry's Law
D. Faraday's Law
90. G=0
A. Ideal Gas Law
B. Gibbs Free Energy
C. Henry's Law
D. Faraday's Law
91. Conversion of thermal energy to mechanical energy
A. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
B. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
C. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
D. 1st, 2nd, 3rd Laws of Thermodynamics
92. Identify the statement/mathematical expression, which does NOT express the First Law of Thermodynamics.
A. States that energy is conserved
B. Forms of energy can be interconverted, but the sum of energies remains constant
C. ΔE is equal to zero for a cyclic process in a closed system.
D. ΔE = EB + EA
93. A law that states that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero.
A. Zeroth
B. First
C. Second
D. Third
94. Select the concept that explains the thermodynamics state of a perfect crystal at absolute zero.
A. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
B. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
C. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
D. 1st, 2nd, 3rd Laws of Thermodynamics
95. Which of the following statements best describes facilitated diffusion?
A. Energy requiring
B. Involves shifting of solvent
C. Carrier-specific
D. The movement against a concentration gradient
96. The following describes active transport, except:
A. Higher to lower concentration gradient
B. Follow saturation kinetics
C. Carrier mediated
D. Expenditure of energy
97. Movement of particles in the body which also means solvent shifts is referred to as
A. Passive diffusion
B. Facilitated transport
C. Active transport
D. Bulk transport
98. Which of the following are B-carboline derivatives isolated from sponges?
A. Fucoidan
B. Carrageenan
C. Alginic acid
D. Eudistamine
99. Which of the following is a sulphated polysaccharide compound extracted from brown algae active herpes simplex virus?
A. Alginic acid
B. Fucoidan
C. Eudistamine
D. Carrageenan
100. Which of the following is a polysaccharide obtained from red seaweeds used in the preparation of toothpaste as emulsifying agent?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Fucoidan
C. Spermaceti
D. Carrageenan
101. Which of the following is a wax obtained from whales used in the preparation of cosmetic creams and fine wax candles?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Fucoidan
C. Spermaceti
D. Carrageenan
102. Which of the following are obtained as products of hydrolysis of Carrageenan?
I. Galactose
II. Glucose
III. Arabinose
IV. Xylose
A. I, II, III
C. II, IV
B. III, IV
D. II, III, IV