QUIZ
Sure! Here is a 75-item multiple-choice exam covering the content provided, with answers included:
1. What is the most abundant tissue in the body?
- A) Connective tissue
- B) Muscle tissue
- C) Nervous tissue
- D) Epithelial tissue
- Answer: B
2. Which muscle type is responsible for voluntary movement?
- A) Cardiac muscle
- B) Smooth muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
3. Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system?
- A) Body movement
- B) Maintenance of posture
- C) Production of blood cells
- D) Respiration
- Answer: C
4. What type of muscle is responsible for the heart beating?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Smooth muscle
- C) Cardiac muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
5. What is the connective tissue sheath surrounding each skeletal muscle called?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Perimysium
- C) Endomysium
- D) Sarcomere
- Answer: A
6. Which structure is the basic functional unit of skeletal muscle?
- A) Myofibril
- B) Sarcomere
- C) Myosin
- D) Actin
- Answer: B
7. What characteristic allows skeletal muscle to return to its original resting length after being stretched?
- A) Contractility
- B) Excitability
- C) Extensibility
- D) Elasticity
- Answer: D
8. What type of contraction causes heat production in the body?
- A) Cardiac muscle contraction
- B) Smooth muscle contraction
- C) Skeletal muscle contraction
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
9. Which type of muscle contraction is involved in propelling food in the digestive tract?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
10. Where are intercalated disks found?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: B
11. What structure extends from one Z disk to another Z disk?
- A) Myofibril
- B) Sarcomere
- C) Myosin
- D) Actin
- Answer: B
12. Which molecule provides a calcium binding site on actin myofilaments?
- A) Tropomyosin
- B) Troponin
- C) Myosin
- D) Actin
- Answer: B
13. What is the term for the most stationary end of a muscle?
- A) Origin
- B) Insertion
- C) Belly
- D) Aponeurosis
- Answer: A
14. Which muscle type is under voluntary control?
- A) Smooth muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
15. What type of muscle has gap junctions to allow action potentials to spread?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
16. Which type of muscle has striations but is not as distinctly striated as skeletal muscle?
- A) Smooth muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: B
17. What is the function of the retinaculum?
- A) Attaching muscle to bone
- B) Holding down tendons at the wrist and ankle
- C) Connecting muscle fibers
- D) Providing a calcium binding site
- Answer: B
18. What term describes a muscle acting in opposition to an agonist?
- A) Agonist
- B) Synergist
- C) Antagonist
- D) Prime mover
- Answer: C
19. Which muscle flexes the elbow?
- A) Triceps brachii
- B) Biceps brachii
- C) Deltoid
- D) Pectoralis major
- Answer: B
20. What condition is characterized by painful, spastic contractions of muscle?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Tendinitis
- C) Cramps
- D) Fibromyalgia
- Answer: C
21. What is the main symptom of fibromyalgia?
- A) Muscle weakness
- B) Muscle pain
- C) Muscle atrophy
- D) Muscle hypertrophy
- Answer: B
22. What is the result of an increase in the number of myofibrils within muscle fibers?
- A) Muscle atrophy
- B) Muscle hypertrophy
- C) Muscle relaxation
- D) Muscle spasm
- Answer: B
23. What disorder is characterized by the failure of muscles to relax following a forceful contraction?
- A) Myotonic muscular dystrophy
- B) Myasthenia gravis
- C) Tendinitis
- D) Fibromyalgia
- Answer: A
24. What type of muscle contraction does not develop an oxygen debt?
- A) Skeletal muscle contraction
- B) Cardiac muscle contraction
- C) Smooth muscle contraction
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
25. What type of drugs are used to treat myasthenia gravis?
- A) Anti-inflammatory drugs
- B) Immunosuppressive drugs
- C) Anti-cholinesterase drugs
- D) Muscle relaxants
- Answer: C
26. What is the term for inflammation of tendon attachment points?
- A) Tendinitis
- B) Myasthenia gravis
- C) Myotonic muscular dystrophy
- D) Fibromyalgia
- Answer: A
27. What is the name for a broad, sheet-like tendon?
- A) Fascia
- B) Retinaculum
- C) Aponeurosis
- D) Epimysium
- Answer: C
28. What does the term "striated" refer to in muscle tissue?
- A) Muscle fibers are spindle-shaped
- B) Muscle fibers have transverse bands
- C) Muscle fibers are connected by gap junctions
- D) Muscle fibers contract slowly
- Answer: B
29. What type of muscle fibers are organized into sarcomeres?
- A) Cardiac muscle
- B) Smooth muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) Both A and C
- Answer: D
30. What muscle characteristic allows it to respond to a stimulus?
- A) Contractility
- B) Excitability
- C) Extensibility
- D) Elasticity
- Answer: B
31. What is the term for the ability of skeletal muscle to shorten with force?
- A) Extensibility
- B) Elasticity
- C) Contractility
- D) Excitability
- Answer: C
32. Which muscle type is responsible for peristalsis in the digestive tract?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
33. Which type of muscle contraction can lead to hypertrophy?
- A) Involuntary contraction
- B) Voluntary contraction
- C) Cardiac contraction
- D) Smooth muscle contraction
- Answer: B
34. What is the connective tissue surrounding individual muscle fibers called?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Perimysium
- C) Endomysium
- D) Sarcolemma
- Answer: C
35. What structure is involved in muscle contraction and is composed of actin and myosin?
- A) Sarcomere
- B) Myofibril
- C) Myofilament
- D) All of the above
- Answer: D
36. Which muscle is the agonist in elbow extension?
- A) Biceps brachii
- B) Triceps brachii
- C) Deltoid
- D) Pectoralis major
- Answer: B
37. What term describes the decrease in muscle size due to a decrease in myofilaments within muscle fibers?
- A) Hypertrophy
- B) Atrophy
- C) Fibromyalgia
- D) Myasthenia gravis
- Answer: B
38. Which structure in cardiac muscle cells allows for action potential conduction between cells?
- A) Sarcomere
- B) Myofibril
- C) Intercalated disks
- D) Z disk
- Answer: C
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of smooth muscle cells?
- A) Spindle-shaped
- B) Striated
- C) One nucleus per cell
- D) Less actin and myosin than skeletal muscle
- Answer: B
40. Which type of muscle is involved in all aspects of communication, such as speaking and writing?
- A) Cardiac muscle
- B) Smooth muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
41. What is the term for the connective tissue that surrounds a muscle fascicle?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Perimysium
- C) Endomysium
- D) Sarcolemma
- Answer: B
42. Which muscle type is influenced by hormones such as epinephrine?
- A) Smooth muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) Both A and B
- Answer: D
43. Which of the following conditions involves chronic muscle pain syndrome?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Fibromyalgia
- C) Myotonic muscular dystrophy
- D) Tendinitis
- Answer: B
44. What type of connective tissue holds down tendons at each wrist and ankle?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Retinaculum
- C) Aponeurosis
- D) Perimysium
- Answer: B
45. What is the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber called?
- A) Sarcolemma
- B) Sarcoplasm
- C) Myoplasm
- D) Myofibril
- Answer: B
46. Which of the following conditions is characterized by muscle atrophy due to nerve damage or casting?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Fibromyalgia
- C) Hypertrophy
- D) Atrophy
- Answer: D
47. What is the term for the band of connective tissue that holds down tendons at the wrist and ankle?
- A) Fascia
- B) Retinaculum
- C) Aponeurosis
- D) Tendon
- Answer: B
48. What type of muscle fibers are not organized into sarcomeres?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
49. What is the condition called when the muscle has no tone due to severed nerve supply?
- A) Flaccid
- B) Hypertrophy
- C) Atrophy
- D) Fibromyalgia
- Answer: A
50. Which structure is attached to the Z disk?
- A) Actin myofilaments
- B) Myosin myofilaments
- C) Troponin
- D) Tropomyosin
- Answer: A
51. What term describes a muscle that accomplishes a certain movement?
- A) Agonist
- B) Antagonist
- C) Synergist
- D) Prime mover
- Answer: A
52. Which type of muscle contraction is under involuntary control?
- A) Skeletal muscle contraction
- B) Smooth muscle contraction
- C) Cardiac muscle contraction
- D) Both B and C
- Answer: D
53. What is the main characteristic of myasthenia gravis?
- A) Muscle hypertrophy
- B) Muscle atrophy
- C) Destruction of acetylcholine receptors
- D) Inflammation of tendons
- Answer: C
54. What muscle characteristic allows it to be stretched to its normal resting length and beyond?
- A) Contractility
- B) Excitability
- C) Extensibility
- D) Elasticity
- Answer: C
55. What is the smallest functional unit of skeletal muscle capable of contracting?
- A) Myofibril
- B) Sarcomere
- C) Myofilament
- D) Sarcolemma
- Answer: B
56. Which muscle type is responsible for maintaining posture?
- A) Smooth muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
57. Which of the following structures is composed of actin and myosin myofilaments?
- A) Sarcomere
- B) Myofibril
- C) Muscle fiber
- D) All of the above
- Answer: D
58. Which condition involves chronic progressive autoimmune disease affecting acetylcholine receptors?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Myotonic muscular dystrophy
- C) Fibromyalgia
- D) Tendinitis
- Answer: A
59. What type of muscle is involved in heart contraction?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Smooth muscle
- C) Cardiac muscle
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
60. Which structure forms an attachment site for actin myofilaments?
- A) Myosin myofilaments
- B) Sarcomere
- C) Z disk
- D) Troponin
- Answer: C
61. What is the term for the muscle attachment point that undergoes the greatest movement?
- A) Origin
- B) Insertion
- C) Belly
- D) Aponeurosis
- Answer: B
62. What characteristic of cardiac muscle allows it to function as a unit?
- A) Sarcomeres
- B) Striations
- C) Intercalated disks
- D) Spindle shape
- Answer: C
63. Which of the following describes a muscle that acts in opposition to an agonist?
- A) Agonist
- B) Synergist
- C) Antagonist
- D) Prime mover
- Answer: C
64. What is the connective tissue surrounding a muscle fascicle called?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Perimysium
- C) Endomysium
- D) Sarcolemma
- Answer: B
65. What condition results from the buildup of lactic acid causing muscle pain?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Tendinitis
- C) Cramps
- D) Fibromyalgia
- Answer: C
66. What term describes a muscle that accomplishes the same movement as the agonist?
- A) Agonist
- B) Synergist
- C) Antagonist
- D) Prime mover
- Answer: B
67. Which muscle type has a single nucleus per cell and is under involuntary control?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) Both B and C
- Answer: D
68. What structure contains numerous myofibrils within the sarcoplasm?
- A) Sarcomere
- B) Muscle fiber
- C) Myofilament
- D) Z disk
- Answer: B
69. Which of the following is a result of an increase in the number of myofibrils within muscle fibers?
- A) Atrophy
- B) Hypertrophy
- C) Fibromyalgia
- D) Myasthenia gravis
- Answer: B
70. What is the primary role of the respiratory muscles?
- A) Body movement
- B) Maintenance of posture
- C) Respiration
- D) Production of body heat
- Answer: C
71. Which structure facilitates action potential conduction between cardiac muscle cells?
- A) Z disk
- B) Myofibril
- C) Intercalated disks
- D) Sarcomere
- Answer: C
72. Which condition involves chronic muscle pain that is widespread in muscles and muscle-tendon junctions?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Myotonic muscular dystrophy
- C) Fibromyalgia
- D) Tendinitis
- Answer: C
73. What is the connective tissue that surrounds each skeletal muscle called?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Perimysium
- C) Endomysium
- D) Sarcolemma
- Answer: A
74. Which muscle characteristic allows it to respond to a stimulus?
- A)
Contractility
- B) Excitability
- C) Extensibility
- D) Elasticity
- Answer: B
75. What is the role of the muscle fasciculi in skeletal muscle?
- A) Surrounds each muscle fiber
- B) Contains several muscle cells
- C) Contains numerous myofibrils
- D) Forms the sarcomere
- Answer: B
Certainly! Here's a multiple-choice exam with 75 questions covering the content provided:
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### Multiple Choice Exam: Digestive System
#### 1. Introduction to the Digestive System
1. What two systems collaborate to deliver nutrients to body cells?
- A) Nervous and endocrine systems
- B) Circulatory and respiratory systems
- C) Digestive and circulatory systems
- D) Skeletal and muscular systems
- Answer: C
#### 2. Functions of the Digestive System
2. Which function is NOT performed by the digestive system?
- A) Absorbing digested molecules
- B) Breaking down food
- C) Eliminating wastes
- D) Producing red blood cells
- Answer: D
3. Through which part of the body is food taken in?
- A) Mouth
- B) Nose
- C) Ears
- D) Eyes
- Answer: A
4. The process of breaking down food into smaller molecules is called:
- A) Absorption
- B) Digestion
- C) Elimination
- D) Circulation
- Answer: B
#### 3. Anatomy and Histology of the Digestive System
5. The digestive tract is a tube extending from the ___ to the ___.
- A) Mouth, anus
- B) Nose, throat
- C) Ears, eyes
- D) Lungs, heart
- Answer: A
6. The term "gastrointestinal tract" technically refers to:
- A) The entire digestive tract
- B) Only the mouth and esophagus
- C) Only the stomach and intestines
- D) The liver and pancreas
- Answer: C
7. Which layer of the digestive tract contains blood vessels and nerves?
- A) Mucosa
- B) Submucosa
- C) Muscularis
- D) Serosa
- Answer: B
#### 4. Peritoneum
8. The serous membrane that covers the organs is called:
- A) Parietal peritoneum
- B) Visceral peritoneum
- C) Adventitia
- D) Mesentery
- Answer: B
9. The connective tissue sheet that attaches the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is called:
- A) Greater omentum
- B) Lesser omentum
- C) Mesentery proper
- D) Serosa
- Answer: C
#### 5. Anatomy of the Oral Cavity
10. The lips are formed mostly by which muscle?
- A) Buccinator muscle
- B) Orbicularis oris muscle
- C) Masseter muscle
- D) Temporalis muscle
- Answer: B
11. Which part of the tooth contains blood vessels and nerves?
- A) Enamel
- B) Dentin
- C) Pulp cavity
- D) Cementum
- Answer: C
12. How many teeth are there in a normal adult mouth?
- A) 20
- B) 28
- C) 32
- D) 36
- Answer: C
13. The roof of the oral cavity consists of:
- A) Hard palate and soft palate
- B) Uvula and tonsils
- C) Teeth and tongue
- D) Lips and cheeks
- Answer: A
#### 6. Salivary Glands
14. Which is the largest of the salivary glands?
- A) Sublingual gland
- B) Submandibular gland
- C) Parotid gland
- D) Buccal gland
- Answer: C
15. Which salivary gland produces primarily mucous secretions?
- A) Parotid gland
- B) Submandibular gland
- C) Sublingual gland
- D) Submaxillary gland
- Answer: C
#### 7. Pharynx and Esophagus
16. The pharynx connects the mouth to the:
- A) Stomach
- B) Esophagus
- C) Small intestine
- D) Large intestine
- Answer: B
17. The lower esophageal sphincter is also known as:
- A) Pyloric sphincter
- B) Cardiac sphincter
- C) Duodenal sphincter
- D) Rectal sphincter
- Answer: B
#### 8. Anatomy of the Stomach
18. The most superior part of the stomach is the:
- A) Body
- B) Fundus
- C) Cardiac region
- D) Pyloric region
- Answer: B
19. The opening from the stomach into the small intestine is called:
- A) Cardiac opening
- B) Pyloric opening
- C) Fundic opening
- D) Gastric opening
- Answer: B
#### 9. Anatomy of the Small Intestine
20. The small intestine is approximately how long?
- A) 3 meters
- B) 4 meters
- C) 5 meters
- D) 6 meters
- Answer: D
21. The duodenum is approximately how long?
- A) 12 cm
- B) 25 cm
- C) 50 cm
- D) 1 meter
- Answer: B
22. The three parts of the small intestine, in order, are:
- A) Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
- B) Jejunum, duodenum, ileum
- C) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
- D) Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
- Answer: C
#### 10. Anatomy of the Liver
23. The liver is located in which quadrant of the abdomen?
- A) Right upper quadrant
- B) Left upper quadrant
- C) Right lower quadrant
- D) Left lower quadrant
- Answer: A
24. The liver is divided into how many lobes?
- A) 2
- B) 3
- C) 4
- D) 5
- Answer: C
#### 11. Anatomy of the Pancreas
25. The pancreas is located:
- A) Anterior to the stomach
- B) Posterior to the stomach
- C) Below the liver
- D) Above the liver
- Answer: B
26. The endocrine part of the pancreas produces:
- A) Digestive enzymes
- B) Insulin and glucagon
- C) Bile
- D) Saliva
- Answer: B
#### 12. Anatomy of the Large Intestine
27. The cecum is located in which quadrant of the abdomen?
- A) Right upper quadrant
- B) Left upper quadrant
- C) Right lower quadrant
- D) Left lower quadrant
- Answer: C
28. The ascending colon extends from the cecum to the:
- A) Left colic flexure
- B) Right colic flexure
- C) Transverse colon
- D) Sigmoid colon
- Answer: B
29. The rectum begins at the termination of the:
- A) Cecum
- B) Transverse colon
- C) Descending colon
- D) Sigmoid colon
- Answer: D
#### 13. Accessory Glands and Functions
30. Which gland produces bile?
- A) Liver
- B) Pancreas
- C) Parotid gland
- D) Submandibular gland
- Answer: A
31. Which part of the digestive system is primarily responsible for water absorption?
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine
- C) Large intestine
- D) Esophagus
- Answer: C
32. Which structure prevents food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing?
- A) Uvula
- B) Epiglottis
- C) Tonsils
- D) Tongue
- Answer: A
#### 14. Histological Layers
33. The innermost layer of the digestive tract is the:
- A) Muscularis
- B) Submucosa
- C) Serosa
- D) Mucosa
- Answer: D
34. Which layer contains the circular and longitudinal smooth muscle layers?
- A) Mucosa
- B) Submucosa
- C) Muscularis
- D) Serosa
- Answer: C
#### 15. Peritoneal Structures
35. The mesentery connecting the greater curvature of the stomach to the
transverse colon is called:
- A) Greater omentum
- B) Lesser omentum
- C) Mesentery proper
- D) Falciform ligament
- Answer: A
36. The peritoneal cavity is located:
- A) Between the parietal and visceral peritoneum
- B) Inside the digestive tract
- C) Outside the abdominal cavity
- D) Inside the liver
- Answer: A
#### 16. Digestive Enzymes and Hormones
37. Which enzyme is responsible for the digestion of proteins in the stomach?
- A) Amylase
- B) Lipase
- C) Pepsin
- D) Trypsin
- Answer: C
38. The hormone that stimulates the release of gastric juices is:
- A) Secretin
- B) Cholecystokinin
- C) Gastrin
- D) Insulin
- Answer: C
#### 17. Absorption and Digestion
39. Most nutrient absorption occurs in the:
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine
- C) Large intestine
- D) Esophagus
- Answer: B
40. The primary function of bile is to:
- A) Digest carbohydrates
- B) Emulsify fats
- C) Neutralize stomach acid
- D) Digest proteins
- Answer: B
41. The brush border enzymes are found in the:
- A) Stomach
- B) Large intestine
- C) Small intestine
- D) Liver
- Answer: C
#### 18. Digestive Disorders
42. An inflammation of the liver is known as:
- A) Hepatitis
- B) Gastritis
- C) Colitis
- D) Pancreatitis
- Answer: A
43. The condition characterized by the presence of gallstones is called:
- A) Cholecystitis
- B) Cholelithiasis
- C) Hepatitis
- D) Gastritis
- Answer: B
#### 19. Miscellaneous
44. The structure that prevents the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus is the:
- A) Pyloric sphincter
- B) Cardiac sphincter
- C) Ileocecal valve
- D) Anal sphincter
- Answer: B
45. The term for difficulty swallowing is:
- A) Dysphagia
- B) Dyspepsia
- C) Dyspnea
- D) Dysuria
- Answer: A
46. Which part of the digestive tract is primarily responsible for the fermentation of undigested food?
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine
- C) Large intestine
- D) Esophagus
- Answer: C
47. The hormone responsible for stimulating the pancreas to release bicarbonate is:
- A) Gastrin
- B) Secretin
- C) Cholecystokinin
- D) Insulin
- Answer: B
#### 20. Pathophysiology
48. Which condition is characterized by the inflammation of the pancreas?
- A) Hepatitis
- B) Gastritis
- C) Pancreatitis
- D) Colitis
- Answer: C
49. The absence of hydrochloric acid in gastric secretions is known as:
- A) Achlorhydria
- B) Dyspepsia
- C) Hyperchlorhydria
- D) Gastritis
- Answer: A
#### 21. Developmental Aspects
50. The initial development of the digestive system begins during which week of embryonic development?
- A) 1st week
- B) 2nd week
- C) 3rd week
- D) 4th week
- Answer: C
51. The primary function of the yolk sac in early development is to:
- A) Provide nutrients
- B) Produce bile
- C) Secrete digestive enzymes
- D) Absorb water
- Answer: A
#### 22. Control of the Digestive System
52. The enteric nervous system is sometimes referred to as the:
- A) Central nervous system
- B) Autonomic nervous system
- C) Second brain
- D) Peripheral nervous system
- Answer: C
53. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the enteric nervous system?
- A) Acetylcholine
- B) Dopamine
- C) Serotonin
- D) Norepinephrine
- Answer: A
#### 23. Digestion and Metabolism
54. The primary site for lipid digestion is:
- A) Mouth
- B) Stomach
- C) Small intestine
- D) Large intestine
- Answer: C
55. Amylase breaks down:
- A) Proteins
- B) Fats
- C) Carbohydrates
- D) Nucleic acids
- Answer: C
#### 24. Nutrient Absorption
56. Which vitamin is primarily absorbed in the ileum?
- A) Vitamin A
- B) Vitamin D
- C) Vitamin B12
- D) Vitamin C
- Answer: C
57. The large intestine absorbs mainly:
- A) Proteins
- B) Carbohydrates
- C) Fats
- D) Water and electrolytes
- Answer: D
#### 25. Clinical Conditions
58. The condition where part of the stomach pushes through the diaphragm is called:
- A) Hiatal hernia
- B) Inguinal hernia
- C) Umbilical hernia
- D) Epigastric hernia
- Answer: A
59. The term for a chronic inflammatory disease of the intestines is:
- A) Ulcerative colitis
- B) Irritable bowel syndrome
- C) Diverticulitis
- D) Crohn's disease
- Answer: D
#### 26. Miscellaneous
60. The main component of bile is:
- A) Bilirubin
- B) Bile salts
- C) Cholesterol
- D) Electrolytes
- Answer: B
61. Which structure stores bile?
- A) Liver
- B) Gallbladder
- C) Pancreas
- D) Small intestine
- Answer: B
62. Which enzyme is found in saliva and starts the digestion of starches?
- A) Pepsin
- B) Trypsin
- C) Amylase
- D) Lipase
- Answer: C
63. The term for the rhythmic contractions that move food through the digestive tract is:
- A) Digestion
- B) Absorption
- C) Peristalsis
- D) Secretion
- Answer: C
#### 27. Histological Aspects
64. Peyer's patches are found in the:
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine
- C) Large intestine
- D) Esophagus
- Answer: B
65. The outermost layer of the digestive tract is called the:
- A) Mucosa
- B) Submucosa
- C) Muscularis
- D) Serosa
- Answer: D
#### 28. Nutritional Physiology
66. Which macronutrient provides the most energy per gram?
- A) Carbohydrates
- B) Proteins
- C) Fats
- D) Vitamins
- Answer: C
67. The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the:
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine
- C) Large intestine
- D) Esophagus
- Answer: B
68. The essential nutrient required for building and repairing tissues is:
- A) Carbohydrates
- B) Proteins
- C) Fats
- D) Vitamins
- Answer: B
#### 29. Hormonal Regulation
69. The hormone responsible for stimulating the gallbladder to release bile is:
- A) Gastrin
- B) Secretin
- C) Cholecystokinin
- D) Insulin
- Answer: C
70. Which hormone increases blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to release glucose?
- A) Insulin
- B) Glucagon
- C) Gastrin
- D) Secretin
- Answer: B
#### 30. Developmental Physiology
71. During which trimester does the digestive system start to function in a fetus?
- A) First trimester
- B) Second trimester
- C) Third trimester
- D)
Postnatal period
- Answer: C
72. The enzyme produced by the pancreas that breaks down proteins is:
- A) Amylase
- B) Lipase
- C) Trypsin
- D) Pepsin
- Answer: C
Sure, here is a multiple-choice exam covering all the content provided:
### Multiple Choice Exam: Respiratory System
#### Introduction to Respiration
Here is a 75-item multiple-choice exam covering the content of the respiratory system, based on the provided document.
---
### Multiple Choice Questions
1. What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
- a) Digest food
- b) Produce hormones
- c) Exchange gases
- d) Protect against pathogens
- Answer: c) Exchange gases
2. Which structure is the main passageway for air into the respiratory system?
- a) Trachea
- b) Esophagus
- c) Larynx
- d) Bronchi
- Answer: a) Trachea
3. The alveoli are important for:
- a) Producing sound
- b) Gas exchange
- c) Filtering air
- d) Humidifying air
- Answer: b) Gas exchange
4. The diaphragm plays a crucial role in:
- a) Digestive processes
- b) Circulatory system
- c) Breathing
- d) Nervous system regulation
- Answer: c) Breathing
5. Which disease is characterized by the inflammation of the bronchi?
- a) Asthma
- b) Pneumonia
- c) Tuberculosis
- d) Bronchitis
- Answer: d) Bronchitis
6. What is the primary cause of tuberculosis?
- a) Virus
- b) Fungus
- c) Bacteria
- d) Parasite
- Answer: c) Bacteria
7. The respiratory system helps regulate:
- a) Blood sugar levels
- b) Blood pH
- c) Hormone levels
- d) Body temperature
- Answer: b) Blood pH
8. Which part of the respiratory system is commonly known as the windpipe?
- a) Bronchi
- b) Pharynx
- c) Trachea
- d) Larynx
- Answer: c) Trachea
9. The larynx is also known as the:
- a) Voice box
- b) Throat
- c) Windpipe
- d) Food pipe
- Answer: a) Voice box
10. Pneumonia primarily affects the:
- a) Bronchi
- b) Alveoli
- c) Trachea
- d) Larynx
- Answer: b) Alveoli
11. The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
- a) Respiration
- b) Ventilation
- c) Circulation
- d) Diffusion
- Answer: b) Ventilation
12. The upper respiratory tract includes all except:
- a) Nose
- b) Pharynx
- c) Larynx
- d) Trachea
- Answer: d) Trachea
13. Gas exchange occurs in the:
- a) Bronchi
- b) Trachea
- c) Alveoli
- d) Bronchioles
- Answer: c) Alveoli
14. The flap that covers the trachea during swallowing is called the:
- a) Uvula
- b) Epiglottis
- c) Larynx
- d) Glottis
- Answer: b) Epiglottis
15. Which respiratory disease is characterized by the destruction of alveolar walls?
- a) Asthma
- b) Emphysema
- c) Bronchitis
- d) Pneumonia
- Answer: b) Emphysema
16. The term "tidal volume" refers to:
- a) The total volume of air in the lungs
- b) The volume of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath
- c) The volume of air left in the lungs after exhalation
- d) The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled
- Answer: b) The volume of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath
17. The primary muscle involved in respiration is the:
- a) Intercostal muscle
- b) Diaphragm
- c) Abdominal muscle
- d) Pectoral muscle
- Answer: b) Diaphragm
18. Asthma is primarily a disorder of the:
- a) Alveoli
- b) Trachea
- c) Bronchi
- d) Diaphragm
- Answer: c) Bronchi
19. The respiratory center is located in the:
- a) Cerebrum
- b) Medulla oblongata
- c) Cerebellum
- d) Pons
- Answer: b) Medulla oblongata
20. Hemoglobin in red blood cells is important for:
- a) Transporting nutrients
- b) Transporting gases
- c) Fighting infections
- d) Clotting blood
- Answer: b) Transporting gases
21. The pleura is a:
- a) Muscle involved in breathing
- b) Membrane surrounding the lungs
- c) Section of the throat
- d) Type of lung cell
- Answer: b) Membrane surrounding the lungs
22. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes:
- a) Tuberculosis and pneumonia
- b) Asthma and bronchitis
- c) Emphysema and chronic bronchitis
- d) Asthma and emphysema
- Answer: c) Emphysema and chronic bronchitis
23. The main function of the nasal cavity is:
- a) Gas exchange
- b) Filtering, warming, and humidifying air
- c) Producing sound
- d) Transporting food
- Answer: b) Filtering, warming, and humidifying air
24. Which gas is the primary driver for breathing?
- a) Oxygen
- b) Nitrogen
- c) Carbon dioxide
- d) Helium
- Answer: c) Carbon dioxide
25. Which structure prevents food from entering the respiratory tract?
- a) Epiglottis
- b) Glottis
- c) Pharynx
- d) Larynx
- Answer: a) Epiglottis
26. Surfactant is important for:
- a) Oxygen transport
- b) Reducing surface tension in the alveoli
- c) Immune defense
- d) Carbon dioxide transport
- Answer: b) Reducing surface tension in the alveoli
27. Respiratory distress syndrome is common in:
- a) Adults
- b) Elderly
- c) Infants
- d) Adolescents
- Answer: c) Infants
28. Oxygenated blood returns to the heart via the:
- a) Pulmonary arteries
- b) Pulmonary veins
- c) Aorta
- d) Superior vena cava
- Answer: b) Pulmonary veins
29. The inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is:
- a) The amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation
- b) The amount of air inhaled during a normal breath
- c) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after exhalation
- d) The total volume of air that can be exhaled
- Answer: a) The amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation
30. Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs because CO binds to:
- a) White blood cells
- b) Platelets
- c) Hemoglobin
- d) Plasma
- Answer: c) Hemoglobin
31. The pharynx is part of both the respiratory and:
- a) Circulatory system
- b) Digestive system
- c) Nervous system
- d) Endocrine system
- Answer: b) Digestive system
32. In which part of the respiratory system does the voice production occur?
- a) Larynx
- b) Trachea
- c) Bronchi
- d) Pharynx
- Answer: a) Larynx
33. Which type of tissue forms the walls of the alveoli?
- a) Stratified squamous epithelium
- b) Simple squamous epithelium
- c) Cuboidal epithelium
- d) Columnar epithelium
- Answer: b) Simple squamous epithelium
34. What role do the cilia in the respiratory tract play?
- a) Producing mucus
- b) Warming the air
- c) Sweeping mucus and debris out of the lungs
- d) Engulfing pathogens
- Answer: c) Sweeping mucus and debris out of the lungs
35. The primary site of gas exchange in the lungs is the:
- a) Bronchi
-
b) Alveoli
- c) Bronchioles
- d) Pleura
- Answer: b) Alveoli
36. The condition characterized by inflamed, narrow airways is:
- a) Asthma
- b) Pneumonia
- c) Tuberculosis
- d) Emphysema
- Answer: a) Asthma
37. Which structure connects the larynx to the bronchi?
- a) Pharynx
- b) Trachea
- c) Esophagus
- d) Alveoli
- Answer: b) Trachea
38. The term "vital capacity" refers to:
- a) The total volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inhalation
- b) The volume of air in the lungs after a normal exhalation
- c) The amount of air left in the lungs after maximal exhalation
- d) The volume of air inhaled during a normal breath
- Answer: a) The total volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inhalation
39. Which part of the brain controls the basic rhythm of breathing?
- a) Hypothalamus
- b) Medulla oblongata
- c) Cerebellum
- d) Thalamus
- Answer: b) Medulla oblongata
40. The main gas carried by hemoglobin in red blood cells is:
- a) Nitrogen
- b) Oxygen
- c) Carbon dioxide
- d) Helium
- Answer: b) Oxygen
41. What is the function of the Eustachian tube in the respiratory system?
- a) Connects the nasal cavity to the pharynx
- b) Equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere
- c) Connects the pharynx to the larynx
- d) Filters particles from the air
- Answer: b) Equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere
42. Which structure prevents collapse of the trachea?
- a) Smooth muscle
- b) Cartilage rings
- c) Cilia
- d) Pleura
- Answer: b) Cartilage rings
43. Which respiratory volume is the amount of air left in the lungs after maximal exhalation?
- a) Tidal volume
- b) Residual volume
- c) Inspiratory reserve volume
- d) Expiratory reserve volume
- Answer: b) Residual volume
44. Which lung disease is known for the thickening and scarring of lung tissue?
- a) Pneumonia
- b) Asthma
- c) Pulmonary fibrosis
- d) Emphysema
- Answer: c) Pulmonary fibrosis
45. The primary cause of lung cancer is:
- a) Genetic factors
- b) Smoking
- c) Air pollution
- d) Bacterial infection
- Answer: b) Smoking
46. The respiratory membrane consists of:
- a) The alveolar and capillary walls
- b) The pleura and diaphragm
- c) The trachea and bronchi
- d) The nasal cavity and pharynx
- Answer: a) The alveolar and capillary walls
47. The exchange of gases between the blood and tissues is called:
- a) External respiration
- b) Internal respiration
- c) Pulmonary ventilation
- d) Cellular respiration
- Answer: b) Internal respiration
48. The main component of the air we breathe is:
- a) Oxygen
- b) Carbon dioxide
- c) Nitrogen
- d) Hydrogen
- Answer: c) Nitrogen
49. The condition in which fluid accumulates in the alveoli is known as:
- a) Asthma
- b) Pneumonia
- c) Pulmonary edema
- d) Tuberculosis
- Answer: c) Pulmonary edema
50. The nasal conchae function to:
- a) Filter particles from the air
- b) Increase the surface area of the nasal cavity
- c) Produce mucus
- d) Protect the lungs from pathogens
- Answer: b) Increase the surface area of the nasal cavity
51. What is the role of the intercostal muscles in breathing?
- a) Assist the diaphragm in expanding the thoracic cavity
- b) Transport oxygen in the blood
- c) Produce surfactant
- d) Filter air entering the respiratory system
- Answer: a) Assist the diaphragm in expanding the thoracic cavity
52. The condition of low oxygen levels in the blood is called:
- a) Hypercapnia
- b) Hypoxia
- c) Hyperventilation
- d) Hypocapnia
- Answer: b) Hypoxia
53. The respiratory system helps eliminate:
- a) Oxygen
- b) Nitrogen
- c) Carbon dioxide
- d) Glucose
- Answer: c) Carbon dioxide
54. The opening between the vocal cords is called the:
- a) Epiglottis
- b) Glottis
- c) Larynx
- d) Trachea
- Answer: b) Glottis
55. Which structure serves as the common passageway for both air and food?
- a) Larynx
- b) Pharynx
- c) Trachea
- d) Esophagus
- Answer: b) Pharynx
56. The role of mucus in the respiratory system is to:
- a) Humidify the air
- b) Filter particles and pathogens
- c) Support gas exchange
- d) Produce surfactant
- Answer: b) Filter particles and pathogens
57. The condition characterized by an excessive buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood is:
- a) Hypocapnia
- b) Hypercapnia
- c) Hypoxia
- d) Hyperventilation
- Answer: b) Hypercapnia
58. Which disease is known for causing the alveoli to become large and merge together?
- a) Pneumonia
- b) Tuberculosis
- c) Emphysema
- d) Bronchitis
- Answer: c) Emphysema
59. The respiratory rate is controlled by the:
- a) Cerebellum
- b) Medulla oblongata
- c) Hypothalamus
- d) Cerebrum
- Answer: b) Medulla oblongata
60. Which gas is most important in regulating the respiratory rate?
- a) Oxygen
- b) Nitrogen
- c) Carbon dioxide
- d) Hydrogen
- Answer: c) Carbon dioxide
61. Which structure serves as the primary site for the warming and humidifying of inhaled air?
- a) Trachea
- b) Nasal cavity
- c) Bronchi
- d) Alveoli
- Answer: b) Nasal cavity
62. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by:
- a) Alveolar macrophages
- b) Type II alveolar cells
- c) Type I alveolar cells
- d) Bronchial glands
- Answer: b) Type II alveolar cells
63. Which condition is characterized by episodes of severe difficulty in breathing, coughing, and wheezing?
- a) Tuberculosis
- b) Asthma
- c) Bronchitis
- d) Emphysema
- Answer: b) Asthma
64. The most common bacterial cause of pneumonia is:
- a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
- c) Haemophilus influenzae
- d) Legionella pneumophila
- Answer: b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
65. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the atmosphere and body cells is termed:
- a) Internal respiration
- b) External respiration
- c) Cellular respiration
- d) Pulmonary ventilation
- Answer: b) External respiration
66. The normal breathing rate for a healthy adult at rest is:
- a) 8-10 breaths per minute
- b) 12-20 breaths per minute
- c) 20-30 breaths per minute
- d) 30-40 breaths per minute
- Answer: b) 12-20 breaths per minute
67. The term "anoxia" refers to:
- a) High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood
- b) Low levels of oxygen in the blood
- c) Absence of oxygen supply to the tissues
- d) Excessive oxygen in the tissues
- Answer: c) Absence of oxygen supply to the tissues
### Multiple Choice Exam: Urinary System
#### Functions of the Urinary System
1. Which of the following is the major excretory organ of the body?
- a) Liver
- b) Lungs
- c) Kidneys
- d) Intestines
- Answer: c) Kidneys
2. What role do the kidneys play in regulating blood volume and pressure?
- a) By producing hormones
- b) By excreting glucose
- c) By producing varying volumes of urine
- d) By digesting food
- Answer: c) By producing varying volumes of urine
3. Which ions do the kidneys help regulate in the blood?
- a) Glucose, Na+, Cl¯, K+, Ca2+, and HPO4
- b) Oxygen, CO2, Nitrogen
- c) Proteins, Carbohydrates, Lipids
- d) Iron, Magnesium, Zinc
- Answer: a) Glucose, Na+, Cl¯, K+, Ca2+, and HPO4
4. How do the kidneys regulate extracellular fluid pH?
- a) By secreting H+
- b) By absorbing Na+
- c) By excreting glucose
- d) By producing vitamin D
- Answer: a) By secreting H+
5. What hormone do the kidneys secrete to regulate red blood cell synthesis?
- a) Insulin
- b) Erythropoietin
- c) Adrenaline
- d) Thyroxine
- Answer: b) Erythropoietin
6. How do the kidneys contribute to vitamin D synthesis?
- a) By regulating calcium levels
- b) By producing erythropoietin
- c) By excreting waste products
- d) By regulating blood pressure
- Answer: a) By regulating calcium levels
#### Anatomy of the Urinary System
7. What shape are the kidneys?
- a) Circular
- b) Oval
- c) Bean-shaped
- d) Square
- Answer: c) Bean-shaped
8. Where are the kidneys located?
- a) In front of the peritoneum
- b) Behind the peritoneum
- c) In the thoracic cavity
- d) In the pelvic cavity
- Answer: b) Behind the peritoneum
9. What surrounds each kidney?
- a) Renal capsule
- b) Layer of muscle
- c) Renal artery
- d) Ureter
- Answer: a) Renal capsule
10. What is the function of the fat layer around the kidneys?
- a) To store energy
- b) To protect from mechanical shock
- c) To aid in blood filtration
- d) To produce hormones
- Answer: b) To protect from mechanical shock
11. What is the hilum?
- a) The outer layer of the kidney
- b) The cavity inside the kidney
- c) The entry and exit point for blood vessels and nerves
- d) The urine-collecting structure
- Answer: c) The entry and exit point for blood vessels and nerves
12. What structures are contained in the renal sinus?
- a) Nephrons
- b) Blood vessels, urine collection system, fat
- c) Renal corpuscles
- d) Ureters
- Answer: b) Blood vessels, urine collection system, fat
13. What two parts is the kidney divided into?
- a) Cortex and medulla
- b) Hilum and sinus
- c) Capsule and pelvis
- d) Calyx and ureter
- Answer: a) Cortex and medulla
14. What is a calyx?
- a) Part of the nephron
- b) Funnel-shaped structure surrounding renal pyramid tips
- c) Blood vessel in the kidney
- d) Nerve ending in the kidney
- Answer: b) Funnel-shaped structure surrounding renal pyramid tips
15. What is the renal pelvis?
- a) The area where urine is initially formed
- b) The cavity where blood vessels are located
- c) The funnel-shaped structure that narrows to form the ureter
- d) The fat layer surrounding the kidney
- Answer: c) The funnel-shaped structure that narrows to form the ureter
16. What is the functional unit of the kidney?
- a) Nephron
- b) Glomerulus
- c) Ureter
- d) Bowman's capsule
- Answer: a) Nephron
17. How many nephrons are in each kidney?
- a) 100,000
- b) 500,000
- c) 1.3 million
- d) 2 million
- Answer: c) 1.3 million
18. What structures make up a nephron?
- a) Renal corpuscle, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule
- b) Renal artery, renal vein, ureter
- c) Renal capsule, renal sinus, renal pelvis
- d) Calyx, medulla, cortex
- Answer: a) Renal corpuscle, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule
19. Where does fluid enter the nephron?
- a) Proximal tubule
- b) Loop of Henle
- c) Distal tubule
- d) Renal corpuscle
- Answer: d) Renal corpuscle
20. What is the path of fluid through the nephron?
- a) Proximal tubule → loop of Henle → distal tubule → collecting duct
- b) Distal tubule → loop of Henle → proximal tubule → collecting duct
- c) Loop of Henle → proximal tubule → renal corpuscle → collecting duct
- d) Collecting duct → proximal tubule → loop of Henle → distal tubule
- Answer: a) Proximal tubule → loop of Henle → distal tubule → collecting duct
21. What percentage of nephrons are juxtamedullary?
- a) 10%
- b) 15%
- c) 50%
- d) 85%
- Answer: b) 15%
22. What are the other 85% of nephrons called?
- a) Medullary nephrons
- b) Cortical nephrons
- c) Renal nephrons
- d) Pelvic nephrons
- Answer: b) Cortical nephrons
23. What are the components of the renal corpuscle?
- a) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
- b) Proximal tubule and distal tubule
- c) Loop of Henle and collecting duct
- d) Renal artery and renal vein
- Answer: a) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
24. What cells are found in the inner layer of Bowman's capsule?
- a) Erythrocytes
- b) Neurons
- c) Podocytes
- d) Fibroblasts
- Answer: c) Podocytes
#### Ureters, Urinary Bladder, and Urethra
25. What do the ureters do?
- a) Store urine
- b) Carry urine from kidneys to bladder
- c) Filter blood
- d) Produce hormones
- Answer: b) Carry urine from kidneys to bladder
26. Where is the urinary bladder located?
- a) In the abdominal cavity
- b) Behind the peritoneum
- c) In the pelvic cavity
- d) In the thoracic cavity
- Answer: c) In the pelvic cavity
27. What is the function of the urinary bladder?
- a) To produce urine
- b) To store urine
- c) To filter blood
- d) To secrete hormones
- Answer: b) To store urine
28. What is the maximum volume of urine the bladder can hold?
- a) 500 mL
- b) 750 mL
- c) 1000 mL
- d) 1500 mL
- Answer: c) 1000 mL
29. Where does the urethra carry urine?
- a) From the kidneys to the bladder
- b) From the bladder to the outside of the body
- c) From the kidneys to the outside of the body
- d) From the ureters to the kidneys
- Answer: b) From the bladder to the outside of the body
30. What is the trigone?
- a) The portion of the bladder located between the openings of the ureters and urethra
- b) The inner layer of Bowman's capsule
- c) The functional unit of the kidney
- d) The structure that surrounds the renal pyramid tips
- **Answer: a) The
portion of the bladder located between the openings of the ureters and urethra**
31. What controls the flow of urine through the urethra in males?
- a) Renal corpuscle
- b) Proximal tubule
- c) Internal urinary sphincter
- d) Podocytes
- Answer: c) Internal urinary sphincter
32. What is the main difference in the urethra between males and females?
- a) The male urethra is shorter than the female urethra
- b) The female urethra is longer than the male urethra
- c) The male urethra extends through the penis, while the female urethra is shorter and opens into the vestibule
- d) There is no difference
- Answer: c) The male urethra extends through the penis, while the female urethra is shorter and opens into the vestibule
#### Urine Production
33. What are the main components of urine?
- a) Water, organic waste products, and excess ions
- b) Blood cells, proteins, and lipids
- c) Hormones, enzymes, and glucose
- d) Vitamins, minerals, and amino acids
- Answer: a) Water, organic waste products, and excess ions
34. What are the three critical processes in the formation of urine?
- a) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
- b) Absorption, digestion, excretion
- c) Circulation, respiration, perspiration
- d) Synthesis, degradation, elimination
- Answer: a) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
35. What is filtration?
- a) Movement of substances from the blood into the nephron
- b) Movement of substances from the nephron back into the blood
- c) Transport of waste products across the wall of the nephron
- d) Production of erythropoietin
- Answer: a) Movement of substances from the blood into the nephron
36. What is reabsorption?
- a) Movement of substances from the nephron into the blood
- b) Movement of waste products across the wall of the nephron
- c) Filtration of blood into the nephron
- d) Production of urine
- Answer: a) Movement of substances from the nephron into the blood
37. What is secretion?
- a) Movement of water and ions into Bowman's capsule
- b) Transport of substances from the interstitial fluid into the nephron
- c) Movement of proteins into the nephron
- d) Reabsorption of useful substances from the filtrate
- Answer: b) Transport of substances from the interstitial fluid into the nephron
38. What is the filtrate?
- a) Blood plasma that enters the nephron
- b) Substances reabsorbed into the blood
- c) Waste products in the urine
- d) Hormones produced by the kidneys
- Answer: a) Blood plasma that enters the nephron
39. What happens during tubular reabsorption?
- a) Filtrate is produced
- b) Substances are reabsorbed from the filtrate into the blood
- c) Waste products are secreted into the nephron
- d) Urine is eliminated from the body
- Answer: b) Substances are reabsorbed from the filtrate into the blood
40. What by-product is produced when proteins are metabolized?
- a) Urea
- b) Creatinine
- c) Uric acid
- d) Ammonia
- Answer: d) Ammonia
41. How is ammonia converted into a less toxic substance?
- a) By the kidneys
- b) By the liver
- c) By the stomach
- d) By the intestines
- Answer: b) By the liver
42. What is tubular secretion responsible for?
- a) Producing urine
- b) Reabsorbing useful substances
- c) Transporting waste products into the nephron
- d) Converting ammonia into urea
- Answer: c) Transporting waste products into the nephron
#### Urine Movement
43. What activates the micturition reflex?
- a) Blood pressure
- b) Stretch of the bladder wall
- c) Filtration in the nephron
- d) Hormonal signals
- Answer: b) Stretch of the bladder wall
44. What happens when the bladder fills with urine?
- a) Pressure decreases
- b) Stretch receptors in the bladder wall are stimulated
- c) Urine production stops
- d) The kidneys stop filtering blood
- Answer: b) Stretch receptors in the bladder wall are stimulated
45. Where are action potentials conducted from the bladder?
- a) To the brain
- b) To the spinal cord
- c) To the liver
- d) To the intestines
- Answer: b) To the spinal cord
46. What do parasympathetic action potentials cause?
- a) Relaxation of the bladder
- b) Contraction of the bladder
- c) Filtration in the nephron
- d) Reabsorption in the nephron
- Answer: b) Contraction of the bladder
47. What happens to the external urinary sphincter during the micturition reflex?
- a) It contracts
- b) It relaxes
- c) It becomes tighter
- d) It secretes urine
- Answer: b) It relaxes
#### Additional Questions
Sure! Here is a 75-item multiple-choice exam covering the content provided, with answers included:
1. What is the most abundant tissue in the body?
- A) Connective tissue
- B) Muscle tissue
- C) Nervous tissue
- D) Epithelial tissue
- Answer: B
2. Which muscle type is responsible for voluntary movement?
- A) Cardiac muscle
- B) Smooth muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
3. Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system?
- A) Body movement
- B) Maintenance of posture
- C) Production of blood cells
- D) Respiration
- Answer: C
4. What type of muscle is responsible for the heart beating?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Smooth muscle
- C) Cardiac muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
5. What is the connective tissue sheath surrounding each skeletal muscle called?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Perimysium
- C) Endomysium
- D) Sarcomere
- Answer: A
6. Which structure is the basic functional unit of skeletal muscle?
- A) Myofibril
- B) Sarcomere
- C) Myosin
- D) Actin
- Answer: B
7. What characteristic allows skeletal muscle to return to its original resting length after being stretched?
- A) Contractility
- B) Excitability
- C) Extensibility
- D) Elasticity
- Answer: D
8. What type of contraction causes heat production in the body?
- A) Cardiac muscle contraction
- B) Smooth muscle contraction
- C) Skeletal muscle contraction
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
9. Which type of muscle contraction is involved in propelling food in the digestive tract?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
10. Where are intercalated disks found?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: B
11. What structure extends from one Z disk to another Z disk?
- A) Myofibril
- B) Sarcomere
- C) Myosin
- D) Actin
- Answer: B
12. Which molecule provides a calcium binding site on actin myofilaments?
- A) Tropomyosin
- B) Troponin
- C) Myosin
- D) Actin
- Answer: B
13. What is the term for the most stationary end of a muscle?
- A) Origin
- B) Insertion
- C) Belly
- D) Aponeurosis
- Answer: A
14. Which muscle type is under voluntary control?
- A) Smooth muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
15. What type of muscle has gap junctions to allow action potentials to spread?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
16. Which type of muscle has striations but is not as distinctly striated as skeletal muscle?
- A) Smooth muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: B
17. What is the function of the retinaculum?
- A) Attaching muscle to bone
- B) Holding down tendons at the wrist and ankle
- C) Connecting muscle fibers
- D) Providing a calcium binding site
- Answer: B
18. What term describes a muscle acting in opposition to an agonist?
- A) Agonist
- B) Synergist
- C) Antagonist
- D) Prime mover
- Answer: C
19. Which muscle flexes the elbow?
- A) Triceps brachii
- B) Biceps brachii
- C) Deltoid
- D) Pectoralis major
- Answer: B
20. What condition is characterized by painful, spastic contractions of muscle?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Tendinitis
- C) Cramps
- D) Fibromyalgia
- Answer: C
21. What is the main symptom of fibromyalgia?
- A) Muscle weakness
- B) Muscle pain
- C) Muscle atrophy
- D) Muscle hypertrophy
- Answer: B
22. What is the result of an increase in the number of myofibrils within muscle fibers?
- A) Muscle atrophy
- B) Muscle hypertrophy
- C) Muscle relaxation
- D) Muscle spasm
- Answer: B
23. What disorder is characterized by the failure of muscles to relax following a forceful contraction?
- A) Myotonic muscular dystrophy
- B) Myasthenia gravis
- C) Tendinitis
- D) Fibromyalgia
- Answer: A
24. What type of muscle contraction does not develop an oxygen debt?
- A) Skeletal muscle contraction
- B) Cardiac muscle contraction
- C) Smooth muscle contraction
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
25. What type of drugs are used to treat myasthenia gravis?
- A) Anti-inflammatory drugs
- B) Immunosuppressive drugs
- C) Anti-cholinesterase drugs
- D) Muscle relaxants
- Answer: C
26. What is the term for inflammation of tendon attachment points?
- A) Tendinitis
- B) Myasthenia gravis
- C) Myotonic muscular dystrophy
- D) Fibromyalgia
- Answer: A
27. What is the name for a broad, sheet-like tendon?
- A) Fascia
- B) Retinaculum
- C) Aponeurosis
- D) Epimysium
- Answer: C
28. What does the term "striated" refer to in muscle tissue?
- A) Muscle fibers are spindle-shaped
- B) Muscle fibers have transverse bands
- C) Muscle fibers are connected by gap junctions
- D) Muscle fibers contract slowly
- Answer: B
29. What type of muscle fibers are organized into sarcomeres?
- A) Cardiac muscle
- B) Smooth muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) Both A and C
- Answer: D
30. What muscle characteristic allows it to respond to a stimulus?
- A) Contractility
- B) Excitability
- C) Extensibility
- D) Elasticity
- Answer: B
31. What is the term for the ability of skeletal muscle to shorten with force?
- A) Extensibility
- B) Elasticity
- C) Contractility
- D) Excitability
- Answer: C
32. Which muscle type is responsible for peristalsis in the digestive tract?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
33. Which type of muscle contraction can lead to hypertrophy?
- A) Involuntary contraction
- B) Voluntary contraction
- C) Cardiac contraction
- D) Smooth muscle contraction
- Answer: B
34. What is the connective tissue surrounding individual muscle fibers called?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Perimysium
- C) Endomysium
- D) Sarcolemma
- Answer: C
35. What structure is involved in muscle contraction and is composed of actin and myosin?
- A) Sarcomere
- B) Myofibril
- C) Myofilament
- D) All of the above
- Answer: D
36. Which muscle is the agonist in elbow extension?
- A) Biceps brachii
- B) Triceps brachii
- C) Deltoid
- D) Pectoralis major
- Answer: B
37. What term describes the decrease in muscle size due to a decrease in myofilaments within muscle fibers?
- A) Hypertrophy
- B) Atrophy
- C) Fibromyalgia
- D) Myasthenia gravis
- Answer: B
38. Which structure in cardiac muscle cells allows for action potential conduction between cells?
- A) Sarcomere
- B) Myofibril
- C) Intercalated disks
- D) Z disk
- Answer: C
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of smooth muscle cells?
- A) Spindle-shaped
- B) Striated
- C) One nucleus per cell
- D) Less actin and myosin than skeletal muscle
- Answer: B
40. Which type of muscle is involved in all aspects of communication, such as speaking and writing?
- A) Cardiac muscle
- B) Smooth muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
41. What is the term for the connective tissue that surrounds a muscle fascicle?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Perimysium
- C) Endomysium
- D) Sarcolemma
- Answer: B
42. Which muscle type is influenced by hormones such as epinephrine?
- A) Smooth muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) Both A and B
- Answer: D
43. Which of the following conditions involves chronic muscle pain syndrome?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Fibromyalgia
- C) Myotonic muscular dystrophy
- D) Tendinitis
- Answer: B
44. What type of connective tissue holds down tendons at each wrist and ankle?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Retinaculum
- C) Aponeurosis
- D) Perimysium
- Answer: B
45. What is the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber called?
- A) Sarcolemma
- B) Sarcoplasm
- C) Myoplasm
- D) Myofibril
- Answer: B
46. Which of the following conditions is characterized by muscle atrophy due to nerve damage or casting?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Fibromyalgia
- C) Hypertrophy
- D) Atrophy
- Answer: D
47. What is the term for the band of connective tissue that holds down tendons at the wrist and ankle?
- A) Fascia
- B) Retinaculum
- C) Aponeurosis
- D) Tendon
- Answer: B
48. What type of muscle fibers are not organized into sarcomeres?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
49. What is the condition called when the muscle has no tone due to severed nerve supply?
- A) Flaccid
- B) Hypertrophy
- C) Atrophy
- D) Fibromyalgia
- Answer: A
50. Which structure is attached to the Z disk?
- A) Actin myofilaments
- B) Myosin myofilaments
- C) Troponin
- D) Tropomyosin
- Answer: A
51. What term describes a muscle that accomplishes a certain movement?
- A) Agonist
- B) Antagonist
- C) Synergist
- D) Prime mover
- Answer: A
52. Which type of muscle contraction is under involuntary control?
- A) Skeletal muscle contraction
- B) Smooth muscle contraction
- C) Cardiac muscle contraction
- D) Both B and C
- Answer: D
53. What is the main characteristic of myasthenia gravis?
- A) Muscle hypertrophy
- B) Muscle atrophy
- C) Destruction of acetylcholine receptors
- D) Inflammation of tendons
- Answer: C
54. What muscle characteristic allows it to be stretched to its normal resting length and beyond?
- A) Contractility
- B) Excitability
- C) Extensibility
- D) Elasticity
- Answer: C
55. What is the smallest functional unit of skeletal muscle capable of contracting?
- A) Myofibril
- B) Sarcomere
- C) Myofilament
- D) Sarcolemma
- Answer: B
56. Which muscle type is responsible for maintaining posture?
- A) Smooth muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) All of the above
- Answer: C
57. Which of the following structures is composed of actin and myosin myofilaments?
- A) Sarcomere
- B) Myofibril
- C) Muscle fiber
- D) All of the above
- Answer: D
58. Which condition involves chronic progressive autoimmune disease affecting acetylcholine receptors?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Myotonic muscular dystrophy
- C) Fibromyalgia
- D) Tendinitis
- Answer: A
59. What type of muscle is involved in heart contraction?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Smooth muscle
- C) Cardiac muscle
- D) None of the above
- Answer: C
60. Which structure forms an attachment site for actin myofilaments?
- A) Myosin myofilaments
- B) Sarcomere
- C) Z disk
- D) Troponin
- Answer: C
61. What is the term for the muscle attachment point that undergoes the greatest movement?
- A) Origin
- B) Insertion
- C) Belly
- D) Aponeurosis
- Answer: B
62. What characteristic of cardiac muscle allows it to function as a unit?
- A) Sarcomeres
- B) Striations
- C) Intercalated disks
- D) Spindle shape
- Answer: C
63. Which of the following describes a muscle that acts in opposition to an agonist?
- A) Agonist
- B) Synergist
- C) Antagonist
- D) Prime mover
- Answer: C
64. What is the connective tissue surrounding a muscle fascicle called?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Perimysium
- C) Endomysium
- D) Sarcolemma
- Answer: B
65. What condition results from the buildup of lactic acid causing muscle pain?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Tendinitis
- C) Cramps
- D) Fibromyalgia
- Answer: C
66. What term describes a muscle that accomplishes the same movement as the agonist?
- A) Agonist
- B) Synergist
- C) Antagonist
- D) Prime mover
- Answer: B
67. Which muscle type has a single nucleus per cell and is under involuntary control?
- A) Skeletal muscle
- B) Cardiac muscle
- C) Smooth muscle
- D) Both B and C
- Answer: D
68. What structure contains numerous myofibrils within the sarcoplasm?
- A) Sarcomere
- B) Muscle fiber
- C) Myofilament
- D) Z disk
- Answer: B
69. Which of the following is a result of an increase in the number of myofibrils within muscle fibers?
- A) Atrophy
- B) Hypertrophy
- C) Fibromyalgia
- D) Myasthenia gravis
- Answer: B
70. What is the primary role of the respiratory muscles?
- A) Body movement
- B) Maintenance of posture
- C) Respiration
- D) Production of body heat
- Answer: C
71. Which structure facilitates action potential conduction between cardiac muscle cells?
- A) Z disk
- B) Myofibril
- C) Intercalated disks
- D) Sarcomere
- Answer: C
72. Which condition involves chronic muscle pain that is widespread in muscles and muscle-tendon junctions?
- A) Myasthenia gravis
- B) Myotonic muscular dystrophy
- C) Fibromyalgia
- D) Tendinitis
- Answer: C
73. What is the connective tissue that surrounds each skeletal muscle called?
- A) Epimysium
- B) Perimysium
- C) Endomysium
- D) Sarcolemma
- Answer: A
74. Which muscle characteristic allows it to respond to a stimulus?
- A)
Contractility
- B) Excitability
- C) Extensibility
- D) Elasticity
- Answer: B
75. What is the role of the muscle fasciculi in skeletal muscle?
- A) Surrounds each muscle fiber
- B) Contains several muscle cells
- C) Contains numerous myofibrils
- D) Forms the sarcomere
- Answer: B
Certainly! Here's a multiple-choice exam with 75 questions covering the content provided:
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### Multiple Choice Exam: Digestive System
#### 1. Introduction to the Digestive System
1. What two systems collaborate to deliver nutrients to body cells?
- A) Nervous and endocrine systems
- B) Circulatory and respiratory systems
- C) Digestive and circulatory systems
- D) Skeletal and muscular systems
- Answer: C
#### 2. Functions of the Digestive System
2. Which function is NOT performed by the digestive system?
- A) Absorbing digested molecules
- B) Breaking down food
- C) Eliminating wastes
- D) Producing red blood cells
- Answer: D
3. Through which part of the body is food taken in?
- A) Mouth
- B) Nose
- C) Ears
- D) Eyes
- Answer: A
4. The process of breaking down food into smaller molecules is called:
- A) Absorption
- B) Digestion
- C) Elimination
- D) Circulation
- Answer: B
#### 3. Anatomy and Histology of the Digestive System
5. The digestive tract is a tube extending from the ___ to the ___.
- A) Mouth, anus
- B) Nose, throat
- C) Ears, eyes
- D) Lungs, heart
- Answer: A
6. The term "gastrointestinal tract" technically refers to:
- A) The entire digestive tract
- B) Only the mouth and esophagus
- C) Only the stomach and intestines
- D) The liver and pancreas
- Answer: C
7. Which layer of the digestive tract contains blood vessels and nerves?
- A) Mucosa
- B) Submucosa
- C) Muscularis
- D) Serosa
- Answer: B
#### 4. Peritoneum
8. The serous membrane that covers the organs is called:
- A) Parietal peritoneum
- B) Visceral peritoneum
- C) Adventitia
- D) Mesentery
- Answer: B
9. The connective tissue sheet that attaches the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is called:
- A) Greater omentum
- B) Lesser omentum
- C) Mesentery proper
- D) Serosa
- Answer: C
#### 5. Anatomy of the Oral Cavity
10. The lips are formed mostly by which muscle?
- A) Buccinator muscle
- B) Orbicularis oris muscle
- C) Masseter muscle
- D) Temporalis muscle
- Answer: B
11. Which part of the tooth contains blood vessels and nerves?
- A) Enamel
- B) Dentin
- C) Pulp cavity
- D) Cementum
- Answer: C
12. How many teeth are there in a normal adult mouth?
- A) 20
- B) 28
- C) 32
- D) 36
- Answer: C
13. The roof of the oral cavity consists of:
- A) Hard palate and soft palate
- B) Uvula and tonsils
- C) Teeth and tongue
- D) Lips and cheeks
- Answer: A
#### 6. Salivary Glands
14. Which is the largest of the salivary glands?
- A) Sublingual gland
- B) Submandibular gland
- C) Parotid gland
- D) Buccal gland
- Answer: C
15. Which salivary gland produces primarily mucous secretions?
- A) Parotid gland
- B) Submandibular gland
- C) Sublingual gland
- D) Submaxillary gland
- Answer: C
#### 7. Pharynx and Esophagus
16. The pharynx connects the mouth to the:
- A) Stomach
- B) Esophagus
- C) Small intestine
- D) Large intestine
- Answer: B
17. The lower esophageal sphincter is also known as:
- A) Pyloric sphincter
- B) Cardiac sphincter
- C) Duodenal sphincter
- D) Rectal sphincter
- Answer: B
#### 8. Anatomy of the Stomach
18. The most superior part of the stomach is the:
- A) Body
- B) Fundus
- C) Cardiac region
- D) Pyloric region
- Answer: B
19. The opening from the stomach into the small intestine is called:
- A) Cardiac opening
- B) Pyloric opening
- C) Fundic opening
- D) Gastric opening
- Answer: B
#### 9. Anatomy of the Small Intestine
20. The small intestine is approximately how long?
- A) 3 meters
- B) 4 meters
- C) 5 meters
- D) 6 meters
- Answer: D
21. The duodenum is approximately how long?
- A) 12 cm
- B) 25 cm
- C) 50 cm
- D) 1 meter
- Answer: B
22. The three parts of the small intestine, in order, are:
- A) Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
- B) Jejunum, duodenum, ileum
- C) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
- D) Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
- Answer: C
#### 10. Anatomy of the Liver
23. The liver is located in which quadrant of the abdomen?
- A) Right upper quadrant
- B) Left upper quadrant
- C) Right lower quadrant
- D) Left lower quadrant
- Answer: A
24. The liver is divided into how many lobes?
- A) 2
- B) 3
- C) 4
- D) 5
- Answer: C
#### 11. Anatomy of the Pancreas
25. The pancreas is located:
- A) Anterior to the stomach
- B) Posterior to the stomach
- C) Below the liver
- D) Above the liver
- Answer: B
26. The endocrine part of the pancreas produces:
- A) Digestive enzymes
- B) Insulin and glucagon
- C) Bile
- D) Saliva
- Answer: B
#### 12. Anatomy of the Large Intestine
27. The cecum is located in which quadrant of the abdomen?
- A) Right upper quadrant
- B) Left upper quadrant
- C) Right lower quadrant
- D) Left lower quadrant
- Answer: C
28. The ascending colon extends from the cecum to the:
- A) Left colic flexure
- B) Right colic flexure
- C) Transverse colon
- D) Sigmoid colon
- Answer: B
29. The rectum begins at the termination of the:
- A) Cecum
- B) Transverse colon
- C) Descending colon
- D) Sigmoid colon
- Answer: D
#### 13. Accessory Glands and Functions
30. Which gland produces bile?
- A) Liver
- B) Pancreas
- C) Parotid gland
- D) Submandibular gland
- Answer: A
31. Which part of the digestive system is primarily responsible for water absorption?
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine
- C) Large intestine
- D) Esophagus
- Answer: C
32. Which structure prevents food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing?
- A) Uvula
- B) Epiglottis
- C) Tonsils
- D) Tongue
- Answer: A
#### 14. Histological Layers
33. The innermost layer of the digestive tract is the:
- A) Muscularis
- B) Submucosa
- C) Serosa
- D) Mucosa
- Answer: D
34. Which layer contains the circular and longitudinal smooth muscle layers?
- A) Mucosa
- B) Submucosa
- C) Muscularis
- D) Serosa
- Answer: C
#### 15. Peritoneal Structures
35. The mesentery connecting the greater curvature of the stomach to the
transverse colon is called:
- A) Greater omentum
- B) Lesser omentum
- C) Mesentery proper
- D) Falciform ligament
- Answer: A
36. The peritoneal cavity is located:
- A) Between the parietal and visceral peritoneum
- B) Inside the digestive tract
- C) Outside the abdominal cavity
- D) Inside the liver
- Answer: A
#### 16. Digestive Enzymes and Hormones
37. Which enzyme is responsible for the digestion of proteins in the stomach?
- A) Amylase
- B) Lipase
- C) Pepsin
- D) Trypsin
- Answer: C
38. The hormone that stimulates the release of gastric juices is:
- A) Secretin
- B) Cholecystokinin
- C) Gastrin
- D) Insulin
- Answer: C
#### 17. Absorption and Digestion
39. Most nutrient absorption occurs in the:
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine
- C) Large intestine
- D) Esophagus
- Answer: B
40. The primary function of bile is to:
- A) Digest carbohydrates
- B) Emulsify fats
- C) Neutralize stomach acid
- D) Digest proteins
- Answer: B
41. The brush border enzymes are found in the:
- A) Stomach
- B) Large intestine
- C) Small intestine
- D) Liver
- Answer: C
#### 18. Digestive Disorders
42. An inflammation of the liver is known as:
- A) Hepatitis
- B) Gastritis
- C) Colitis
- D) Pancreatitis
- Answer: A
43. The condition characterized by the presence of gallstones is called:
- A) Cholecystitis
- B) Cholelithiasis
- C) Hepatitis
- D) Gastritis
- Answer: B
#### 19. Miscellaneous
44. The structure that prevents the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus is the:
- A) Pyloric sphincter
- B) Cardiac sphincter
- C) Ileocecal valve
- D) Anal sphincter
- Answer: B
45. The term for difficulty swallowing is:
- A) Dysphagia
- B) Dyspepsia
- C) Dyspnea
- D) Dysuria
- Answer: A
46. Which part of the digestive tract is primarily responsible for the fermentation of undigested food?
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine
- C) Large intestine
- D) Esophagus
- Answer: C
47. The hormone responsible for stimulating the pancreas to release bicarbonate is:
- A) Gastrin
- B) Secretin
- C) Cholecystokinin
- D) Insulin
- Answer: B
#### 20. Pathophysiology
48. Which condition is characterized by the inflammation of the pancreas?
- A) Hepatitis
- B) Gastritis
- C) Pancreatitis
- D) Colitis
- Answer: C
49. The absence of hydrochloric acid in gastric secretions is known as:
- A) Achlorhydria
- B) Dyspepsia
- C) Hyperchlorhydria
- D) Gastritis
- Answer: A
#### 21. Developmental Aspects
50. The initial development of the digestive system begins during which week of embryonic development?
- A) 1st week
- B) 2nd week
- C) 3rd week
- D) 4th week
- Answer: C
51. The primary function of the yolk sac in early development is to:
- A) Provide nutrients
- B) Produce bile
- C) Secrete digestive enzymes
- D) Absorb water
- Answer: A
#### 22. Control of the Digestive System
52. The enteric nervous system is sometimes referred to as the:
- A) Central nervous system
- B) Autonomic nervous system
- C) Second brain
- D) Peripheral nervous system
- Answer: C
53. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the enteric nervous system?
- A) Acetylcholine
- B) Dopamine
- C) Serotonin
- D) Norepinephrine
- Answer: A
#### 23. Digestion and Metabolism
54. The primary site for lipid digestion is:
- A) Mouth
- B) Stomach
- C) Small intestine
- D) Large intestine
- Answer: C
55. Amylase breaks down:
- A) Proteins
- B) Fats
- C) Carbohydrates
- D) Nucleic acids
- Answer: C
#### 24. Nutrient Absorption
56. Which vitamin is primarily absorbed in the ileum?
- A) Vitamin A
- B) Vitamin D
- C) Vitamin B12
- D) Vitamin C
- Answer: C
57. The large intestine absorbs mainly:
- A) Proteins
- B) Carbohydrates
- C) Fats
- D) Water and electrolytes
- Answer: D
#### 25. Clinical Conditions
58. The condition where part of the stomach pushes through the diaphragm is called:
- A) Hiatal hernia
- B) Inguinal hernia
- C) Umbilical hernia
- D) Epigastric hernia
- Answer: A
59. The term for a chronic inflammatory disease of the intestines is:
- A) Ulcerative colitis
- B) Irritable bowel syndrome
- C) Diverticulitis
- D) Crohn's disease
- Answer: D
#### 26. Miscellaneous
60. The main component of bile is:
- A) Bilirubin
- B) Bile salts
- C) Cholesterol
- D) Electrolytes
- Answer: B
61. Which structure stores bile?
- A) Liver
- B) Gallbladder
- C) Pancreas
- D) Small intestine
- Answer: B
62. Which enzyme is found in saliva and starts the digestion of starches?
- A) Pepsin
- B) Trypsin
- C) Amylase
- D) Lipase
- Answer: C
63. The term for the rhythmic contractions that move food through the digestive tract is:
- A) Digestion
- B) Absorption
- C) Peristalsis
- D) Secretion
- Answer: C
#### 27. Histological Aspects
64. Peyer's patches are found in the:
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine
- C) Large intestine
- D) Esophagus
- Answer: B
65. The outermost layer of the digestive tract is called the:
- A) Mucosa
- B) Submucosa
- C) Muscularis
- D) Serosa
- Answer: D
#### 28. Nutritional Physiology
66. Which macronutrient provides the most energy per gram?
- A) Carbohydrates
- B) Proteins
- C) Fats
- D) Vitamins
- Answer: C
67. The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the:
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine
- C) Large intestine
- D) Esophagus
- Answer: B
68. The essential nutrient required for building and repairing tissues is:
- A) Carbohydrates
- B) Proteins
- C) Fats
- D) Vitamins
- Answer: B
#### 29. Hormonal Regulation
69. The hormone responsible for stimulating the gallbladder to release bile is:
- A) Gastrin
- B) Secretin
- C) Cholecystokinin
- D) Insulin
- Answer: C
70. Which hormone increases blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to release glucose?
- A) Insulin
- B) Glucagon
- C) Gastrin
- D) Secretin
- Answer: B
#### 30. Developmental Physiology
71. During which trimester does the digestive system start to function in a fetus?
- A) First trimester
- B) Second trimester
- C) Third trimester
- D)
Postnatal period
- Answer: C
72. The enzyme produced by the pancreas that breaks down proteins is:
- A) Amylase
- B) Lipase
- C) Trypsin
- D) Pepsin
- Answer: C
Sure, here is a multiple-choice exam covering all the content provided:
### Multiple Choice Exam: Respiratory System
#### Introduction to Respiration
Here is a 75-item multiple-choice exam covering the content of the respiratory system, based on the provided document.
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### Multiple Choice Questions
1. What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
- a) Digest food
- b) Produce hormones
- c) Exchange gases
- d) Protect against pathogens
- Answer: c) Exchange gases
2. Which structure is the main passageway for air into the respiratory system?
- a) Trachea
- b) Esophagus
- c) Larynx
- d) Bronchi
- Answer: a) Trachea
3. The alveoli are important for:
- a) Producing sound
- b) Gas exchange
- c) Filtering air
- d) Humidifying air
- Answer: b) Gas exchange
4. The diaphragm plays a crucial role in:
- a) Digestive processes
- b) Circulatory system
- c) Breathing
- d) Nervous system regulation
- Answer: c) Breathing
5. Which disease is characterized by the inflammation of the bronchi?
- a) Asthma
- b) Pneumonia
- c) Tuberculosis
- d) Bronchitis
- Answer: d) Bronchitis
6. What is the primary cause of tuberculosis?
- a) Virus
- b) Fungus
- c) Bacteria
- d) Parasite
- Answer: c) Bacteria
7. The respiratory system helps regulate:
- a) Blood sugar levels
- b) Blood pH
- c) Hormone levels
- d) Body temperature
- Answer: b) Blood pH
8. Which part of the respiratory system is commonly known as the windpipe?
- a) Bronchi
- b) Pharynx
- c) Trachea
- d) Larynx
- Answer: c) Trachea
9. The larynx is also known as the:
- a) Voice box
- b) Throat
- c) Windpipe
- d) Food pipe
- Answer: a) Voice box
10. Pneumonia primarily affects the:
- a) Bronchi
- b) Alveoli
- c) Trachea
- d) Larynx
- Answer: b) Alveoli
11. The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
- a) Respiration
- b) Ventilation
- c) Circulation
- d) Diffusion
- Answer: b) Ventilation
12. The upper respiratory tract includes all except:
- a) Nose
- b) Pharynx
- c) Larynx
- d) Trachea
- Answer: d) Trachea
13. Gas exchange occurs in the:
- a) Bronchi
- b) Trachea
- c) Alveoli
- d) Bronchioles
- Answer: c) Alveoli
14. The flap that covers the trachea during swallowing is called the:
- a) Uvula
- b) Epiglottis
- c) Larynx
- d) Glottis
- Answer: b) Epiglottis
15. Which respiratory disease is characterized by the destruction of alveolar walls?
- a) Asthma
- b) Emphysema
- c) Bronchitis
- d) Pneumonia
- Answer: b) Emphysema
16. The term "tidal volume" refers to:
- a) The total volume of air in the lungs
- b) The volume of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath
- c) The volume of air left in the lungs after exhalation
- d) The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled
- Answer: b) The volume of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath
17. The primary muscle involved in respiration is the:
- a) Intercostal muscle
- b) Diaphragm
- c) Abdominal muscle
- d) Pectoral muscle
- Answer: b) Diaphragm
18. Asthma is primarily a disorder of the:
- a) Alveoli
- b) Trachea
- c) Bronchi
- d) Diaphragm
- Answer: c) Bronchi
19. The respiratory center is located in the:
- a) Cerebrum
- b) Medulla oblongata
- c) Cerebellum
- d) Pons
- Answer: b) Medulla oblongata
20. Hemoglobin in red blood cells is important for:
- a) Transporting nutrients
- b) Transporting gases
- c) Fighting infections
- d) Clotting blood
- Answer: b) Transporting gases
21. The pleura is a:
- a) Muscle involved in breathing
- b) Membrane surrounding the lungs
- c) Section of the throat
- d) Type of lung cell
- Answer: b) Membrane surrounding the lungs
22. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes:
- a) Tuberculosis and pneumonia
- b) Asthma and bronchitis
- c) Emphysema and chronic bronchitis
- d) Asthma and emphysema
- Answer: c) Emphysema and chronic bronchitis
23. The main function of the nasal cavity is:
- a) Gas exchange
- b) Filtering, warming, and humidifying air
- c) Producing sound
- d) Transporting food
- Answer: b) Filtering, warming, and humidifying air
24. Which gas is the primary driver for breathing?
- a) Oxygen
- b) Nitrogen
- c) Carbon dioxide
- d) Helium
- Answer: c) Carbon dioxide
25. Which structure prevents food from entering the respiratory tract?
- a) Epiglottis
- b) Glottis
- c) Pharynx
- d) Larynx
- Answer: a) Epiglottis
26. Surfactant is important for:
- a) Oxygen transport
- b) Reducing surface tension in the alveoli
- c) Immune defense
- d) Carbon dioxide transport
- Answer: b) Reducing surface tension in the alveoli
27. Respiratory distress syndrome is common in:
- a) Adults
- b) Elderly
- c) Infants
- d) Adolescents
- Answer: c) Infants
28. Oxygenated blood returns to the heart via the:
- a) Pulmonary arteries
- b) Pulmonary veins
- c) Aorta
- d) Superior vena cava
- Answer: b) Pulmonary veins
29. The inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is:
- a) The amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation
- b) The amount of air inhaled during a normal breath
- c) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after exhalation
- d) The total volume of air that can be exhaled
- Answer: a) The amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation
30. Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs because CO binds to:
- a) White blood cells
- b) Platelets
- c) Hemoglobin
- d) Plasma
- Answer: c) Hemoglobin
31. The pharynx is part of both the respiratory and:
- a) Circulatory system
- b) Digestive system
- c) Nervous system
- d) Endocrine system
- Answer: b) Digestive system
32. In which part of the respiratory system does the voice production occur?
- a) Larynx
- b) Trachea
- c) Bronchi
- d) Pharynx
- Answer: a) Larynx
33. Which type of tissue forms the walls of the alveoli?
- a) Stratified squamous epithelium
- b) Simple squamous epithelium
- c) Cuboidal epithelium
- d) Columnar epithelium
- Answer: b) Simple squamous epithelium
34. What role do the cilia in the respiratory tract play?
- a) Producing mucus
- b) Warming the air
- c) Sweeping mucus and debris out of the lungs
- d) Engulfing pathogens
- Answer: c) Sweeping mucus and debris out of the lungs
35. The primary site of gas exchange in the lungs is the:
- a) Bronchi
-
b) Alveoli
- c) Bronchioles
- d) Pleura
- Answer: b) Alveoli
36. The condition characterized by inflamed, narrow airways is:
- a) Asthma
- b) Pneumonia
- c) Tuberculosis
- d) Emphysema
- Answer: a) Asthma
37. Which structure connects the larynx to the bronchi?
- a) Pharynx
- b) Trachea
- c) Esophagus
- d) Alveoli
- Answer: b) Trachea
38. The term "vital capacity" refers to:
- a) The total volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inhalation
- b) The volume of air in the lungs after a normal exhalation
- c) The amount of air left in the lungs after maximal exhalation
- d) The volume of air inhaled during a normal breath
- Answer: a) The total volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inhalation
39. Which part of the brain controls the basic rhythm of breathing?
- a) Hypothalamus
- b) Medulla oblongata
- c) Cerebellum
- d) Thalamus
- Answer: b) Medulla oblongata
40. The main gas carried by hemoglobin in red blood cells is:
- a) Nitrogen
- b) Oxygen
- c) Carbon dioxide
- d) Helium
- Answer: b) Oxygen
41. What is the function of the Eustachian tube in the respiratory system?
- a) Connects the nasal cavity to the pharynx
- b) Equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere
- c) Connects the pharynx to the larynx
- d) Filters particles from the air
- Answer: b) Equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere
42. Which structure prevents collapse of the trachea?
- a) Smooth muscle
- b) Cartilage rings
- c) Cilia
- d) Pleura
- Answer: b) Cartilage rings
43. Which respiratory volume is the amount of air left in the lungs after maximal exhalation?
- a) Tidal volume
- b) Residual volume
- c) Inspiratory reserve volume
- d) Expiratory reserve volume
- Answer: b) Residual volume
44. Which lung disease is known for the thickening and scarring of lung tissue?
- a) Pneumonia
- b) Asthma
- c) Pulmonary fibrosis
- d) Emphysema
- Answer: c) Pulmonary fibrosis
45. The primary cause of lung cancer is:
- a) Genetic factors
- b) Smoking
- c) Air pollution
- d) Bacterial infection
- Answer: b) Smoking
46. The respiratory membrane consists of:
- a) The alveolar and capillary walls
- b) The pleura and diaphragm
- c) The trachea and bronchi
- d) The nasal cavity and pharynx
- Answer: a) The alveolar and capillary walls
47. The exchange of gases between the blood and tissues is called:
- a) External respiration
- b) Internal respiration
- c) Pulmonary ventilation
- d) Cellular respiration
- Answer: b) Internal respiration
48. The main component of the air we breathe is:
- a) Oxygen
- b) Carbon dioxide
- c) Nitrogen
- d) Hydrogen
- Answer: c) Nitrogen
49. The condition in which fluid accumulates in the alveoli is known as:
- a) Asthma
- b) Pneumonia
- c) Pulmonary edema
- d) Tuberculosis
- Answer: c) Pulmonary edema
50. The nasal conchae function to:
- a) Filter particles from the air
- b) Increase the surface area of the nasal cavity
- c) Produce mucus
- d) Protect the lungs from pathogens
- Answer: b) Increase the surface area of the nasal cavity
51. What is the role of the intercostal muscles in breathing?
- a) Assist the diaphragm in expanding the thoracic cavity
- b) Transport oxygen in the blood
- c) Produce surfactant
- d) Filter air entering the respiratory system
- Answer: a) Assist the diaphragm in expanding the thoracic cavity
52. The condition of low oxygen levels in the blood is called:
- a) Hypercapnia
- b) Hypoxia
- c) Hyperventilation
- d) Hypocapnia
- Answer: b) Hypoxia
53. The respiratory system helps eliminate:
- a) Oxygen
- b) Nitrogen
- c) Carbon dioxide
- d) Glucose
- Answer: c) Carbon dioxide
54. The opening between the vocal cords is called the:
- a) Epiglottis
- b) Glottis
- c) Larynx
- d) Trachea
- Answer: b) Glottis
55. Which structure serves as the common passageway for both air and food?
- a) Larynx
- b) Pharynx
- c) Trachea
- d) Esophagus
- Answer: b) Pharynx
56. The role of mucus in the respiratory system is to:
- a) Humidify the air
- b) Filter particles and pathogens
- c) Support gas exchange
- d) Produce surfactant
- Answer: b) Filter particles and pathogens
57. The condition characterized by an excessive buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood is:
- a) Hypocapnia
- b) Hypercapnia
- c) Hypoxia
- d) Hyperventilation
- Answer: b) Hypercapnia
58. Which disease is known for causing the alveoli to become large and merge together?
- a) Pneumonia
- b) Tuberculosis
- c) Emphysema
- d) Bronchitis
- Answer: c) Emphysema
59. The respiratory rate is controlled by the:
- a) Cerebellum
- b) Medulla oblongata
- c) Hypothalamus
- d) Cerebrum
- Answer: b) Medulla oblongata
60. Which gas is most important in regulating the respiratory rate?
- a) Oxygen
- b) Nitrogen
- c) Carbon dioxide
- d) Hydrogen
- Answer: c) Carbon dioxide
61. Which structure serves as the primary site for the warming and humidifying of inhaled air?
- a) Trachea
- b) Nasal cavity
- c) Bronchi
- d) Alveoli
- Answer: b) Nasal cavity
62. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by:
- a) Alveolar macrophages
- b) Type II alveolar cells
- c) Type I alveolar cells
- d) Bronchial glands
- Answer: b) Type II alveolar cells
63. Which condition is characterized by episodes of severe difficulty in breathing, coughing, and wheezing?
- a) Tuberculosis
- b) Asthma
- c) Bronchitis
- d) Emphysema
- Answer: b) Asthma
64. The most common bacterial cause of pneumonia is:
- a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
- c) Haemophilus influenzae
- d) Legionella pneumophila
- Answer: b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
65. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the atmosphere and body cells is termed:
- a) Internal respiration
- b) External respiration
- c) Cellular respiration
- d) Pulmonary ventilation
- Answer: b) External respiration
66. The normal breathing rate for a healthy adult at rest is:
- a) 8-10 breaths per minute
- b) 12-20 breaths per minute
- c) 20-30 breaths per minute
- d) 30-40 breaths per minute
- Answer: b) 12-20 breaths per minute
67. The term "anoxia" refers to:
- a) High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood
- b) Low levels of oxygen in the blood
- c) Absence of oxygen supply to the tissues
- d) Excessive oxygen in the tissues
- Answer: c) Absence of oxygen supply to the tissues
### Multiple Choice Exam: Urinary System
#### Functions of the Urinary System
1. Which of the following is the major excretory organ of the body?
- a) Liver
- b) Lungs
- c) Kidneys
- d) Intestines
- Answer: c) Kidneys
2. What role do the kidneys play in regulating blood volume and pressure?
- a) By producing hormones
- b) By excreting glucose
- c) By producing varying volumes of urine
- d) By digesting food
- Answer: c) By producing varying volumes of urine
3. Which ions do the kidneys help regulate in the blood?
- a) Glucose, Na+, Cl¯, K+, Ca2+, and HPO4
- b) Oxygen, CO2, Nitrogen
- c) Proteins, Carbohydrates, Lipids
- d) Iron, Magnesium, Zinc
- Answer: a) Glucose, Na+, Cl¯, K+, Ca2+, and HPO4
4. How do the kidneys regulate extracellular fluid pH?
- a) By secreting H+
- b) By absorbing Na+
- c) By excreting glucose
- d) By producing vitamin D
- Answer: a) By secreting H+
5. What hormone do the kidneys secrete to regulate red blood cell synthesis?
- a) Insulin
- b) Erythropoietin
- c) Adrenaline
- d) Thyroxine
- Answer: b) Erythropoietin
6. How do the kidneys contribute to vitamin D synthesis?
- a) By regulating calcium levels
- b) By producing erythropoietin
- c) By excreting waste products
- d) By regulating blood pressure
- Answer: a) By regulating calcium levels
#### Anatomy of the Urinary System
7. What shape are the kidneys?
- a) Circular
- b) Oval
- c) Bean-shaped
- d) Square
- Answer: c) Bean-shaped
8. Where are the kidneys located?
- a) In front of the peritoneum
- b) Behind the peritoneum
- c) In the thoracic cavity
- d) In the pelvic cavity
- Answer: b) Behind the peritoneum
9. What surrounds each kidney?
- a) Renal capsule
- b) Layer of muscle
- c) Renal artery
- d) Ureter
- Answer: a) Renal capsule
10. What is the function of the fat layer around the kidneys?
- a) To store energy
- b) To protect from mechanical shock
- c) To aid in blood filtration
- d) To produce hormones
- Answer: b) To protect from mechanical shock
11. What is the hilum?
- a) The outer layer of the kidney
- b) The cavity inside the kidney
- c) The entry and exit point for blood vessels and nerves
- d) The urine-collecting structure
- Answer: c) The entry and exit point for blood vessels and nerves
12. What structures are contained in the renal sinus?
- a) Nephrons
- b) Blood vessels, urine collection system, fat
- c) Renal corpuscles
- d) Ureters
- Answer: b) Blood vessels, urine collection system, fat
13. What two parts is the kidney divided into?
- a) Cortex and medulla
- b) Hilum and sinus
- c) Capsule and pelvis
- d) Calyx and ureter
- Answer: a) Cortex and medulla
14. What is a calyx?
- a) Part of the nephron
- b) Funnel-shaped structure surrounding renal pyramid tips
- c) Blood vessel in the kidney
- d) Nerve ending in the kidney
- Answer: b) Funnel-shaped structure surrounding renal pyramid tips
15. What is the renal pelvis?
- a) The area where urine is initially formed
- b) The cavity where blood vessels are located
- c) The funnel-shaped structure that narrows to form the ureter
- d) The fat layer surrounding the kidney
- Answer: c) The funnel-shaped structure that narrows to form the ureter
16. What is the functional unit of the kidney?
- a) Nephron
- b) Glomerulus
- c) Ureter
- d) Bowman's capsule
- Answer: a) Nephron
17. How many nephrons are in each kidney?
- a) 100,000
- b) 500,000
- c) 1.3 million
- d) 2 million
- Answer: c) 1.3 million
18. What structures make up a nephron?
- a) Renal corpuscle, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule
- b) Renal artery, renal vein, ureter
- c) Renal capsule, renal sinus, renal pelvis
- d) Calyx, medulla, cortex
- Answer: a) Renal corpuscle, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule
19. Where does fluid enter the nephron?
- a) Proximal tubule
- b) Loop of Henle
- c) Distal tubule
- d) Renal corpuscle
- Answer: d) Renal corpuscle
20. What is the path of fluid through the nephron?
- a) Proximal tubule → loop of Henle → distal tubule → collecting duct
- b) Distal tubule → loop of Henle → proximal tubule → collecting duct
- c) Loop of Henle → proximal tubule → renal corpuscle → collecting duct
- d) Collecting duct → proximal tubule → loop of Henle → distal tubule
- Answer: a) Proximal tubule → loop of Henle → distal tubule → collecting duct
21. What percentage of nephrons are juxtamedullary?
- a) 10%
- b) 15%
- c) 50%
- d) 85%
- Answer: b) 15%
22. What are the other 85% of nephrons called?
- a) Medullary nephrons
- b) Cortical nephrons
- c) Renal nephrons
- d) Pelvic nephrons
- Answer: b) Cortical nephrons
23. What are the components of the renal corpuscle?
- a) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
- b) Proximal tubule and distal tubule
- c) Loop of Henle and collecting duct
- d) Renal artery and renal vein
- Answer: a) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
24. What cells are found in the inner layer of Bowman's capsule?
- a) Erythrocytes
- b) Neurons
- c) Podocytes
- d) Fibroblasts
- Answer: c) Podocytes
#### Ureters, Urinary Bladder, and Urethra
25. What do the ureters do?
- a) Store urine
- b) Carry urine from kidneys to bladder
- c) Filter blood
- d) Produce hormones
- Answer: b) Carry urine from kidneys to bladder
26. Where is the urinary bladder located?
- a) In the abdominal cavity
- b) Behind the peritoneum
- c) In the pelvic cavity
- d) In the thoracic cavity
- Answer: c) In the pelvic cavity
27. What is the function of the urinary bladder?
- a) To produce urine
- b) To store urine
- c) To filter blood
- d) To secrete hormones
- Answer: b) To store urine
28. What is the maximum volume of urine the bladder can hold?
- a) 500 mL
- b) 750 mL
- c) 1000 mL
- d) 1500 mL
- Answer: c) 1000 mL
29. Where does the urethra carry urine?
- a) From the kidneys to the bladder
- b) From the bladder to the outside of the body
- c) From the kidneys to the outside of the body
- d) From the ureters to the kidneys
- Answer: b) From the bladder to the outside of the body
30. What is the trigone?
- a) The portion of the bladder located between the openings of the ureters and urethra
- b) The inner layer of Bowman's capsule
- c) The functional unit of the kidney
- d) The structure that surrounds the renal pyramid tips
- **Answer: a) The
portion of the bladder located between the openings of the ureters and urethra**
31. What controls the flow of urine through the urethra in males?
- a) Renal corpuscle
- b) Proximal tubule
- c) Internal urinary sphincter
- d) Podocytes
- Answer: c) Internal urinary sphincter
32. What is the main difference in the urethra between males and females?
- a) The male urethra is shorter than the female urethra
- b) The female urethra is longer than the male urethra
- c) The male urethra extends through the penis, while the female urethra is shorter and opens into the vestibule
- d) There is no difference
- Answer: c) The male urethra extends through the penis, while the female urethra is shorter and opens into the vestibule
#### Urine Production
33. What are the main components of urine?
- a) Water, organic waste products, and excess ions
- b) Blood cells, proteins, and lipids
- c) Hormones, enzymes, and glucose
- d) Vitamins, minerals, and amino acids
- Answer: a) Water, organic waste products, and excess ions
34. What are the three critical processes in the formation of urine?
- a) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
- b) Absorption, digestion, excretion
- c) Circulation, respiration, perspiration
- d) Synthesis, degradation, elimination
- Answer: a) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
35. What is filtration?
- a) Movement of substances from the blood into the nephron
- b) Movement of substances from the nephron back into the blood
- c) Transport of waste products across the wall of the nephron
- d) Production of erythropoietin
- Answer: a) Movement of substances from the blood into the nephron
36. What is reabsorption?
- a) Movement of substances from the nephron into the blood
- b) Movement of waste products across the wall of the nephron
- c) Filtration of blood into the nephron
- d) Production of urine
- Answer: a) Movement of substances from the nephron into the blood
37. What is secretion?
- a) Movement of water and ions into Bowman's capsule
- b) Transport of substances from the interstitial fluid into the nephron
- c) Movement of proteins into the nephron
- d) Reabsorption of useful substances from the filtrate
- Answer: b) Transport of substances from the interstitial fluid into the nephron
38. What is the filtrate?
- a) Blood plasma that enters the nephron
- b) Substances reabsorbed into the blood
- c) Waste products in the urine
- d) Hormones produced by the kidneys
- Answer: a) Blood plasma that enters the nephron
39. What happens during tubular reabsorption?
- a) Filtrate is produced
- b) Substances are reabsorbed from the filtrate into the blood
- c) Waste products are secreted into the nephron
- d) Urine is eliminated from the body
- Answer: b) Substances are reabsorbed from the filtrate into the blood
40. What by-product is produced when proteins are metabolized?
- a) Urea
- b) Creatinine
- c) Uric acid
- d) Ammonia
- Answer: d) Ammonia
41. How is ammonia converted into a less toxic substance?
- a) By the kidneys
- b) By the liver
- c) By the stomach
- d) By the intestines
- Answer: b) By the liver
42. What is tubular secretion responsible for?
- a) Producing urine
- b) Reabsorbing useful substances
- c) Transporting waste products into the nephron
- d) Converting ammonia into urea
- Answer: c) Transporting waste products into the nephron
#### Urine Movement
43. What activates the micturition reflex?
- a) Blood pressure
- b) Stretch of the bladder wall
- c) Filtration in the nephron
- d) Hormonal signals
- Answer: b) Stretch of the bladder wall
44. What happens when the bladder fills with urine?
- a) Pressure decreases
- b) Stretch receptors in the bladder wall are stimulated
- c) Urine production stops
- d) The kidneys stop filtering blood
- Answer: b) Stretch receptors in the bladder wall are stimulated
45. Where are action potentials conducted from the bladder?
- a) To the brain
- b) To the spinal cord
- c) To the liver
- d) To the intestines
- Answer: b) To the spinal cord
46. What do parasympathetic action potentials cause?
- a) Relaxation of the bladder
- b) Contraction of the bladder
- c) Filtration in the nephron
- d) Reabsorption in the nephron
- Answer: b) Contraction of the bladder
47. What happens to the external urinary sphincter during the micturition reflex?
- a) It contracts
- b) It relaxes
- c) It becomes tighter
- d) It secretes urine
- Answer: b) It relaxes
#### Additional Questions