Sure! Here is a 75-item multiple-choice exam covering the content provided, with answers included:

1. What is the most abundant tissue in the body?

- A) Connective tissue

- B) Muscle tissue

- C) Nervous tissue

- D) Epithelial tissue

- Answer: B

2. Which muscle type is responsible for voluntary movement?

- A) Cardiac muscle

- B) Smooth muscle

- C) Skeletal muscle

- D) All of the above

- Answer: C

3. Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system?

- A) Body movement

- B) Maintenance of posture

- C) Production of blood cells

- D) Respiration

- Answer: C

4. What type of muscle is responsible for the heart beating?

- A) Skeletal muscle

- B) Smooth muscle

- C) Cardiac muscle

- D) All of the above

- Answer: C

5. What is the connective tissue sheath surrounding each skeletal muscle called?

- A) Epimysium

- B) Perimysium

- C) Endomysium

- D) Sarcomere

- Answer: A

6. Which structure is the basic functional unit of skeletal muscle?

- A) Myofibril

- B) Sarcomere

- C) Myosin

- D) Actin

- Answer: B

7. What characteristic allows skeletal muscle to return to its original resting length after being stretched?

- A) Contractility

- B) Excitability

- C) Extensibility

- D) Elasticity

- Answer: D

8. What type of contraction causes heat production in the body?

- A) Cardiac muscle contraction

- B) Smooth muscle contraction

- C) Skeletal muscle contraction

- D) None of the above

- Answer: C

9. Which type of muscle contraction is involved in propelling food in the digestive tract?

- A) Skeletal muscle

- B) Cardiac muscle

- C) Smooth muscle

- D) None of the above

- Answer: C

10. Where are intercalated disks found?

- A) Skeletal muscle

- B) Cardiac muscle

- C) Smooth muscle

- D) All of the above

- Answer: B

11. What structure extends from one Z disk to another Z disk?

- A) Myofibril

- B) Sarcomere

- C) Myosin

- D) Actin

- Answer: B

12. Which molecule provides a calcium binding site on actin myofilaments?

- A) Tropomyosin

- B) Troponin

- C) Myosin

- D) Actin

- Answer: B

13. What is the term for the most stationary end of a muscle?

- A) Origin

- B) Insertion

- C) Belly

- D) Aponeurosis

- Answer: A

14. Which muscle type is under voluntary control?

- A) Smooth muscle

- B) Cardiac muscle

- C) Skeletal muscle

- D) None of the above

- Answer: C

15. What type of muscle has gap junctions to allow action potentials to spread?

- A) Skeletal muscle

- B) Cardiac muscle

- C) Smooth muscle

- D) All of the above

- Answer: C

16. Which type of muscle has striations but is not as distinctly striated as skeletal muscle?

- A) Smooth muscle

- B) Cardiac muscle

- C) Skeletal muscle

- D) All of the above

- Answer: B

17. What is the function of the retinaculum?

- A) Attaching muscle to bone

- B) Holding down tendons at the wrist and ankle

- C) Connecting muscle fibers

- D) Providing a calcium binding site

- Answer: B

18. What term describes a muscle acting in opposition to an agonist?

- A) Agonist

- B) Synergist

- C) Antagonist

- D) Prime mover

- Answer: C

19. Which muscle flexes the elbow?

- A) Triceps brachii

- B) Biceps brachii

- C) Deltoid

- D) Pectoralis major

- Answer: B

20. What condition is characterized by painful, spastic contractions of muscle?

- A) Myasthenia gravis

- B) Tendinitis

- C) Cramps

- D) Fibromyalgia

- Answer: C

21. What is the main symptom of fibromyalgia?

- A) Muscle weakness

- B) Muscle pain

- C) Muscle atrophy

- D) Muscle hypertrophy

- Answer: B

22. What is the result of an increase in the number of myofibrils within muscle fibers?

- A) Muscle atrophy

- B) Muscle hypertrophy

- C) Muscle relaxation

- D) Muscle spasm

- Answer: B

23. What disorder is characterized by the failure of muscles to relax following a forceful contraction?

- A) Myotonic muscular dystrophy

- B) Myasthenia gravis

- C) Tendinitis

- D) Fibromyalgia

- Answer: A

24. What type of muscle contraction does not develop an oxygen debt?

- A) Skeletal muscle contraction

- B) Cardiac muscle contraction

- C) Smooth muscle contraction

- D) All of the above

- Answer: C

25. What type of drugs are used to treat myasthenia gravis?

- A) Anti-inflammatory drugs

- B) Immunosuppressive drugs

- C) Anti-cholinesterase drugs

- D) Muscle relaxants

- Answer: C

26. What is the term for inflammation of tendon attachment points?

- A) Tendinitis

- B) Myasthenia gravis

- C) Myotonic muscular dystrophy

- D) Fibromyalgia

- Answer: A

27. What is the name for a broad, sheet-like tendon?

- A) Fascia

- B) Retinaculum

- C) Aponeurosis

- D) Epimysium

- Answer: C

28. What does the term "striated" refer to in muscle tissue?

- A) Muscle fibers are spindle-shaped

- B) Muscle fibers have transverse bands

- C) Muscle fibers are connected by gap junctions

- D) Muscle fibers contract slowly

- Answer: B

29. What type of muscle fibers are organized into sarcomeres?

- A) Cardiac muscle

- B) Smooth muscle

- C) Skeletal muscle

- D) Both A and C

- Answer: D

30. What muscle characteristic allows it to respond to a stimulus?

- A) Contractility

- B) Excitability

- C) Extensibility

- D) Elasticity

- Answer: B

31. What is the term for the ability of skeletal muscle to shorten with force?

- A) Extensibility

- B) Elasticity

- C) Contractility

- D) Excitability

- Answer: C

32. Which muscle type is responsible for peristalsis in the digestive tract?

- A) Skeletal muscle

- B) Cardiac muscle

- C) Smooth muscle

- D) None of the above

- Answer: C

33. Which type of muscle contraction can lead to hypertrophy?

- A) Involuntary contraction

- B) Voluntary contraction

- C) Cardiac contraction

- D) Smooth muscle contraction

- Answer: B

34. What is the connective tissue surrounding individual muscle fibers called?

- A) Epimysium

- B) Perimysium

- C) Endomysium

- D) Sarcolemma

- Answer: C

35. What structure is involved in muscle contraction and is composed of actin and myosin?

- A) Sarcomere

- B) Myofibril

- C) Myofilament

- D) All of the above

- Answer: D

36. Which muscle is the agonist in elbow extension?

- A) Biceps brachii

- B) Triceps brachii

- C) Deltoid

- D) Pectoralis major

- Answer: B

37. What term describes the decrease in muscle size due to a decrease in myofilaments within muscle fibers?

- A) Hypertrophy

- B) Atrophy

- C) Fibromyalgia

- D) Myasthenia gravis

- Answer: B

38. Which structure in cardiac muscle cells allows for action potential conduction between cells?

- A) Sarcomere

- B) Myofibril

- C) Intercalated disks

- D) Z disk

- Answer: C

39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of smooth muscle cells?

- A) Spindle-shaped

- B) Striated

- C) One nucleus per cell

- D) Less actin and myosin than skeletal muscle

- Answer: B

40. Which type of muscle is involved in all aspects of communication, such as speaking and writing?

- A) Cardiac muscle

- B) Smooth muscle

- C) Skeletal muscle

- D) All of the above

- Answer: C

41. What is the term for the connective tissue that surrounds a muscle fascicle?

- A) Epimysium

- B) Perimysium

- C) Endomysium

- D) Sarcolemma

- Answer: B

42. Which muscle type is influenced by hormones such as epinephrine?

- A) Smooth muscle

- B) Cardiac muscle

- C) Skeletal muscle

- D) Both A and B

- Answer: D

43. Which of the following conditions involves chronic muscle pain syndrome?

- A) Myasthenia gravis

- B) Fibromyalgia

- C) Myotonic muscular dystrophy

- D) Tendinitis

- Answer: B

44. What type of connective tissue holds down tendons at each wrist and ankle?

- A) Epimysium

- B) Retinaculum

- C) Aponeurosis

- D) Perimysium

- Answer: B

45. What is the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber called?

- A) Sarcolemma

- B) Sarcoplasm

- C) Myoplasm

- D) Myofibril

- Answer: B

46. Which of the following conditions is characterized by muscle atrophy due to nerve damage or casting?

- A) Myasthenia gravis

- B) Fibromyalgia

- C) Hypertrophy

- D) Atrophy

- Answer: D

47. What is the term for the band of connective tissue that holds down tendons at the wrist and ankle?

- A) Fascia

- B) Retinaculum

- C) Aponeurosis

- D) Tendon

- Answer: B

48. What type of muscle fibers are not organized into sarcomeres?

- A) Skeletal muscle

- B) Cardiac muscle

- C) Smooth muscle

- D) None of the above

- Answer: C

49. What is the condition called when the muscle has no tone due to severed nerve supply?

- A) Flaccid

- B) Hypertrophy

- C) Atrophy

- D) Fibromyalgia

- Answer: A

50. Which structure is attached to the Z disk?

- A) Actin myofilaments

- B) Myosin myofilaments

- C) Troponin

- D) Tropomyosin

- Answer: A

51. What term describes a muscle that accomplishes a certain movement?

- A) Agonist

- B) Antagonist

- C) Synergist

- D) Prime mover

- Answer: A

52. Which type of muscle contraction is under involuntary control?

- A) Skeletal muscle contraction

- B) Smooth muscle contraction

- C) Cardiac muscle contraction

- D) Both B and C

- Answer: D

53. What is the main characteristic of myasthenia gravis?

- A) Muscle hypertrophy

- B) Muscle atrophy

- C) Destruction of acetylcholine receptors

- D) Inflammation of tendons

- Answer: C

54. What muscle characteristic allows it to be stretched to its normal resting length and beyond?

- A) Contractility

- B) Excitability

- C) Extensibility

- D) Elasticity

- Answer: C

55. What is the smallest functional unit of skeletal muscle capable of contracting?

- A) Myofibril

- B) Sarcomere

- C) Myofilament

- D) Sarcolemma

- Answer: B

56. Which muscle type is responsible for maintaining posture?

- A) Smooth muscle

- B) Cardiac muscle

- C) Skeletal muscle

- D) All of the above

- Answer: C

57. Which of the following structures is composed of actin and myosin myofilaments?

- A) Sarcomere

- B) Myofibril

- C) Muscle fiber

- D) All of the above

- Answer: D

58. Which condition involves chronic progressive autoimmune disease affecting acetylcholine receptors?

- A) Myasthenia gravis

- B) Myotonic muscular dystrophy

- C) Fibromyalgia

- D) Tendinitis

- Answer: A

59. What type of muscle is involved in heart contraction?

- A) Skeletal muscle

- B) Smooth muscle

- C) Cardiac muscle

- D) None of the above

- Answer: C

60. Which structure forms an attachment site for actin myofilaments?

- A) Myosin myofilaments

- B) Sarcomere

- C) Z disk

- D) Troponin

- Answer: C

61. What is the term for the muscle attachment point that undergoes the greatest movement?

- A) Origin

- B) Insertion

- C) Belly

- D) Aponeurosis

- Answer: B

62. What characteristic of cardiac muscle allows it to function as a unit?

- A) Sarcomeres

- B) Striations

- C) Intercalated disks

- D) Spindle shape

- Answer: C

63. Which of the following describes a muscle that acts in opposition to an agonist?

- A) Agonist

- B) Synergist

- C) Antagonist

- D) Prime mover

- Answer: C

64. What is the connective tissue surrounding a muscle fascicle called?

- A) Epimysium

- B) Perimysium

- C) Endomysium

- D) Sarcolemma

- Answer: B

65. What condition results from the buildup of lactic acid causing muscle pain?

- A) Myasthenia gravis

- B) Tendinitis

- C) Cramps

- D) Fibromyalgia

- Answer: C

66. What term describes a muscle that accomplishes the same movement as the agonist?

- A) Agonist

- B) Synergist

- C) Antagonist

- D) Prime mover

- Answer: B

67. Which muscle type has a single nucleus per cell and is under involuntary control?

- A) Skeletal muscle

- B) Cardiac muscle

- C) Smooth muscle

- D) Both B and C

- Answer: D

68. What structure contains numerous myofibrils within the sarcoplasm?

- A) Sarcomere

- B) Muscle fiber

- C) Myofilament

- D) Z disk

- Answer: B

69. Which of the following is a result of an increase in the number of myofibrils within muscle fibers?

- A) Atrophy

- B) Hypertrophy

- C) Fibromyalgia

- D) Myasthenia gravis

- Answer: B

70. What is the primary role of the respiratory muscles?

- A) Body movement

- B) Maintenance of posture

- C) Respiration

- D) Production of body heat

- Answer: C

71. Which structure facilitates action potential conduction between cardiac muscle cells?

- A) Z disk

- B) Myofibril

- C) Intercalated disks

- D) Sarcomere

- Answer: C

72. Which condition involves chronic muscle pain that is widespread in muscles and muscle-tendon junctions?

- A) Myasthenia gravis

- B) Myotonic muscular dystrophy

- C) Fibromyalgia

- D) Tendinitis

- Answer: C

73. What is the connective tissue that surrounds each skeletal muscle called?

- A) Epimysium

- B) Perimysium

- C) Endomysium

- D) Sarcolemma

- Answer: A

74. Which muscle characteristic allows it to respond to a stimulus?

- A)

Contractility

- B) Excitability

- C) Extensibility

- D) Elasticity

- Answer: B

75. What is the role of the muscle fasciculi in skeletal muscle?

- A) Surrounds each muscle fiber

- B) Contains several muscle cells

- C) Contains numerous myofibrils

- D) Forms the sarcomere

- Answer: B

Certainly! Here's a multiple-choice exam with 75 questions covering the content provided:

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### Multiple Choice Exam: Digestive System

#### 1. Introduction to the Digestive System

1. What two systems collaborate to deliver nutrients to body cells?

- A) Nervous and endocrine systems

- B) Circulatory and respiratory systems

- C) Digestive and circulatory systems

- D) Skeletal and muscular systems

- Answer: C

#### 2. Functions of the Digestive System

2. Which function is NOT performed by the digestive system?

- A) Absorbing digested molecules

- B) Breaking down food

- C) Eliminating wastes

- D) Producing red blood cells

- Answer: D

3. Through which part of the body is food taken in?

- A) Mouth

- B) Nose

- C) Ears

- D) Eyes

- Answer: A

4. The process of breaking down food into smaller molecules is called:

- A) Absorption

- B) Digestion

- C) Elimination

- D) Circulation

- Answer: B

#### 3. Anatomy and Histology of the Digestive System

5. The digestive tract is a tube extending from the ___ to the ___.

- A) Mouth, anus

- B) Nose, throat

- C) Ears, eyes

- D) Lungs, heart

- Answer: A

6. The term "gastrointestinal tract" technically refers to:

- A) The entire digestive tract

- B) Only the mouth and esophagus

- C) Only the stomach and intestines

- D) The liver and pancreas

- Answer: C

7. Which layer of the digestive tract contains blood vessels and nerves?

- A) Mucosa

- B) Submucosa

- C) Muscularis

- D) Serosa

- Answer: B

#### 4. Peritoneum

8. The serous membrane that covers the organs is called:

- A) Parietal peritoneum

- B) Visceral peritoneum

- C) Adventitia

- D) Mesentery

- Answer: B

9. The connective tissue sheet that attaches the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is called:

- A) Greater omentum

- B) Lesser omentum

- C) Mesentery proper

- D) Serosa

- Answer: C

#### 5. Anatomy of the Oral Cavity

10. The lips are formed mostly by which muscle?

- A) Buccinator muscle

- B) Orbicularis oris muscle

- C) Masseter muscle

- D) Temporalis muscle

- Answer: B

11. Which part of the tooth contains blood vessels and nerves?

- A) Enamel

- B) Dentin

- C) Pulp cavity

- D) Cementum

- Answer: C

12. How many teeth are there in a normal adult mouth?

- A) 20

- B) 28

- C) 32

- D) 36

- Answer: C

13. The roof of the oral cavity consists of:

- A) Hard palate and soft palate

- B) Uvula and tonsils

- C) Teeth and tongue

- D) Lips and cheeks

- Answer: A

#### 6. Salivary Glands

14. Which is the largest of the salivary glands?

- A) Sublingual gland

- B) Submandibular gland

- C) Parotid gland

- D) Buccal gland

- Answer: C

15. Which salivary gland produces primarily mucous secretions?

- A) Parotid gland

- B) Submandibular gland

- C) Sublingual gland

- D) Submaxillary gland

- Answer: C

#### 7. Pharynx and Esophagus

16. The pharynx connects the mouth to the:

- A) Stomach

- B) Esophagus

- C) Small intestine

- D) Large intestine

- Answer: B

17. The lower esophageal sphincter is also known as:

- A) Pyloric sphincter

- B) Cardiac sphincter

- C) Duodenal sphincter

- D) Rectal sphincter

- Answer: B

#### 8. Anatomy of the Stomach

18. The most superior part of the stomach is the:

- A) Body

- B) Fundus

- C) Cardiac region

- D) Pyloric region

- Answer: B

19. The opening from the stomach into the small intestine is called:

- A) Cardiac opening

- B) Pyloric opening

- C) Fundic opening

- D) Gastric opening

- Answer: B

#### 9. Anatomy of the Small Intestine

20. The small intestine is approximately how long?

- A) 3 meters

- B) 4 meters

- C) 5 meters

- D) 6 meters

- Answer: D

21. The duodenum is approximately how long?

- A) 12 cm

- B) 25 cm

- C) 50 cm

- D) 1 meter

- Answer: B

22. The three parts of the small intestine, in order, are:

- A) Duodenum, ileum, jejunum

- B) Jejunum, duodenum, ileum

- C) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

- D) Ileum, jejunum, duodenum

- Answer: C

#### 10. Anatomy of the Liver

23. The liver is located in which quadrant of the abdomen?

- A) Right upper quadrant

- B) Left upper quadrant

- C) Right lower quadrant

- D) Left lower quadrant

- Answer: A

24. The liver is divided into how many lobes?

- A) 2

- B) 3

- C) 4

- D) 5

- Answer: C

#### 11. Anatomy of the Pancreas

25. The pancreas is located:

- A) Anterior to the stomach

- B) Posterior to the stomach

- C) Below the liver

- D) Above the liver

- Answer: B

26. The endocrine part of the pancreas produces:

- A) Digestive enzymes

- B) Insulin and glucagon

- C) Bile

- D) Saliva

- Answer: B

#### 12. Anatomy of the Large Intestine

27. The cecum is located in which quadrant of the abdomen?

- A) Right upper quadrant

- B) Left upper quadrant

- C) Right lower quadrant

- D) Left lower quadrant

- Answer: C

28. The ascending colon extends from the cecum to the:

- A) Left colic flexure

- B) Right colic flexure

- C) Transverse colon

- D) Sigmoid colon

- Answer: B

29. The rectum begins at the termination of the:

- A) Cecum

- B) Transverse colon

- C) Descending colon

- D) Sigmoid colon

- Answer: D

#### 13. Accessory Glands and Functions

30. Which gland produces bile?

- A) Liver

- B) Pancreas

- C) Parotid gland

- D) Submandibular gland

- Answer: A

31. Which part of the digestive system is primarily responsible for water absorption?

- A) Stomach

- B) Small intestine

- C) Large intestine

- D) Esophagus

- Answer: C

32. Which structure prevents food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing?

- A) Uvula

- B) Epiglottis

- C) Tonsils

- D) Tongue

- Answer: A

#### 14. Histological Layers

33. The innermost layer of the digestive tract is the:

- A) Muscularis

- B) Submucosa

- C) Serosa

- D) Mucosa

- Answer: D

34. Which layer contains the circular and longitudinal smooth muscle layers?

- A) Mucosa

- B) Submucosa

- C) Muscularis

- D) Serosa

- Answer: C

#### 15. Peritoneal Structures

35. The mesentery connecting the greater curvature of the stomach to the

transverse colon is called:

- A) Greater omentum

- B) Lesser omentum

- C) Mesentery proper

- D) Falciform ligament

- Answer: A

36. The peritoneal cavity is located:

- A) Between the parietal and visceral peritoneum

- B) Inside the digestive tract

- C) Outside the abdominal cavity

- D) Inside the liver

- Answer: A

#### 16. Digestive Enzymes and Hormones

37. Which enzyme is responsible for the digestion of proteins in the stomach?

- A) Amylase

- B) Lipase

- C) Pepsin

- D) Trypsin

- Answer: C

38. The hormone that stimulates the release of gastric juices is:

- A) Secretin

- B) Cholecystokinin

- C) Gastrin

- D) Insulin

- Answer: C

#### 17. Absorption and Digestion

39. Most nutrient absorption occurs in the:

- A) Stomach

- B) Small intestine

- C) Large intestine

- D) Esophagus

- Answer: B

40. The primary function of bile is to:

- A) Digest carbohydrates

- B) Emulsify fats

- C) Neutralize stomach acid

- D) Digest proteins

- Answer: B

41. The brush border enzymes are found in the:

- A) Stomach

- B) Large intestine

- C) Small intestine

- D) Liver

- Answer: C

#### 18. Digestive Disorders

42. An inflammation of the liver is known as:

- A) Hepatitis

- B) Gastritis

- C) Colitis

- D) Pancreatitis

- Answer: A

43. The condition characterized by the presence of gallstones is called:

- A) Cholecystitis

- B) Cholelithiasis

- C) Hepatitis

- D) Gastritis

- Answer: B

#### 19. Miscellaneous

44. The structure that prevents the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus is the:

- A) Pyloric sphincter

- B) Cardiac sphincter

- C) Ileocecal valve

- D) Anal sphincter

- Answer: B

45. The term for difficulty swallowing is:

- A) Dysphagia

- B) Dyspepsia

- C) Dyspnea

- D) Dysuria

- Answer: A

46. Which part of the digestive tract is primarily responsible for the fermentation of undigested food?

- A) Stomach

- B) Small intestine

- C) Large intestine

- D) Esophagus

- Answer: C

47. The hormone responsible for stimulating the pancreas to release bicarbonate is:

- A) Gastrin

- B) Secretin

- C) Cholecystokinin

- D) Insulin

- Answer: B

#### 20. Pathophysiology

48. Which condition is characterized by the inflammation of the pancreas?

- A) Hepatitis

- B) Gastritis

- C) Pancreatitis

- D) Colitis

- Answer: C

49. The absence of hydrochloric acid in gastric secretions is known as:

- A) Achlorhydria

- B) Dyspepsia

- C) Hyperchlorhydria

- D) Gastritis

- Answer: A

#### 21. Developmental Aspects

50. The initial development of the digestive system begins during which week of embryonic development?

- A) 1st week

- B) 2nd week

- C) 3rd week

- D) 4th week

- Answer: C

51. The primary function of the yolk sac in early development is to:

- A) Provide nutrients

- B) Produce bile

- C) Secrete digestive enzymes

- D) Absorb water

- Answer: A

#### 22. Control of the Digestive System

52. The enteric nervous system is sometimes referred to as the:

- A) Central nervous system

- B) Autonomic nervous system

- C) Second brain

- D) Peripheral nervous system

- Answer: C

53. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the enteric nervous system?

- A) Acetylcholine

- B) Dopamine

- C) Serotonin

- D) Norepinephrine

- Answer: A

#### 23. Digestion and Metabolism

54. The primary site for lipid digestion is:

- A) Mouth

- B) Stomach

- C) Small intestine

- D) Large intestine

- Answer: C

55. Amylase breaks down:

- A) Proteins

- B) Fats

- C) Carbohydrates

- D) Nucleic acids

- Answer: C

#### 24. Nutrient Absorption

56. Which vitamin is primarily absorbed in the ileum?

- A) Vitamin A

- B) Vitamin D

- C) Vitamin B12

- D) Vitamin C

- Answer: C

57. The large intestine absorbs mainly:

- A) Proteins

- B) Carbohydrates

- C) Fats

- D) Water and electrolytes

- Answer: D

#### 25. Clinical Conditions

58. The condition where part of the stomach pushes through the diaphragm is called:

- A) Hiatal hernia

- B) Inguinal hernia

- C) Umbilical hernia

- D) Epigastric hernia

- Answer: A

59. The term for a chronic inflammatory disease of the intestines is:

- A) Ulcerative colitis

- B) Irritable bowel syndrome

- C) Diverticulitis

- D) Crohn's disease

- Answer: D

#### 26. Miscellaneous

60. The main component of bile is:

- A) Bilirubin

- B) Bile salts

- C) Cholesterol

- D) Electrolytes

- Answer: B

61. Which structure stores bile?

- A) Liver

- B) Gallbladder

- C) Pancreas

- D) Small intestine

- Answer: B

62. Which enzyme is found in saliva and starts the digestion of starches?

- A) Pepsin

- B) Trypsin

- C) Amylase

- D) Lipase

- Answer: C

63. The term for the rhythmic contractions that move food through the digestive tract is:

- A) Digestion

- B) Absorption

- C) Peristalsis

- D) Secretion

- Answer: C

#### 27. Histological Aspects

64. Peyer's patches are found in the:

- A) Stomach

- B) Small intestine

- C) Large intestine

- D) Esophagus

- Answer: B

65. The outermost layer of the digestive tract is called the:

- A) Mucosa

- B) Submucosa

- C) Muscularis

- D) Serosa

- Answer: D

#### 28. Nutritional Physiology

66. Which macronutrient provides the most energy per gram?

- A) Carbohydrates

- B) Proteins

- C) Fats

- D) Vitamins

- Answer: C

67. The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the:

- A) Stomach

- B) Small intestine

- C) Large intestine

- D) Esophagus

- Answer: B

68. The essential nutrient required for building and repairing tissues is:

- A) Carbohydrates

- B) Proteins

- C) Fats

- D) Vitamins

- Answer: B

#### 29. Hormonal Regulation

69. The hormone responsible for stimulating the gallbladder to release bile is:

- A) Gastrin

- B) Secretin

- C) Cholecystokinin

- D) Insulin

- Answer: C

70. Which hormone increases blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to release glucose?

- A) Insulin

- B) Glucagon

- C) Gastrin

- D) Secretin

- Answer: B

#### 30. Developmental Physiology

71. During which trimester does the digestive system start to function in a fetus?

- A) First trimester

- B) Second trimester

- C) Third trimester

- D)

Postnatal period

- Answer: C

72. The enzyme produced by the pancreas that breaks down proteins is:

- A) Amylase

- B) Lipase

- C) Trypsin

- D) Pepsin

- Answer: C

Sure, here is a multiple-choice exam covering all the content provided:

### Multiple Choice Exam: Respiratory System

#### Introduction to Respiration

Here is a 75-item multiple-choice exam covering the content of the respiratory system, based on the provided document.

---

### Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the primary function of the respiratory system?

- a) Digest food

- b) Produce hormones

- c) Exchange gases

- d) Protect against pathogens

- Answer: c) Exchange gases

2. Which structure is the main passageway for air into the respiratory system?

- a) Trachea

- b) Esophagus

- c) Larynx

- d) Bronchi

- Answer: a) Trachea

3. The alveoli are important for:

- a) Producing sound

- b) Gas exchange

- c) Filtering air

- d) Humidifying air

- Answer: b) Gas exchange

4. The diaphragm plays a crucial role in:

- a) Digestive processes

- b) Circulatory system

- c) Breathing

- d) Nervous system regulation

- Answer: c) Breathing

5. Which disease is characterized by the inflammation of the bronchi?

- a) Asthma

- b) Pneumonia

- c) Tuberculosis

- d) Bronchitis

- Answer: d) Bronchitis

6. What is the primary cause of tuberculosis?

- a) Virus

- b) Fungus

- c) Bacteria

- d) Parasite

- Answer: c) Bacteria

7. The respiratory system helps regulate:

- a) Blood sugar levels

- b) Blood pH

- c) Hormone levels

- d) Body temperature

- Answer: b) Blood pH

8. Which part of the respiratory system is commonly known as the windpipe?

- a) Bronchi

- b) Pharynx

- c) Trachea

- d) Larynx

- Answer: c) Trachea

9. The larynx is also known as the:

- a) Voice box

- b) Throat

- c) Windpipe

- d) Food pipe

- Answer: a) Voice box

10. Pneumonia primarily affects the:

- a) Bronchi

- b) Alveoli

- c) Trachea

- d) Larynx

- Answer: b) Alveoli

11. The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:

- a) Respiration

- b) Ventilation

- c) Circulation

- d) Diffusion

- Answer: b) Ventilation

12. The upper respiratory tract includes all except:

- a) Nose

- b) Pharynx

- c) Larynx

- d) Trachea

- Answer: d) Trachea

13. Gas exchange occurs in the:

- a) Bronchi

- b) Trachea

- c) Alveoli

- d) Bronchioles

- Answer: c) Alveoli

14. The flap that covers the trachea during swallowing is called the:

- a) Uvula

- b) Epiglottis

- c) Larynx

- d) Glottis

- Answer: b) Epiglottis

15. Which respiratory disease is characterized by the destruction of alveolar walls?

- a) Asthma

- b) Emphysema

- c) Bronchitis

- d) Pneumonia

- Answer: b) Emphysema

16. The term "tidal volume" refers to:

- a) The total volume of air in the lungs

- b) The volume of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath

- c) The volume of air left in the lungs after exhalation

- d) The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled

- Answer: b) The volume of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath

17. The primary muscle involved in respiration is the:

- a) Intercostal muscle

- b) Diaphragm

- c) Abdominal muscle

- d) Pectoral muscle

- Answer: b) Diaphragm

18. Asthma is primarily a disorder of the:

- a) Alveoli

- b) Trachea

- c) Bronchi

- d) Diaphragm

- Answer: c) Bronchi

19. The respiratory center is located in the:

- a) Cerebrum

- b) Medulla oblongata

- c) Cerebellum

- d) Pons

- Answer: b) Medulla oblongata

20. Hemoglobin in red blood cells is important for:

- a) Transporting nutrients

- b) Transporting gases

- c) Fighting infections

- d) Clotting blood

- Answer: b) Transporting gases

21. The pleura is a:

- a) Muscle involved in breathing

- b) Membrane surrounding the lungs

- c) Section of the throat

- d) Type of lung cell

- Answer: b) Membrane surrounding the lungs

22. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes:

- a) Tuberculosis and pneumonia

- b) Asthma and bronchitis

- c) Emphysema and chronic bronchitis

- d) Asthma and emphysema

- Answer: c) Emphysema and chronic bronchitis

23. The main function of the nasal cavity is:

- a) Gas exchange

- b) Filtering, warming, and humidifying air

- c) Producing sound

- d) Transporting food

- Answer: b) Filtering, warming, and humidifying air

24. Which gas is the primary driver for breathing?

- a) Oxygen

- b) Nitrogen

- c) Carbon dioxide

- d) Helium

- Answer: c) Carbon dioxide

25. Which structure prevents food from entering the respiratory tract?

- a) Epiglottis

- b) Glottis

- c) Pharynx

- d) Larynx

- Answer: a) Epiglottis

26. Surfactant is important for:

- a) Oxygen transport

- b) Reducing surface tension in the alveoli

- c) Immune defense

- d) Carbon dioxide transport

- Answer: b) Reducing surface tension in the alveoli

27. Respiratory distress syndrome is common in:

- a) Adults

- b) Elderly

- c) Infants

- d) Adolescents

- Answer: c) Infants

28. Oxygenated blood returns to the heart via the:

- a) Pulmonary arteries

- b) Pulmonary veins

- c) Aorta

- d) Superior vena cava

- Answer: b) Pulmonary veins

29. The inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is:

- a) The amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation

- b) The amount of air inhaled during a normal breath

- c) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after exhalation

- d) The total volume of air that can be exhaled

- Answer: a) The amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation

30. Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs because CO binds to:

- a) White blood cells

- b) Platelets

- c) Hemoglobin

- d) Plasma

- Answer: c) Hemoglobin

31. The pharynx is part of both the respiratory and:

- a) Circulatory system

- b) Digestive system

- c) Nervous system

- d) Endocrine system

- Answer: b) Digestive system

32. In which part of the respiratory system does the voice production occur?

- a) Larynx

- b) Trachea

- c) Bronchi

- d) Pharynx

- Answer: a) Larynx

33. Which type of tissue forms the walls of the alveoli?

- a) Stratified squamous epithelium

- b) Simple squamous epithelium

- c) Cuboidal epithelium

- d) Columnar epithelium

- Answer: b) Simple squamous epithelium

34. What role do the cilia in the respiratory tract play?

- a) Producing mucus

- b) Warming the air

- c) Sweeping mucus and debris out of the lungs

- d) Engulfing pathogens

- Answer: c) Sweeping mucus and debris out of the lungs

35. The primary site of gas exchange in the lungs is the:

- a) Bronchi

-

b) Alveoli

- c) Bronchioles

- d) Pleura

- Answer: b) Alveoli

36. The condition characterized by inflamed, narrow airways is:

- a) Asthma

- b) Pneumonia

- c) Tuberculosis

- d) Emphysema

- Answer: a) Asthma

37. Which structure connects the larynx to the bronchi?

- a) Pharynx

- b) Trachea

- c) Esophagus

- d) Alveoli

- Answer: b) Trachea

38. The term "vital capacity" refers to:

- a) The total volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inhalation

- b) The volume of air in the lungs after a normal exhalation

- c) The amount of air left in the lungs after maximal exhalation

- d) The volume of air inhaled during a normal breath

- Answer: a) The total volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inhalation

39. Which part of the brain controls the basic rhythm of breathing?

- a) Hypothalamus

- b) Medulla oblongata

- c) Cerebellum

- d) Thalamus

- Answer: b) Medulla oblongata

40. The main gas carried by hemoglobin in red blood cells is:

- a) Nitrogen

- b) Oxygen

- c) Carbon dioxide

- d) Helium

- Answer: b) Oxygen

41. What is the function of the Eustachian tube in the respiratory system?

- a) Connects the nasal cavity to the pharynx

- b) Equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere

- c) Connects the pharynx to the larynx

- d) Filters particles from the air

- Answer: b) Equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere

42. Which structure prevents collapse of the trachea?

- a) Smooth muscle

- b) Cartilage rings

- c) Cilia

- d) Pleura

- Answer: b) Cartilage rings

43. Which respiratory volume is the amount of air left in the lungs after maximal exhalation?

- a) Tidal volume

- b) Residual volume

- c) Inspiratory reserve volume

- d) Expiratory reserve volume

- Answer: b) Residual volume

44. Which lung disease is known for the thickening and scarring of lung tissue?

- a) Pneumonia

- b) Asthma

- c) Pulmonary fibrosis

- d) Emphysema

- Answer: c) Pulmonary fibrosis

45. The primary cause of lung cancer is:

- a) Genetic factors

- b) Smoking

- c) Air pollution

- d) Bacterial infection

- Answer: b) Smoking

46. The respiratory membrane consists of:

- a) The alveolar and capillary walls

- b) The pleura and diaphragm

- c) The trachea and bronchi

- d) The nasal cavity and pharynx

- Answer: a) The alveolar and capillary walls

47. The exchange of gases between the blood and tissues is called:

- a) External respiration

- b) Internal respiration

- c) Pulmonary ventilation

- d) Cellular respiration

- Answer: b) Internal respiration

48. The main component of the air we breathe is:

- a) Oxygen

- b) Carbon dioxide

- c) Nitrogen

- d) Hydrogen

- Answer: c) Nitrogen

49. The condition in which fluid accumulates in the alveoli is known as:

- a) Asthma

- b) Pneumonia

- c) Pulmonary edema

- d) Tuberculosis

- Answer: c) Pulmonary edema

50. The nasal conchae function to:

- a) Filter particles from the air

- b) Increase the surface area of the nasal cavity

- c) Produce mucus

- d) Protect the lungs from pathogens

- Answer: b) Increase the surface area of the nasal cavity

51. What is the role of the intercostal muscles in breathing?

- a) Assist the diaphragm in expanding the thoracic cavity

- b) Transport oxygen in the blood

- c) Produce surfactant

- d) Filter air entering the respiratory system

- Answer: a) Assist the diaphragm in expanding the thoracic cavity

52. The condition of low oxygen levels in the blood is called:

- a) Hypercapnia

- b) Hypoxia

- c) Hyperventilation

- d) Hypocapnia

- Answer: b) Hypoxia

53. The respiratory system helps eliminate:

- a) Oxygen

- b) Nitrogen

- c) Carbon dioxide

- d) Glucose

- Answer: c) Carbon dioxide

54. The opening between the vocal cords is called the:

- a) Epiglottis

- b) Glottis

- c) Larynx

- d) Trachea

- Answer: b) Glottis

55. Which structure serves as the common passageway for both air and food?

- a) Larynx

- b) Pharynx

- c) Trachea

- d) Esophagus

- Answer: b) Pharynx

56. The role of mucus in the respiratory system is to:

- a) Humidify the air

- b) Filter particles and pathogens

- c) Support gas exchange

- d) Produce surfactant

- Answer: b) Filter particles and pathogens

57. The condition characterized by an excessive buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood is:

- a) Hypocapnia

- b) Hypercapnia

- c) Hypoxia

- d) Hyperventilation

- Answer: b) Hypercapnia

58. Which disease is known for causing the alveoli to become large and merge together?

- a) Pneumonia

- b) Tuberculosis

- c) Emphysema

- d) Bronchitis

- Answer: c) Emphysema

59. The respiratory rate is controlled by the:

- a) Cerebellum

- b) Medulla oblongata

- c) Hypothalamus

- d) Cerebrum

- Answer: b) Medulla oblongata

60. Which gas is most important in regulating the respiratory rate?

- a) Oxygen

- b) Nitrogen

- c) Carbon dioxide

- d) Hydrogen

- Answer: c) Carbon dioxide

61. Which structure serves as the primary site for the warming and humidifying of inhaled air?

- a) Trachea

- b) Nasal cavity

- c) Bronchi

- d) Alveoli

- Answer: b) Nasal cavity

62. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by:

- a) Alveolar macrophages

- b) Type II alveolar cells

- c) Type I alveolar cells

- d) Bronchial glands

- Answer: b) Type II alveolar cells

63. Which condition is characterized by episodes of severe difficulty in breathing, coughing, and wheezing?

- a) Tuberculosis

- b) Asthma

- c) Bronchitis

- d) Emphysema

- Answer: b) Asthma

64. The most common bacterial cause of pneumonia is:

- a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

- b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

- c) Haemophilus influenzae

- d) Legionella pneumophila

- Answer: b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

65. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the atmosphere and body cells is termed:

- a) Internal respiration

- b) External respiration

- c) Cellular respiration

- d) Pulmonary ventilation

- Answer: b) External respiration

66. The normal breathing rate for a healthy adult at rest is:

- a) 8-10 breaths per minute

- b) 12-20 breaths per minute

- c) 20-30 breaths per minute

- d) 30-40 breaths per minute

- Answer: b) 12-20 breaths per minute

67. The term "anoxia" refers to:

- a) High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood

- b) Low levels of oxygen in the blood

- c) Absence of oxygen supply to the tissues

- d) Excessive oxygen in the tissues

- Answer: c) Absence of oxygen supply to the tissues

### Multiple Choice Exam: Urinary System

#### Functions of the Urinary System

1. Which of the following is the major excretory organ of the body?

- a) Liver

- b) Lungs

- c) Kidneys

- d) Intestines

- Answer: c) Kidneys

2. What role do the kidneys play in regulating blood volume and pressure?

- a) By producing hormones

- b) By excreting glucose

- c) By producing varying volumes of urine

- d) By digesting food

- Answer: c) By producing varying volumes of urine

3. Which ions do the kidneys help regulate in the blood?

- a) Glucose, Na+, Cl¯, K+, Ca2+, and HPO4

- b) Oxygen, CO2, Nitrogen

- c) Proteins, Carbohydrates, Lipids

- d) Iron, Magnesium, Zinc

- Answer: a) Glucose, Na+, Cl¯, K+, Ca2+, and HPO4

4. How do the kidneys regulate extracellular fluid pH?

- a) By secreting H+

- b) By absorbing Na+

- c) By excreting glucose

- d) By producing vitamin D

- Answer: a) By secreting H+

5. What hormone do the kidneys secrete to regulate red blood cell synthesis?

- a) Insulin

- b) Erythropoietin

- c) Adrenaline

- d) Thyroxine

- Answer: b) Erythropoietin

6. How do the kidneys contribute to vitamin D synthesis?

- a) By regulating calcium levels

- b) By producing erythropoietin

- c) By excreting waste products

- d) By regulating blood pressure

- Answer: a) By regulating calcium levels

#### Anatomy of the Urinary System

7. What shape are the kidneys?

- a) Circular

- b) Oval

- c) Bean-shaped

- d) Square

- Answer: c) Bean-shaped

8. Where are the kidneys located?

- a) In front of the peritoneum

- b) Behind the peritoneum

- c) In the thoracic cavity

- d) In the pelvic cavity

- Answer: b) Behind the peritoneum

9. What surrounds each kidney?

- a) Renal capsule

- b) Layer of muscle

- c) Renal artery

- d) Ureter

- Answer: a) Renal capsule

10. What is the function of the fat layer around the kidneys?

- a) To store energy

- b) To protect from mechanical shock

- c) To aid in blood filtration

- d) To produce hormones

- Answer: b) To protect from mechanical shock

11. What is the hilum?

- a) The outer layer of the kidney

- b) The cavity inside the kidney

- c) The entry and exit point for blood vessels and nerves

- d) The urine-collecting structure

- Answer: c) The entry and exit point for blood vessels and nerves

12. What structures are contained in the renal sinus?

- a) Nephrons

- b) Blood vessels, urine collection system, fat

- c) Renal corpuscles

- d) Ureters

- Answer: b) Blood vessels, urine collection system, fat

13. What two parts is the kidney divided into?

- a) Cortex and medulla

- b) Hilum and sinus

- c) Capsule and pelvis

- d) Calyx and ureter

- Answer: a) Cortex and medulla

14. What is a calyx?

- a) Part of the nephron

- b) Funnel-shaped structure surrounding renal pyramid tips

- c) Blood vessel in the kidney

- d) Nerve ending in the kidney

- Answer: b) Funnel-shaped structure surrounding renal pyramid tips

15. What is the renal pelvis?

- a) The area where urine is initially formed

- b) The cavity where blood vessels are located

- c) The funnel-shaped structure that narrows to form the ureter

- d) The fat layer surrounding the kidney

- Answer: c) The funnel-shaped structure that narrows to form the ureter

16. What is the functional unit of the kidney?

- a) Nephron

- b) Glomerulus

- c) Ureter

- d) Bowman's capsule

- Answer: a) Nephron

17. How many nephrons are in each kidney?

- a) 100,000

- b) 500,000

- c) 1.3 million

- d) 2 million

- Answer: c) 1.3 million

18. What structures make up a nephron?

- a) Renal corpuscle, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule

- b) Renal artery, renal vein, ureter

- c) Renal capsule, renal sinus, renal pelvis

- d) Calyx, medulla, cortex

- Answer: a) Renal corpuscle, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule

19. Where does fluid enter the nephron?

- a) Proximal tubule

- b) Loop of Henle

- c) Distal tubule

- d) Renal corpuscle

- Answer: d) Renal corpuscle

20. What is the path of fluid through the nephron?

- a) Proximal tubule → loop of Henle → distal tubule → collecting duct

- b) Distal tubule → loop of Henle → proximal tubule → collecting duct

- c) Loop of Henle → proximal tubule → renal corpuscle → collecting duct

- d) Collecting duct → proximal tubule → loop of Henle → distal tubule

- Answer: a) Proximal tubule → loop of Henle → distal tubule → collecting duct

21. What percentage of nephrons are juxtamedullary?

- a) 10%

- b) 15%

- c) 50%

- d) 85%

- Answer: b) 15%

22. What are the other 85% of nephrons called?

- a) Medullary nephrons

- b) Cortical nephrons

- c) Renal nephrons

- d) Pelvic nephrons

- Answer: b) Cortical nephrons

23. What are the components of the renal corpuscle?

- a) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus

- b) Proximal tubule and distal tubule

- c) Loop of Henle and collecting duct

- d) Renal artery and renal vein

- Answer: a) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus

24. What cells are found in the inner layer of Bowman's capsule?

- a) Erythrocytes

- b) Neurons

- c) Podocytes

- d) Fibroblasts

- Answer: c) Podocytes

#### Ureters, Urinary Bladder, and Urethra

25. What do the ureters do?

- a) Store urine

- b) Carry urine from kidneys to bladder

- c) Filter blood

- d) Produce hormones

- Answer: b) Carry urine from kidneys to bladder

26. Where is the urinary bladder located?

- a) In the abdominal cavity

- b) Behind the peritoneum

- c) In the pelvic cavity

- d) In the thoracic cavity

- Answer: c) In the pelvic cavity

27. What is the function of the urinary bladder?

- a) To produce urine

- b) To store urine

- c) To filter blood

- d) To secrete hormones

- Answer: b) To store urine

28. What is the maximum volume of urine the bladder can hold?

- a) 500 mL

- b) 750 mL

- c) 1000 mL

- d) 1500 mL

- Answer: c) 1000 mL

29. Where does the urethra carry urine?

- a) From the kidneys to the bladder

- b) From the bladder to the outside of the body

- c) From the kidneys to the outside of the body

- d) From the ureters to the kidneys

- Answer: b) From the bladder to the outside of the body

30. What is the trigone?

- a) The portion of the bladder located between the openings of the ureters and urethra

- b) The inner layer of Bowman's capsule

- c) The functional unit of the kidney

- d) The structure that surrounds the renal pyramid tips

- **Answer: a) The

portion of the bladder located between the openings of the ureters and urethra**

31. What controls the flow of urine through the urethra in males?

- a) Renal corpuscle

- b) Proximal tubule

- c) Internal urinary sphincter

- d) Podocytes

- Answer: c) Internal urinary sphincter

32. What is the main difference in the urethra between males and females?

- a) The male urethra is shorter than the female urethra

- b) The female urethra is longer than the male urethra

- c) The male urethra extends through the penis, while the female urethra is shorter and opens into the vestibule

- d) There is no difference

- Answer: c) The male urethra extends through the penis, while the female urethra is shorter and opens into the vestibule

#### Urine Production

33. What are the main components of urine?

- a) Water, organic waste products, and excess ions

- b) Blood cells, proteins, and lipids

- c) Hormones, enzymes, and glucose

- d) Vitamins, minerals, and amino acids

- Answer: a) Water, organic waste products, and excess ions

34. What are the three critical processes in the formation of urine?

- a) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion

- b) Absorption, digestion, excretion

- c) Circulation, respiration, perspiration

- d) Synthesis, degradation, elimination

- Answer: a) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion

35. What is filtration?

- a) Movement of substances from the blood into the nephron

- b) Movement of substances from the nephron back into the blood

- c) Transport of waste products across the wall of the nephron

- d) Production of erythropoietin

- Answer: a) Movement of substances from the blood into the nephron

36. What is reabsorption?

- a) Movement of substances from the nephron into the blood

- b) Movement of waste products across the wall of the nephron

- c) Filtration of blood into the nephron

- d) Production of urine

- Answer: a) Movement of substances from the nephron into the blood

37. What is secretion?

- a) Movement of water and ions into Bowman's capsule

- b) Transport of substances from the interstitial fluid into the nephron

- c) Movement of proteins into the nephron

- d) Reabsorption of useful substances from the filtrate

- Answer: b) Transport of substances from the interstitial fluid into the nephron

38. What is the filtrate?

- a) Blood plasma that enters the nephron

- b) Substances reabsorbed into the blood

- c) Waste products in the urine

- d) Hormones produced by the kidneys

- Answer: a) Blood plasma that enters the nephron

39. What happens during tubular reabsorption?

- a) Filtrate is produced

- b) Substances are reabsorbed from the filtrate into the blood

- c) Waste products are secreted into the nephron

- d) Urine is eliminated from the body

- Answer: b) Substances are reabsorbed from the filtrate into the blood

40. What by-product is produced when proteins are metabolized?

- a) Urea

- b) Creatinine

- c) Uric acid

- d) Ammonia

- Answer: d) Ammonia

41. How is ammonia converted into a less toxic substance?

- a) By the kidneys

- b) By the liver

- c) By the stomach

- d) By the intestines

- Answer: b) By the liver

42. What is tubular secretion responsible for?

- a) Producing urine

- b) Reabsorbing useful substances

- c) Transporting waste products into the nephron

- d) Converting ammonia into urea

- Answer: c) Transporting waste products into the nephron

#### Urine Movement

43. What activates the micturition reflex?

- a) Blood pressure

- b) Stretch of the bladder wall

- c) Filtration in the nephron

- d) Hormonal signals

- Answer: b) Stretch of the bladder wall

44. What happens when the bladder fills with urine?

- a) Pressure decreases

- b) Stretch receptors in the bladder wall are stimulated

- c) Urine production stops

- d) The kidneys stop filtering blood

- Answer: b) Stretch receptors in the bladder wall are stimulated

45. Where are action potentials conducted from the bladder?

- a) To the brain

- b) To the spinal cord

- c) To the liver

- d) To the intestines

- Answer: b) To the spinal cord

46. What do parasympathetic action potentials cause?

- a) Relaxation of the bladder

- b) Contraction of the bladder

- c) Filtration in the nephron

- d) Reabsorption in the nephron

- Answer: b) Contraction of the bladder

47. What happens to the external urinary sphincter during the micturition reflex?

- a) It contracts

- b) It relaxes

- c) It becomes tighter

- d) It secretes urine

- Answer: b) It relaxes

#### Additional Questions