HRM

CHAPTER 1

1. The basic functions of the management process include all of the following EXCEPT

planning

organizing

outsourcing

leading

2. ________ is the right to make decisions, to direct the work of others, and to give orders.

A) Leadership

B) Authority

C) Management

D) Responsibility

3. Which of the following best defines line authority?

a) management over a small staff in a public firm

b) management with flexible decision-making powers

c) a manager's right to advise other managers or employees

d) a manager's right to issue orders to other managers or employees

4. Which of the following is most likely a line function of the human resource manager?

A) ensuring that line managers are implementing HR policies

B) advising top managers about how to implement EEO laws

c) representing the interests of employees to senior management

D) directing the activities of subordinates in the HR department

5. All of the following are major areas in which an HR manager assists and advises line managers EXCEPT ________.

a) recruiting

c) strategic business planning

b) hiring

d) compensation

6. Which of the following areas is NOT a major area where human resource managers assist and advise line managers?

a) recruiting

b) hiring

c) compensation

d) performance management

7. Which is NOT one of the five main types of digital technologies driving the functionality of HR professionals

A) Email

B) Social media

C) Mobile applications

D) Cloud computing

8. What term refers to the knowledge, skills, and abilities of a firm's workers?

a) human resources

b) human capital

c) intangible assets

d) contingent personnel

9. Tools such as Twitter, Facebook, and LinkedIn that can be used to recruit new employees are known as:

a) data analytics

b) social media

c) mobile applications

d) cloud computing

10.  Which of the following is an aspect of "distributed" HR?

A) more centralized HRM decisions

HRM tasks redistributed to the company's employees and line managers

c) more paperwork

D) HR professional embedded in all departments

11. Which function of the management process requires a manager to establish goals and to develop rules and procedures?

a) planning

b) organizing

c) staffing

d) leading

12. Which of the following includes five basic functions—planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling?

a) a job analysis

b) strategic management

c) the management process

d) adaptability screening

Chapter 2:

1. ________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them.

A) Recruitment

B) Selection

C) Job analysis

D) Workforce planning

2. The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as ________.

a) internal recruiting

b) succession planning

c) long-term forecasting

d) advanced interviewing

3. A firm's ________ should guide employment planning and determine the types of skills and competencies the firm needs.

a) job analysis

b) organization chart

c) marketing planning

d) strategic business planning

4. Succession planning requires three steps: _____, develop inside candidates, assess and choose those who will fill

a) identify key needs

b) job specifications

c) global trends

d) labor relations

5. A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because it ________.

a) overlooks the passage of time in regards to staffing

b) addresses only the financial impact of employment changes

c) assumes constant increases in worker productivity

d) overlooks the potential for changes in skills needed

6. Which of the following determines future staff needs by ratios between a causal factor & number of employees required?

a) ratio analysis

b) forecasting ratio

c) personnel ratio

d) ratio matrix

7. When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will remain the same.

a) staffing levels

b) currency rates

c) productivity levels

d) recruitment plans

8. A ________ is a graphical method used to help identify how two variables are related.

a) trend analysis

b) ratio analysis

c) scatter plot

d) productivity chart

9. When managers determine which current employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will most likely use ___.

a) scatter plots

b) skills inventories

c) estimated sales trends

d) personnel forecasts

10. Which refers to company records showing present performance and promotability of candidates for a firm's top position

a) yield pyramids

b) trend analysis charts

c) succession planning tools

d) personnel replacement charts

11. Which of the following refers to studying a firm's past employment needs over a period of years to predict future needs?

a) ratio analysis

b) trend analysis

c) graphical analysis

d) computer analysis

12. Marcus must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months, Marcus is currently working on _______.

a) screening job candidates

b) personnel planning

c) interviewing job candidates

d) writing job descriptions

CHAPTER 3

1. The information resulting from a job analysis is used for writing ________.

a) job descriptions

b) corporate objectives

c) personnel questionnairesx

d) training requirements

2. All of the following will most likely be collected by a human resources specialist through a job analysis EXCEPT ______

a) work activities

b) human behaviors

c) performance standardsx

d) employee benefits options

3. Which of the following most likely depends on a job's required skills, safety hazards, and degree of responsibility?

a) employee compensation

b) organizational culture

c) annual training requirements

D) OSHA and EEO compliance

4. The ________ lists a job's specific duties as well as the skills and training needed to perform a particular job.

a) organization chart

b) job analysis

c) work aid

d) job description

5. Jennifer has been assigned the task of conducting a job analysis. What should be Jennifer's first step in

a) deciding how the gathered information will be used

b) collecting data on job activities and working conditions

c) selecting representative job positions to assess

d) reviewing relevant background information

6. Which of the following data collection techniques would be most useful when writing a job description for a engineer?

a) distributing position analysis questionnaires

b) interviewing employees

c) analyzing organization charts

d) developing a job process chart

7. Which of the following is a written statement that describes the activities, responsibilities, working conditions

a) job specification

b) job analysis

c) job description

d) job context

8. Which of the following refers to the human requirements needed for a job, such as education, skills, and personality?

a) job specifications

b) job analysis

b) job analysis

D) job descriptions

9. All of the following requirements are typically addressed in job specifications EXCEPT

a) desired personality traits

b) required education levels

c) necessary experience

d) working conditions

10. Which of the following indicates the division of work within a firm and the lines of authority and communication?

d) corporate overview

d) corporate overview

xC) organization chart

d) corporate overview

11. A(n) ________ shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from a job being analyzed.

a) organization chart

b) process chart

d) job description

d) job description

12. A workflow analyst would most likely focus on which of the following?

a) methods used by the firm to accomplish tasks

b) behaviors needed to complete specific work

c) a single, identifiable work process

d) a quantifiable worker skill

13. During job analysis, it is important to ______ before collecting data about specific job duties and working conditions.

a) test job questionnaires on a small group of workers

b) confirm the job activity list with employees

c) select a sample of similar jobs to analyze

d) assemble the job specifications list

14. The fourth step in conducting a job analysis most likely involves collecting data about all of the following EXCEPT ____

a) required employee abilities

b) typical working conditions

c) employee turnover rates

d) specific job activities

15. What is the final step in conducting a job analysis?

a) writing a job description and job specifications

b) validating all of the collected job data

c) collecting data on specific job activities

d) reviewing relevant background information

16. Murray emphasizes a desire for detail-oriented employees with strong social skills as indicated in the firm's job _____.

a) specifications

b) analysis

c) reports

d) descriptions

17. The primary drawback of performing a job analysis regards the ________.

a) unverifiable data a job analysis typically provides

b) certification required to conduct a job analysis

c) amount of time a job analysis takes to complete

d) redundant information gathered during a job analysis

18. Job ________ means assigning workers additional same-level activities.

a) enrichment

b) assignment

c) enlargement

d) rotation

19. Which of the following terms refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another?

a) job rotation

b) job enrichment

c) job enlargement

d) job adjustment

20. Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data?

A) Interviews are a complicated method for collecting information

B) Employees may exaggerate or minimize some information.

C) Interviews provide only general information about a worker's duties.

D) Interviews may require managers to reveal the job analysis function.

21. For which of the following jobs is direct observation NOT a recommended method for collecting job analysis data?

a) assembly-line worker

b) accounting clerk

c) attorney

d) nurse

22. Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using questionnaires to gather job analysis information?

A) Questionnaires are the most expensive method of collecting data.

B) Supervisors are required to verify all collected questionnaire data.

C) Questionnaires are too open-ended for statistical information.

D) Developing and testing questionnaires is time-consuming.

CHAPTER 4

1. What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process?

a) performing initial screening interviews

b) building a pool of candidates

c) performing candidate background checks

d) deciding what positions to fill

2. ________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them.

A) Recruitment

C) Job analysis

C) Job analysis

D) Workforce planning

3. Bob needs to find and attract applicants to his company's open positions, which is known as ________.

a) trend analysis

b) engagement

c) staffing

d) employee recruiting

4. Recruiting is necessary to ________.

a) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates

b) forecast the short-term supply of o

c) create positive word-of-mouth about a firm

d) develop an applicant pool

5. A _____ is used to calculate the number of applicants a firm must generate to hire the required number of new employees.

a) trend analysis

b) ratio analysis

c) recruiting yield pyramid

d) scatter plot

6. All of the following are characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT ________.

a) listing the job's attributes

b) providing the job's pay rate

c) publicizing the open job to employees

d) indicating the preferred number of applicants

7. Which of the following is NOT a tool used by firms to recruit outside candidates?

a) newspaper advertising

b) intranet job postings

c) employment agencies

d) online job boards

8. When constructing a job advertisement, all of the following are aspects of the AIDA guide EXCEPT ________.

a) attracting attention to the ad

b) implying long-term benefits

c) prompting applicant action

d) developing interest in the job

9. Which of the following is a primary goal of college recruiters?

a) building relationships with college career centers

b) cutting future recruiting costs for the firm

c) developing a pool of temporary workers

d) attracting good candidates

10. What is an advantage of using employee referral campaigns?

A) Local, hourly workers can be recruited quickly.

B) Applicants have received realistic job previews.

C) Rewards and incentives are eliminated.

D) Applicants have community ties.

11. Which Web site is increasingly serving as a recruitment source for passive job candidates?

A) Career Builder

B) You Tube

D) Monster

C) LinkedIn

12. Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards?

a) employment malpractice

b) negligent hiring

c) improper hiring

d) invalid screening

13. Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool?

a) telephone reference

b) reference letter

c) interview

d) personality test

14. According to the text, selection interviews are classified by all of the following factors EXCEPT ________.

a) administration

b) structure

c) content

d) length

15. What is the type of interview which lists the questions ahead of time?

a) structured interview

b) unstructured interview

c) situational interview

d) behavioral interview

16. Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview?

a) directive

b) nondirective

c) unformatted

d) administrative

17. Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job candidates?

a) allows candidates to ask questions

b) uses a manager's time more effectively

c) pursues points of interest as they develop

d) scores and compares candidates with consistency

18. Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the employee selection process?

a) higher potential for bias

b) limited validity and reliability

c) inconsistency across candidates

d) reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions

19. Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question and rate one applicant?

a) serial interview

b) board interview

c) sequential interview

d) mass interview

20. An employer can most likely increase the reliability of a panel interview by ________.

a) using an unstructured interview format

b) interviewing multiple candidates simultaneously

c) providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers

d) requiring candidates to participate in work sampling techniques

21. Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacancies in a firm?

a) lack of knowledge regarding a candidate's strengths

b) potential to lose employees who aren't promoted

c) questionable commitment of candidates to the firm

d) significant training and orientation requirements

CHAPTER 5

1. Which of the following terms refers to helping new employees appreciate the values and culture of a firm?

a) onboarding

b) outsourcing

c) organizing

d) offshoring

2. All of the following topics are typically addressed during employee orientation EXCEPT

a) employee benefits

b) personnel policies

c) work behavior expectations

d) wage curves

3. What is the first step in the ADDIE training process?

a) assessing the program's successes

b) appraising the program's budget

c) analyzing the training need

d) acquiring training materials

4. What is the second step in the ADDIE training process?

a) developing training aids

b) defining the training objectives

c) designing the overall training program

d) designating employees who need training

5. Which of the following will most likely occur during the third step of the ADDIE training process?

a) training a targeted group

b) creating training materials

c) evaluating the success of the program

d) estimating a budget for the training program

6. Which of the following would most likely occur during the fourth step of the ADDIE training process?

a) holding on-the-job training sessions

b) selecting employees for training

c) preparing online training materials

d) asking participants for feedback

7. What is the final step in the ADDIE training process?

a) evaluating the program's successes or failures

b) rewarding employees for program participat

c) conducting a budget and needs analysis

d) training the targeted group of employees

8. Trainees should be provided practice and be allowed to work at their own pace during a training session in order to ___.

a) screen applicants based on ability

b) transfer skills more easily to the job

c) reduce training costs

d) determine appropriate pay scales

9. ________ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires.

A) Needs analysis

B) Task analysis

C) Training strategy

D) Development planning

10. Employers will most likely use all of the following methods to identify training needs for new employees EXCEPT ________

a) analyzing job descriptions

b) reviewing performance standards

c) questioning current job holders

d) conducting a work sampling

11. All of the following are types of on-the-job training EXCEPT ________.

a) programmed learning

b) understudy method

c) special assignments

d) job rotation

12. The on-the-job method of ______ involves give lower-level executives firsthand experience in working on actual problems.

a) coaching

b) informal learning

c) special assignments

d) programmed learning

13. When jobs consist of steps and are best taught step-by-step, the most appropriate training method to use is ________.

a) job instruction training

b) apprenticeship training

c) programmed learning

d) job rotation

14. Which of the following will most likely help a speaker improve the effectiveness of a training lecture?

a) opening with a familiar joke

b) talking from a prepared script

c) watching the audience's body language

d) using exaggerated hand gestures to emphasize points

15. American Airlines uses flight simulators to train pilots about equipment and safety measures. This is an example of _

a) on-the-job training

b) vestibule training

c) virtual reality training

d) programmed learning

16. All of the following are characteristics of most interactive training programs, such as simulations, EXCEPT ________.

a) mastery of learning

B) responsive feedback

c) increased learning time

d) increased retention

CHAPTER 6

1. The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance appraisal is to motivate employees to ___.

a) apply for managerial positions

b) remove any performance deficiencies

c) revise their performance standards

d) enroll in work-related training programs

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines for setting effective employee goals?

a) creating specific goals

b) assigning measurable goals

c) administering consequences for failure to meet goals

d) encouraging employees to participate in setting goals

3. SMART goals are best described as ________.

a) specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely

b) straightforward, meaningful, acces

c) strategic, moderate, achievable, relevant, and timely

d) supportive, meaningful, attainable, real, and timely

4. All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee's performance EXCEPT ________.

a) correcting any work-related deficiencies

b) creating an organizational strategy map

c) determining appropriate salary and bonuses

d) making decisions about promotions

5. In most organizations, who is primarily responsible for appraising an employee's performance?

a) employee's direct supervisor

b) company appraiser

c) human resources manager

d) employee's subordinates

6. Which of the following is most likely NOT a role played by the HR department in the performance appraisal process?

a) conducting appraisals of employees

b) monitoring the appraisal system's effectiveness

c) providing performance appraisal training to supervisors

D) ensuring the appraisal system's compliance with EEO laws

7. What is the first step of any performance appraisal?

a) giving feedback

b) setting work standards

c) making plans to provide training

d) assessing the employee's performance

8. Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate employee's performance for the purposes of a performance appraisal?

a) customers

b) rating committees

c) top management

d) immediate supervisor

9. Employee performance appraisals are conducted by all of the following EXCEPT ________.

a) peers

b) competitors

c) subordinates

d) rating committees

10. Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a ________.

a) reduction of social loafing

b) reduction of group cohesion

c) decrease in task motivation

d) decrease in group satisfaction

11. What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for performance appraisals?

A) Ratings are reliable but invalid.

B) Ratings are subject to halo effects.

C) Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors.

D) Ratings are about the same as when determined by peers.

12. According to research, what is the typical result of upward feedback?

A) Firms are protected against biased appraisals.

B) Managers get defensive.

C) Managers improve their performance.

D) Managers seek to find out who gave them bad ratings.

13. All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT ________.

a) generic dimensions of performance

b) performance of co-workers

c) achievement of objectives

d) job-related competencies

14. Which performance appraisal tool requires supervisors to categorize employees from best to worst on various traits?

a) graphic rating scale

b) critical incident method

c) alternation ranking method

d) electronic performance monitoring

15. Which of the following measurement methods is similar to grading on a curve?

a) forced distribution

b) graphic rating scale

c) constant sums rating

d) behaviorally anchored rating scale

16. Which of the following is a downside of the critical incident method of compiling incidents?

a) doesn't provide examples of excellent work performance

b) doesn't produce relative ratings for pay raise purposes

doesn't make the supervisor think about thesubordinate's appraisal all year

d) doesn't compile examples of ineffective work performance

17. The first step in developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale is to ________.

a) develop performance dimensions

b) write critical incidents

c) reallocate incidents

d) scale incidents

18. What is the primary goal of using mixed standard scales?

a) improving validity

b) reducing rating errors

c) clarifying performance standards

d) illustrating feedback for subordinates

19. All of the following are benefits of using computerized or Web-based performance appraisal systems EXCEPT ________.

a) merging examples with performance ratings

b) helping managers maintain computerized notes

c) combining different performance appraisal tools

d) enabling managers to monitor employees' computers

20. Graphic rating scales are subject to all of the following problems EXCEPT _______

a) unclear standards

b) halo effects

c) complexity

d) leniency

21. A supervisor who frequently rates all employees as average on performance appraisals most likely has a problem of_____

a) halo effect

b) stereotyping

c) central tendency

d) leniency

22. Which performance appraisal problem is associated with supervisors giving their subordinates consistently high ratings?

a) central tendency

b) leniency

c) strictness

d) halo effect

23. Which of the follow is the best method for reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals?

a) keep critical incident logs

b) require multiple appraisals

c) impose a performance distribution

d) reconsider the timing of the appraisal

24. Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause a supervisor's performance appraisal of a subordinate to be biased?

a) purpose of the appraisal

b) location and time of the appraisal

c) personal characteristics of the subordinate

d) relationship between supervisor and subordinate

CHAPTER 7

1. Which of the following terms refers to all forms of pay or rewards going to employees and arising from their employment?

a) salary

b) employee benefits

c) wage reimbursement

d) employee compensation

2. Which of the following is NOT a type of direct financial payment?

a) wages

b) insurance

c) incentives

d) commissions

3. Which of the following terms refers to pay in the form of financial benefits, such as insurance?
   a) direct financial payments

b) out-of-pocket expenses

c) indirect financial payments

d) sales commissions

4. Which of the following terms refers to a compensation plan that advances a firm's strategic goals?

a) strategic management

b) performance pay plan

c) aligned reward strategy

d) workers' compensation package

5. Which of the following is NOT one of the forms of equity related to compensation issues?

a) group

b) external

c) individual

d) procedural

6. Which form of equity refers to how a job's pay rate in one company compares to the job's pay rate in other companies?

a) distributive

b) internal

c) external

d) procedural

7. Which form of equity refers to the fairness of a job's pay rate in comparison to other jobs within the same company?

a) external

b) internal

c) distributive

d) individual

8. Which form of equity refers to the perceived fairness of the processes used to make decisions on the allocation of pay?

a) internal

b) distributive

c) individual

d) procedural

9. Which of the following is used to maintain internal equity?

a) job analysis comparisons

b) organizational charts

c) incentive pay

d) salary surveys

10. What type of equity is a manager likely trying to maintain through the use of performance appraisals and incentive pay?

a) internal

b) external

c) individual

d) procedural

11. Beth, a small business owner, wants to ensure external equity when establishing pay rates. Beth should most likely ____.

a) use wage curves to price each pay grade

b) compare performance appraisals

c) conduct a salary survey

d) check online pay sites

12. Which job evaluation method is used by most modern employers?

a) job classification method

b) job grading method

c) ranking method

d) point method

13. A ________ is comprised of jobs of approximately equal difficulty or importance as established by job evaluation.

a) wage curve

b) benchmark

c) pay grade

d) class

14. Which of the following terms refers to a series of steps or levels within a pay grade?

a) pay metric

b) pay range

c) wage class

d) wage curve

15. Which of the following questions is most relevant to developing a market-competitive pay system?

A) What is the ranking of each job?

B) What is the relevant labor market?

C) What percentage of workers are contingent?

D) What are the local and federal pay regulations?

16. A company using competency-based pay compensates employees for all of the following EXCEPT ________.

a) behaviors

b) job title

c) knowledge

d) skills

17. Which of the following terms refers to an incentive plan that ties a group's pay to the firm's profitability?

a) piecework

b) variable pay

c) pay-for-performance

d) merit pay

18. Which of the following is the primary advantage of piecework plans?

a) powerful incentive to workers

b) workers earn efficiency bonuses

c) firms save on overtime wages

d) entices independent contractors

19. Studies indicate that in order for merit pay to be most effective, it should be linked to ________.

a) company profits

b) annual base salary

c) employee overtime

d) employee performance

20. Using a straight salary to compensate salespeople is most likely ineffective because it ________.

a) discourages sales flexibility

b) lacks connection to performance

c) makes it hard to switch territories

d) depends on annual corporate profits