State Board Midterm

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following is a reason cosmetologists should understand hair and scalp properties?

с. Identifying hair growth cycles and the differences between common and uncommon hair loss will help when recommending hair loss treatments to the client.

2. All of the following are living portions of hair that are below the skin surface EXCEPT

C. the hair follicle

3. Which part of the living portion of the hair is defined as the structure in the skin or scalp that surrounds the hair root and anchors the hair in the skin?

b. the hair bulb

4. Which portion of the hair root structure supplies nutrients so that the hair can grow?

b. the dermal papilla

5. Each of the following is a layer of the hair shaft structure EXCEPT

b. the hair fiber

6. Which sentence best describes the medulla?

C. The medulla is the hair's pith or core.

7. Which layer of the hair shaft provides strength, elasticity, and color?

d. the cortex

8. Which of the following is a situation in which a cosmetologist would allow the hair to cool before styling?

B. when hydrogen side bonds have been broken by the heat from a curling iron

9. If a cosmetologist holds a strand of hair with one hand while sliding the other hand's thumb and forefinger from the end of the strand to the client's scalp, what component of the hair is being analyzed?

A. porosity

10. Which component of hair is defined as the thickness or diameter of an individual hair strand?

C. texture

11. Which of the following can be a cause of dry hair and dry scalp?

b.inactive sebaceous glands

12. Which of the following best describes a procedure a cosmetologist could use to determine how quickly hair will process during chemical servicing?

a. Feel a strand of hair to determine the hair's texture.

13. Which statement best describes what may have happened to cause a client's hair to grow in a whorl pattern?
C. The strands of hair in the whorl are leaving the follicles at an angle different from the surrounding hair

14. Each of the following is one of the main types of body hair EXCEPT
D. anagen hair

15. What is the phase of the hair growth cycle in which the hair can shed?

c. Telogen phase

16. In which phase of the hair growth cycle does the follicle canal shrink and detach from the dermal papilla?

d. catagen phase

17. Which of the following conclusions can a cosmetologist make if a client expresses concern about not being able to grow the hair beyond shoulder length?

a. The anagen phase of the client's hair growth is shorter than the anagen phase in other people's hair growth, so the client's hair will not grow any longer.

18.The hair, skin, nails, and glands are part of the ____ system.

b.integumentary

19. What is the outermost layer of hair?

C. hair cuticle

20. Hair is approximately ___ percent protein..

d. 90

21. A long chain of amino acids linked by peptide bonds is called a ___

d. polypeptide chain

22. The three different types of side bonds that link chains of amino acids together are ___.

d. hydrogen, salt, and disulfide

23. Which type of hair has the largest diameter and usually requires more processing?

b. coarse hair

24. The measurement that describes the number of individual hair strands on 1 square inch of the scalp is hair

d. density

25. The ability of the hair to absorb moisture is hair

a. porosity

26. What is the growth phase during which new hair is produced?

C.anagen

27. Which of the following is true about hair?

b. Hair growth rate is determined by genetics.

28. The following are all reasons a cosmetologist should understand hair and scalp disorders and diseases ЕХСЕРТ

b. Understanding the cause of a client's hair loss is necessary to determine which surgical hair replacement techniques to recommend.

29. Which of the following is a reason cosmetologists should understand hair and scalp disorders and diseases?

a. Cosmetologists can better recommend client hair loss treatments if they can identify the differences between common and irregular hair loss.

30. Which type of alopecia is defined as hair loss in round or irregularly shaped patches caused by the immune system attacking hair follicles?

d. alopecia areata

31. The following are all causes of hair loss EXCEPT

C. extreme stress

32. Which hair disorder causes terminal hair to grow on areas of a woman's body where terminal hair typically does not grow?

a. hirsuties

33. Which sentence best describes a client with the disorder monilethrix?

D. The client's hair has a beaded appearance due to narrowing of the hair shaft.

34. The following are all true statements about congenital canities EXCEPT:
a. can be caused by narrowing of the hair shaft.

35. Which treatment is recommended for a client with trichorrhexis nodosa?

b. Softening the hair with conditioners

36. What would result if a cosmetologist treated a client with trichoptilosis by conditioning and moisturizing the hair?

c. The hair would be softened, but the damage would not be repaired.

37. What hair disorder is caused by loss of the hair's natural pigment?

d. canities

38. What behavior best explains why a client may be dealing with pediculosis capitis?
b. The client is not being careful about limiting contact with other people's heads, both directly and indirectly.

39. What is the cause of pityriasis?

d. fungal infection

40. If a client's hair is brittle and there are circular-shaped lesions on the scalp with red spots at the opening of the hair follicles, the client is likely infected with

b. tinea capitis

41.A cosmetologist is able provide treatment for
c. Trichoptilosis

42.An example of a parasitic infection is

d. pediculosis capitis

43. What are indications that a client is infected with scabies?

a. The client complains of itchiness and a bumpy rash with blisters on the scalp.

44. The complete loss of all body hair is known as

a. alopecia universalis

45.Temporary hair loss experienced at the end of a pregnancy is called

b. postpartum alopecia

46. What is the technical term for beaded hair?

d. monilethrix

47. What is a condition that is characterized by brittleness and the formation of nodular swellings along the hair shaft?

a. fragilitas crinium

48. What is the technical term for brittle hair?

d. fragilitas crinium

49. What term refers to an acute, localized bacterial infection of the hair follicle that produces constant pain?

d. tinea

50. All of the following are reasons cosmetologists should study and have a thorough understanding of hair design principles EXCEPT

C. understanding hair design principles enables cosmetologists to convince their clients to try their hair styled in a way they don't typically have it styled

51.Which of the five planning steps to bringing a design to life involves a stylist learning and growing from past design mistakes?

c. Try and try again.

52.All of the following are planning steps in bringing a design to life EXCEPT:

d. Consult a mentor.

53. Which element of hair design relates to the mass or general outline of a hairstyle?

b. form

54. How is the hair design element space defined?
C. Space is what defines the mass of the hairstyle and the area the hairstyle occupies.

55. Which design lines are repeating lines in a hairstyle that can be curved or straight?
C. parallel lines

56.Which of the following statements is true about proportion in hair design?
c. The classic guide for proportion is that hair should not be wider than the center of the shoulders.

57.A client with a petite frame and narrow hips and shoulders is discussing a new hairstyle with a cosmetologist. The client describes a popular, voluminous hairstyle as an option. What should the cosmetologist consider when discussing the desired style with the client?

D. The cosmetologist should consider whether the hairstyle will be proportional to the clients body type

58. The standard reference point that is the widest area on the head is the

a. parietal ridge apex

59. If a cosmetologist is styling the hair below the occipital bone, on which area of the head is the cosmetologist working?
b. the nape

60. Which description is true of very curly, fine hair?

C. Very curly, fine hair responds well to a blowdryer and thermal flat iron.

61. What is a problem when trying to style straight, fine hair?

b. Straight, fine hair hugs the head shape, which can separate the hair, revealing the scalp if the hair is too long.

62. A new client would like to know their hair type on the André Walker Hair Typing System. To determine the client's hair type in this system, what should the cosmetologist consider during the consultation with the client?

c. The cosmetologist should determine the hair's texture and density.

63. How should a cosmetologist determine whether a client has a square facial type?

C. Look for facial contours that are wide at the temples, narrow at the middle third of the face, and squared off at the jaw.

64. If a cosmetologist observes that a client's face has a wide jaw and chin line with a narrow forehead, which face shape does the client have?
a. triangular

65. A client with a round face type will be best complemented by a hairstyle that

adds volume on the top and is close to the sides of the head

66.What hairstyle best complements a profile that has a receding forehead and chin?
c. Softly style the hair at the nape with an upward movement while deemphasizing the hair on the forehead.

67.What lower face proportions are best complemented by hair that is full and falls below the jaw?

b. a long jaw

68. What colors should a stylist consider using to create the illusion of more hair volume?

A. Light, warm colors

69. The basic design line type that creates length and height in a hairstyle is
b. vertical lines

70.An element of a hairstyle design that attracts the eye represents the design principle
d.emphasis

71.To locate the parietal ridge, a stylist would place a comb

a.flat on the side of the head

72. The area of the head that begins at the apex and ends at the front corners is called

b. bang area

73. A stylist is preparing to perform a permanent waving chemical service on a client with straight, coarse hair. The last time the stylist performed this service with the client, the results were not satisfactory, as the hair did not curl as much as was intended. Which of the following is a consideration the stylist should take into account before performing this service again?

C. The client's hair pattern and texture are moisture resistant, so the chemical service may take longer to process.

74. Why should a stylist cut curly, coarse hair when it is dry?

с. Curly, coarse hair shrinks as it dries, so it will appear much shorter if cut wet.

75. The five basic elements of three-dimensional hair design are line, form, space, design texture, and

C. color

76. The regular pulsation or recurrent pattern of movement in a design is known as the

c. rhythm

77. The basic hair textures are fine, medium, and .

d. coarse

78. The outline of the face, head, and figure seen in a side view is known as the

A. Profile

79.___ back partings are used to create the illusion of width or height in a hairstyle.

b. diagonal

80. Each of the following is a reason cosmetologists should study and have a thorough understanding of haircutting EXCEPT:

b. Haircutting is the basic foundational skill upon which all cosmetology services are built.

81. When a cosmetologist combs hair away from its natural falling position before cutting in order to increase a hair design's length, the cosmetologist is using

d. overdirection

82. A stylist is discussing a new hairstyle with a client, who describes a style that must use layers. In order to create the layered style, what type of guideline should the stylist use?

b. traveling guideline

83. Coarse hair sticking out when cut too short is an example of the role growth pattern

d. texture

84. Which scenario best describes a situation in which a cosmetologist must consider wave and curl patterns when making cutting decisions?

a. A cosmetologist decides to cut the hair dry in order to see the true shape of the hair.

85. To execute a client's desired hairstyle, a stylist must remove large sections from the client's straight, thick hair. Which type of haircutting shears is best for this task?

d. thinning shears

86. What is the primary reason a stylist should hold haircutting shears with a proper hold? to keep the shears properly tensioned

C. To avoid ligament damage or muscle strain

87. When haircutting shears are properly held, which of the following is true?

b. The thumb is placed in the grip of the moving blade.

88. Which tasks should be accomplished with a cosmetologist's non-dominant hand while cutting hair?

a. holding the hair sections and the comb while cutting

89. What is the advantage to the stylist when palming the haircutting shears?

d. The stylist saves time by being able to switch from the comb to the shears while holding both at the same time.

90. In consultation with a stylist, a client explains behind unhappy with the way the ends of the hair sit. The client would prefer the hair to have a more feathered appearance. If the client has fine hair, what haircutting tool would be a good choice for the stylist to use on this haircut?

A. Haircutting razor

91. Which haircutting tool is best suited for cutting a clean line around the ears? blending shears

b. trimmers

92. Each of the following is a use for trimmers EXCEPT

C. tapering hairlines from extremely short to long

93. Each of the following is a use for trimmers Eensure cosmetologists protect themselves and clients, how should clients be positioned during a haircut

a. The cosmetologist moves the client by turning or changing the height of the chair.

94.In what way can stylists center their weight when cutting hair to avoid fatigue and injury?
b. When standing, keep knees slightly bent.

95. Which of the following is safe practice when cutting hair?

d. When cutting below the fingers, do not cut past the second knuckle.

96. A client confesses to being unhappy with the last haircut. When asked to explain, the client says the curls were too short. What could the stylist do while cutting the client's hair to ensure the curly hair does not appear too short?
The stylist should increase tension.

C. The stylists should cut the hair dry.

97. When sylists part the haircut in the opposite way from how it was cut, at the same elevation, what are they checking for?

d. line and shape precision

98. A stylist executing a graduated haircut should do which of the following?

A. Cut with a 45-degree elevation at the back and a 90-degree elevation for the layers.

99. If a cosmetologist sections a client's hair into five partings, which basic haircut is being performed?

c. the uniform-layered haircut

100. The basic haircut that is cut at a 90-degree elevation, then overdirected to maintain length and weight at perimeter is the

a. long-layered haircut

101. A client wants bangs long enough to be pulled back. Which type of bangs should the stylist create?

a. center swept bangs

102. A benefit of using the shear-over-comb technique is it allows for

b. short tapers that go from extremely short length to longer length

103. How is texturizing hair by point cutting different from texturizing hair by effilating?

B. Point cutting uses the tips of the shears, whereas effilating uses the blades of the shears.

104. If a stylist wishes to use a razor to produce a softer perimeter on the hair, which razor texturizing technique should be used?

d. free-hand slicing

105. Which basic texturizing technique works well on curly hair because it removes density without adding too many layers?

b. free-hand notching

106. In order to best create a flat top or square shape haircut, how should a stylist use clippers?

b. Use the clipper-over-comb technique.

107. Which option best describes a benefit of using length guard attachments on clippers?

a. Length guard attachments are an easy way to quickly perform a short haircut.

108. An important element in creating a strong foundation and consistency in haircutting and creating shapes is the use of

A. angles

109.The ___ is the direction in which hair grows from the scalp and is also called the natural falling position.

B. Growth pattern

110. A tension in your shears that is too __ will allow your shears to fold the hair

c. loose

111.Which type of comb is used mainly to detangle the hair

b.wide tooth comb

112. ______in haircutting is the amount of pressure applied when combing or holding a subsection during a haircut

d. tension

113.What is the best way to maintain control of the subsection when cutting with a vertical or diagonal cutting line?

c. palm to palm

114.______reduces strain on the index finger and thumb while combing the hair.

d. palming the shears

115.Which method involves cutting or layering the hair in such a way that the fingers and shears glide along the edge of the hair to remove length?

b.slide cutting

116. All of the following are reasons to study braiding and braid extensions EXCEPT:

b. Federal and state employment laws with regard to natural hairstyles in the workplace are becoming stricter.

117. Consultations for braiding services require three specific considerations. All of the following are considerations EXCEPT:

a. identifying hair color

118. Alopecia is a term used to describe ______

d. abnormal hair loss

119. To stimulate the scalp, smooth dry textured hair, and remove lint and dirt from locs, use a _____

c.boar-bristle brush

120. Which comb type should be used to separate wet curly hair?

d. double-tooth comb

121. What is the name for a board containing fine, upright nails that stylists use to comb human hair extensions and blend colors and highlights?

d. hackle

122. A budget-conscious client who is getting extensions wants a long-lasting natural look. The stylist determines it would be best to use standalone extensions. Considering this information, what would the stylist recommend?

a. Kanekalon

123. Which tool is used to remove tangles in hair that is wet and wavy or dry and curly, as well as in human hair extensions?

b.vent brush

124. When a client asks for plaits, what kind of braids do they want?

d. single braids

125. What is the process for creating spiral curls on the ends of single braids that use extensions made with synthetic fibers?

b.Wrap the ends with a curling rod and dip them in hot water.

126.Which braids are created by using an inverted braid around the entire head?

c. halo braids

127. What technique is used to integrate extensions for single braids?

d. three-strand underhand

128. Which style uses extensions and shows mostly faux hair when finished?

a. tree braids

129. Which type of brush is good for releasing tangles, knots, and snarls in short, textured hair and long, straight hair?

b.square paddle

130. Which blowdryer attachment loosens the curl pattern in textured hair for braiding styles, and dries, stretches, and softens textured hair?

c.comb nozzle

131. Which manufactured synthetic fiber is used for hair extensions and is durable, soft, and less inclined to tangle than many other synthetics?

a.Kanekalon

132. The invisible braid, also known as the overhand technique or overlapping the strands of hair.

c.inverted

133._____ also known as canerows, are narrow rows of visible braids that lie close to the scalp and are created with a three-strand, on-the-scalp braiding technique.
b.cornrows

134.Which of the following is not true about loc extensions?

C.They can only be created with an extension braid wrapped in Afro-textured hair.

135. All of the following are reasons to study chemical texture services EXCEPT:

C. Salons require cosmetologists who perform haircolor services to also perform texture services as a condition of employment.

136. How do chemical hair relaxers work?

b.They increase the hair's pH balance to an alkaline state, which raises the cuticle layer and allows the relaxer to reach the cortex, where restructuring takes place.

137. A higher frequency of curl reversion occurs in relaxers that use which of the following active ingredients?

c.sodium hydroxide

138. Which statement describes no-lye relaxers?

d.Because no-lye relaxers have a lower pH, they are suitable for clients who have scalp sensitivities.

139. Hydroxide relaxers permanently straighten hair by removing one of the bonded sulfur atoms in a disulfide bond. What is the name of this process?

a.lanthionization

140. How does thio neutralization differ from hydroxide neutralization?

b.The neutralization of thio relaxers involves oxidation.

141. A client wants to straighten coarse hair. The client mentions that their hair often seems frizzy and is concerned that if their hair loses all its curl it might look even frizzier. The client also seems hesitant to make a permanent change. Which service should the cosmetologist recommend?

d. keratin treatment

When using relaxer products, why should the cosmetologist avoid using metal clips?

b.They could cause a chemical reaction when used with a relaxer.

143. Which item prevents direct contact between the client and the chemical cape?

b. neck strips

144. Under which of the following conditions can a texture service be performed?

a.A strand analysis indicates the hair has low porosity and high elasticity.

145. A client who is considering a chemical relaxer service frequently consumes highly caffeinated beverages. Why does this matter?

C.caffeine increases blood circulation, which can lead to faster irritation caused by the use of chemical relaxers.

146. Which of the following conditions would be cause for a cosmetologist to decline relaxer services?

b.The client has a pins-and-needles sensation on the scalp, and the hair is thinning.

147.How does a relaxer retouch differ from the application of a virgin relaxer?
b.A relaxer retouch is used only on new hair growth.

148.When using a virgin relaxer, apply the relaxer to the
a.midshaft first and then the ends and scalp scalp and midshaft first and then the ends ends first and then the scalp and midshaft

149. A hair analysis indicates the client has non-porous hair. Which perm type should the cosmetologist recommend?
c. alkaline/cold wave

150. What is the active ingredient in acid waves?
c.glycerol monothioglycolate (GMTG)

151. How do alkaline perms differ from acid perms?

a.Alkaline perms have a higher pH.

152.When does the majority of the processing for permanent waving occur?

b. within 5 to 10 minutes

153. To perm coarse hair, the solution must have enough ____ ions to break the required number ofdisulfide bonds

b.hydrogen

154. When a perm is processed correctly, it breaks and rebuilds how much of the hair's disulfide bonds?

b. 50 percent

155. When using perm rods, which placement minimizes the amount of stress and level of tension on the hair?

d. perpendicular to the base

156.All of the following perm rods have a uniform diameter EXCEPT:

d. concave rods

157. Which of the following items) prevents fishhooks?

b.end papers

158. Which of the following describes a proper technique for winding hair on perm rods?

c.Place one end paper under the base panel and one above the base panel so that the papers extend past the ends of the hair.

159. When dividing hair into base sections for perm wraps, how many rods are used in each section and what factors determine the size of each section?

d. one rod; length and width of the rod

160. Which service uses a thio-based chemical process and is recommended for loosening hair texture that is extremely curly into a larger curl pattern?

b. soft curl permanent

161. A client has thick hair that extends below the shoulders. The client wants to have uniform curls and volume.

b. a spiral wrap with on-base placement

162. What is the proper placement of bands on perm rods?

b. on the top

163. What should the cosmetologist instruct clients to do if perm solution drips into the eyes?

c.Flush the eyes thoroughly with cool water.

164. To what areas should protective cream be applied when performing a perm?

d. around the hairline, the nape of the neck, and both ears

165. A professional perm consultation should do all of the following EXCEPT:

b. Have the client sign an agreement to come in for follow-up texture services essential to maintaining the style.

166.Cosmetologists should recommend that clients take which of the following steps to preserve moisture after a soft curl perm?

C. wearing a processing cap while sleeping

167. What is the proper technique for unwinding test curls to check for proper development?

a. Unwind the curl two or three turns.

168. What is the main active ingredient in true acid and acid-balanced waving lotions? a.glyceryl monothioglycolate

169. Hair that has too many broken disulfide bonds and will not hold a firm curl is considered

b. overprocessed

170. The process that stops the action of permanent wave solution and rebuilds the hair into its new form is called

c.thio neutralization

171.What do the most common neutralizers contain?
c.hydrogen peroxide

172._____combines the use of a thio relaxer with flat ironing.

c.Japanese thermal straightening

173. Hair that is treated with hydroxide relaxers should not be treated with

c.thio relaxers

174. Which of the following refers to the methods used to eliminate or reduce the transmission of infectious organisms from one individual to another?

a. infection control

175. Which of the following destroys all microbial life?

a.sterilization

176. Which of the following is more likely to be governed by state regulatory agencies rather than federal regulatory agencies?

d. setting guidelines for licensing and enforcing conduct on the job

177. Which of the following would the EPA most likely be involved in regulating?

a.the safe manufacture of chemical products used in the workplace

178. Beauty professionals are permitted and encouraged to

d. refer clients with infections and abnormal conditions to physicians

179. Preventing the spread of infections is

d. easy when you know the proper procedures to follow

180. Prevention of the spread of infections begins and ends with

c.you

181. Which of the following BEST defines transmission?

b.the process by which pathogens move between individuals

182. When an individual's immune system prevents transmission, it

c.prevents illness

183. Which of the following is TRUE of direct and indirect transmission of disease?

a.Direct transmission requires contact with another person, whereas indirect transmission does not.

184. Which of the following is TRUE of diseases spread by direct transmission and indirect transmission?

diseases spread by indirect transmission can live for long periods of time away from a host, whereas those spread by direct transmission cannot.

185.The difference between respiratory droplets and airborne transmission is

C.respiratory droplets do not stay in the air as long

186. Which of the following is NOT required of disinfectants used in salons, spas, and barbershops?

a.They must be hypoallergenic.

187. Most bacteria are ___

a.nonpathogenic

188. What is a microorganism?

d. any organism of microscopic size

189.There are ___ of different kinds of bacteria, which fall into ___ primary types

c.thousands;two

190. Pathogenic bacteria

b. cause disease or infection

191.The prescence of pus is a sign of ______
a.bacterial infection

192. Inflammation is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
d.pus

193. Which of the following is TRUE of a disease that spreads from one person to another?

c.It is communicable.

194. When doctors have determined the nature of a disease, they have

d. diagnosed it

195. If you get sick as a result to overexposure to chemicals at the workplace, you have contracted a(n) __

b. occupational disease

196. Which of the following is NOT true of staphylococci?

a. Most strains make us very ill.

197. Which of the following is NOT caused by a virus?

strep throat

198.Which of the following is a type of fungi?

a.mildew

199.What are disease-causing microorganisms that are carried in the body by blood or body fluids, such as hepatitis and HIV, called?

c.bloodborne pathogens

200. HIV is spread through which of the following means?

a.from person to person through the blood

201. There are two types of parasites commonly encountered in the salon, spa, and barbershop. Which of the following is one of them?

b. pediculosis capitis

202. Which of the following is NOT true of biofilms?

a.They are highly susceptible to the body's defense mechanisms.

203. Which of the following is TRUE of sterilization?

d. It destroys all microbial life including spores.

204. The first step in infection control is

a. cleaning

205. When a surface is properly cleaned, the number of contaminants on the surface is

b. slightly reduced

206. The second step of infection control is

b.disinfecting

207. Which of the following is TRUE of the process of disinfection?

c.It eliminates most microorganisms.

208. Which of the following will NOT necessarily be on the label of an EPA-registered disinfectant?

a. the word concentrate

209. If there is no time specified or recommended by the manufacturer of the disinfectant, for how long must a tool be left fully submersed in the disinfectant?

b. 10 minutes

210. How long does it usually take for quat solutions to disinfect implements?

b. 10 minutes

211. Which of the following is TRUE of phenolic disinfectants?

c.They are known carcinogens.

212. Soaps and other products that do not have the word disinfectant on the label are a.merely cleaners

213.The CDC publishes ___ guidelines that employees and employers agree to with the assumption that any human blood or bodily fluids are potentially infectious

a.Standard Precautions

214.OSHA defines PPE as ___

a.specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard

215. How often should one change gloves?

a. after every single use after every other use

216. Which of the following should be performed after removing one pair of gloves and before putting on a new pair?

c.wash hands

217. With proper precautions in place, it is safe to perform a skin service on a client who comes in with a(n)

a. cold

218.What should you do if a tool or implement is dropped on the floor during a service?

d either replace or disinfect it prior to continuing the service.

219.What should you NEVER do with a tool or implement? a.

c.Put it in your pocket.

220. Which of the following is NOT true of ventilation and air circulation systems inside of salons, spas, and barbershops?

d. The vents for these systems can be located anywhere.

221. Which of the following is NOT true of exits in salons, spas, and barbershops?

d. They should be randomly located at the owner's discretion.

222.Fire extinguishers_____

b. must by law be checked regularly

223. Which of the following is TRUE of how a beauty professional's appearance, clothing, and other attire should look?

d. Watches should be waterproof and shock absorbent.

224. When working on the job, your cellphone should be

b. checked only between clients

225. Wilma works at a federal agency that registers all types of disinfectants sold by manufacturers and used by salons, spas, and barbershops nationwide. For which of the following federal agencies does Wilma work?

b. the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency the U.S. Department of Defense

226. Franca has recently committed a major offense against her license. Who among the following is MOST LIKELY to revoke her license?

a. the state agency

227. Yasmine worries about getting sick because she deals with many clients each day. She knows, however, that even though she cannot prevent ____she can strive to prevent

_______ disease while she's at work.

a.transmission;exposure to

228. Henry has the flu. He knows he most likely acquired the flu through direct transmission. If this is true, in which of the following ways could Henry have caught the flu?

a. by shaking a client's hand

229. Heidi is trying to avoid catching a virus that is going around the salon where she works. As part of her efforts, she has not had any physical contact with any of her coworkers. If she has in fact avoided all contact with others, and if the virus is not airborne, which of the following is TRUE?
d. If Heidi catches the virus, it will only have been through indirect transmission.

230.Jasmine's manager has requested that Jasmine mix a solution that will destroy mold. Which of the following will be MOST effective in doing so?
c.a fungicidial

231. Tony has been working hard to reduce not only his risk of infection but also the risk for all of his coworkers. Which of the following would be the LEAST effective measure for Tony to take?

d. consistent practice of only brief hand shaking with clients

232. Omar noticed that there was a small amount of blood on the tool from a cut on his finger. Which of the following is true of Omar’s implement?

a. It is contaminated.

233.Angie has noticed that the nippers she will need to use on her next client have a small amount of blood on them. What will Angie need to do to be able to use the nippers again?

b. She must decontaminate them.

234. Ursula, a beauty professional, has been diasnosed with a systemic infection. What must Ursula's condition include?

a. symptoms spread throughout her body

235. Ingrid's clients have been experiencing inflammation and pain on certain parts of their skin and bodies. Her manager determines that these complaints are most likely the results of biofilms. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY the source of the contamination?

b.Ingrid's foot spa

236. Harold's business requires a strict adherence to proper infection control. Which of the following two steps is Harold likely to use for the majority of his business?

b. clean ing and disinfecting

237. Jason has decided to take the most sweeping measure to rid his tools of all microbial life. Which of the following steps must Jason take to effectively do this?

d.Jason must sterilize his tools.

238. Jamison, a beauty pro, knows that proper hand washing helps greatly to prevent the spread of germs. How does Jamison wash his hands?

a. he rubs his hands together aggressively, creating friction

239. Brenda comes into close contact with so many clients and is careful to keep her hands clean throughout the day. As her schedule is always quite full, this often means using hand sanitizer instead of soap and water. Which of the following is an issue Brenda is MOST LIKELY to face as a result of this?

c.hands that are dry to the point of cracking

240. Javier devotes every Sunday to infection control. He spends the morning on the first step and the afternoon on the second step. It is now 3:00 p.m. What is Javier doing?

b. disinfecting

241.Samantha is using a strong disinfectant on all the surfaces around her workstation. Which of the following is the only justifiable reason Samantha did not mix a dilute into the product before she began to use it?

d.the label on the disinfectant does not have the word “concentrate” on it.

242.Because Neil makes sure all of his empoyees are familiar with all of the important disinfectant tips, he knows he will NEVER see one of them ____.

c.placing a disinfectant into a unmarked container

243.Every client Richard saw on Friday appeared to be in perfect health, showing no signs of disease, On Monday, Richard came down with a bad cold. If it is TRUE that he caught this cold from one of the clients he saw on Friday, what else must also be true?

c. The client from whom Richard aqquired his cold was asymptomatic

244.Joanna, a businesse owner, has purchased a state-of-the-art fire detection system along with six fire extinguishers, which she has discreetly stored out of the way inside cupboards. Additionally, she makes sure that her fire extinguishers are checked annually and that all her employees are well trained in their use. Where, if anywhere, has Joanna gone wrong?

a.Joanna should not be storing fire extinguishers in cupboards out of sight.

245. Daniel tells Horatio that three of his appointments were high-risk clients, for which extra care must be taken. Which of the following, if true, would mean that Daniel is INCORRECT in his belief that his clients were high risk?

c. they all had children with them

246. While working with a client, Victoria removes her gloves only once, to quickly turn on the faucet and rinse her hands. After rinsing her hands, she immediately puts on a fresh pair of gloves. If it is TRUE that Victoria's client is asymptomatic with a sickness that is not airborne, and it is also TRUE that Victoria acquired a cold while with the client, then what else must also be true?

a.Victoria caught the cold through indirect transmission.

247.This past week, there was a disease passing through Charles's workplace. Charles made sure he wore gloves all week. He never once touched a surface or another person without the gloves on. He also never put his hands to his mouth, eyes, or nose while wearing the gloves. And, just to be extra careful, Charles immediately washed his hands after he took the gloves off. Even with all of these precautions, Charles still came down with the disease. How is it possible that Charles got sick?

b.The disease was airborne.

248.Jenna and Teresa are beauty professionals discussing how clean their implements are. Jenna feels strongly that the implements have been sterilized. Teresa, however, insists that they have only been cleaned. Which of the following would prove that Jenna is right?

c.The use of an autoclave in the infection control process.

249.Alana created a disinfectant safety poster to hang in her salon with two columns: an ALWAYS column and a NEVER column. One of Alana's best professionals, however, has pointed out that a statement in one of the columns should actually be in the other column. If this beauty pro is correct, which of the following is the MISTAKE that Alana made on the poster?

c.Never add disinfectant to water when diluting.

250.For months, Xavier has been accumulating a collection of used sharp implements that he has tossed inside a drawer at his workstation. Recently he asks your opinion on what he should do with these, adding that many of them have small amounts of blood on them. When you look at the collection, you can see that virtually all of the pieces are no longer usable. Which of the following is the BEST advice to give Xavier?

b.Dispose of the collection in a sharps container.