PSY 150: Revised Final Exam Study Guide

  1. classical conditioning & operant conditioning: 2 types of associative learning

  2. Classical conditioning: a learning process in which a neutral stimulus becomes associated with an innately meaningful stimulus and acquires the capacity to elicit a similar response.

  3. Unconditioned stimulus: produces a response without prior learning

  4. Unconditioned response: an unlearned response that is automatically elicited by an unconditioned stimulus

  5. Classical conditioning descriptor: association between 2 stimuli, organisms learning to anticipate events

  6. Operant conditioning descriptor: association between a behavior and a consequence, organisms learning to increase behavior followed by rewards and to decrease behaviors that are followed by punishment

  7. Observational learning: a person observes and imitates another's behavior.

  8. When Ashton comes home from work every day, he opens the garage door and pulls his car into the garage. His dog, Spot, hears the noise of the garage door opening and the car entering the garage before Ashon comes through the garage door. Now, when Spot hears the garage door open, Spot runs to the garage door to greet Ashon. This is an example of: classical conditioning

  9. Samantha stubs her toe on the coffee table on the way into the kitchen and she cries out in pain. Stubbing her toe on the coffee table in an example of a(n) Blank______ and her cry of pain is an example of a(n): unconditioned stimulus (1), unconditioned response (2)

  10. Conditioned Stimulus: previously neutral stimulus that eventually elicits the conditioned response after being associated with the unconditioned stimulus.


  11. The conditioned response is triggered by the: conditioned stimulus

  12. In the Pavlovian experiment, ringing the bell was only a neutral stimulus: before Pavlov began feeding the dog the meat powder.

  13. Acquisition: conditioned stimulus repeatedly paired with the unconditioned stimulus, and it occurs without awareness or effort.

  14. Generalization: tendency of a new stimulus that is similar to the original conditioned stimulus to elicit a response that is similar to the conditioned response.

  15. For the dog in Pavlov's experiment, which was the neutral stimulus? a bell

  16. A person goes to the door when the doorbell rings, but not when their alarm clock rings: stimulus discrimination

  17. Electric shocks and nausea-inducing substances are examples of noxious stimuli that are used in: aversive conditioning

  18. Operant Conditioning focuses on : association between behaviors and the stimuli that following them

  19. Discrimination: process of learning to respond to certain stimuli and not to others.

  20. Aversive conditioning: treatment that consists of repeated pairings of a stimulus with a very unpleasant stimulus

  21. Operant conditioning is better than classical conditioning at explaining: voluntary behaviors

  22. Law of effect: behaviors followed by pleasant outcomes are strengthened and that behaviors followed by unpleasant outcomes are weakened

  23. Neutral stimulus: does not bring about a response of interest in classical conditioning

  24. What is operant conditioning: a form of associative learning in which the consequences of a behavior change the probability of the behavior's occurrence

  25. Reinforcement: process in operant conditioning by which a stimulus following a particular behavior increases the probability that a behavior will be repeated.

  26. Negative Reinforcement: When clean out the garbage, your dad doesn’t yell at you. When you put your seatbelt on in the car to stop the annoying chiming sound of the seatbelt indicator, when you pay bill on time, avoid high cost of late fee

  27. Positive Reinforcement: dog ā€œgives pawā€ you give him a treat, when someone smiles at you, you say hello and start convo, and When you drink a coffee, you are productive during the day.

  28. Primary reinforcers: water & food

  29. This reinforcer doesn't require any learning to make it pleasurable or satisfying to you: primary reinforcer

  30. It is because of experiences this reinforcer makes you satisfied or happy: secondary reinforcer

  31. This occurs when something is provided or given to increase the likelihood of a behavior: positive reinforcement

  32. This occurs when something is removed or avoided in order for the behavior to increase: negative reinforcement

  33. Spontaneous recovery: You try to put a movie in your DVD player, but the disc doesn't work. You don't try to watch that disc again for a while, but later on that month you try to play it again

  34. A fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement is one where a behavior is reinforced: after a set # of behaviors

  35. When people are driving above the speed limit, and then notice a police car is now on the road with them, they change their driving habits to be more cautious and aware of the speed limit: discrimination

  36. Extinction: behavior is no longer reinforced and decreases in frequency

  37. Gambling is an example of : variable-ratio

  38. Fixed interval: after a set amount of time has passed after the desired behavior

  39. Variable-ratio: It rewards a behavior an average number of times but on an unpredictable basis.

  40. Variable-interval schedule: A behavior is reinforced after an unspecified amount of time has elapsed

  41. Because it's difficult to tell when a reward will come, behavior in a ___-___ schedule is slow and consistent: variable-interval

  42. Ananya returned home 1 hour after curfew. Ananya was grounded for a week by their parents. This is an example of a : negative punishment

  43. Simon watches his dance instructor execute a perfect leap, but when Simon tries to copy the instructor, his leap doesn't look quite like the same. Simon is having trouble with the: motor reproduction

  44. Retention: 2nd process, must hold info for memory

  45. Reinforcement: last process, model’s behavior is following by a consequence

  46. Pop quizzes happen on a ___ schedule: variable-interval

  47. Dan and Molly are camping in the woods and apply insect repellent to their skin in order to fight mosquitoes. Dan gets fewer mosquito bites because of the repellent, but Molly develops a rash because of the repellent's ingredients. In the future, Dan is very willing to use the repellant, but Molly never wants to use it again. For Dan, the repellent is ______, but for Molly, the repellent is ___: negative reinforcement; positive punishment

  48. Determines how influential one's perspectives might be by observing how others are treated by others: observational learning

  49. Flow of info into memory: encoding, storing, and retrieving

  50. Divided attention: concentrating on more than one activity at the same time

  51. Selective attention: focusing on a specific aspect of an experience while ignoring the other aspects of the experience.

  52. According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory, the three separate memory systems are: sensory, short-term, and long-term.

  53. Range of items we can keep track of in short-term memory: 7, plus 2 or minus 2

  54. Short term is retained for 30 sec

  55. Memory span: number of digits and individual can report back, in order, after a single presentation of them.

  56. time frame of a fraction of a second to several seconds: sensory memory

  57. When ___ is extensive, he person has attempted to make the to-be-remembered information meaningful and has engaged in detailed processing: elaboration

  58. Sensory memory: auditory or visual inform rich and detailed

  59. Short-term memory: 30 seconds or less, limited-capacity unless we use strategies to retain information, memory span 7+/- 2 items

  60. Long-term memory: permanent, unlimited and indefinite capacity, implicit or explicit memory

  61. Chunking: packaging large amount of info together

  62. Working memory: mental blackboard and includes short-term mem/attention

  63. Three components of working mem: phonological loop, visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the central executive.

  64. Rehearsal for mem storage: It improves short-term memory, It is often verbal, It is the conscious repetition of information.

  65. Acoustic code decays in a: few sec

  66. Baddeley proposed: that the visuo-spatial sketchpad stores imagery and spatial information on a sort of scratch pad

  67. the component that is in charge of integrating information, planning, and organizing: central executive

  68. Autobiographical memory is called: episodic memory

  69. Semantic memory: explicit memory pertaining to persons knowledge about the world

  70. Explicit memory: conscious recollection of specific facts about an event or situation

  71. Implicit memory: unconscious recollection of how to do something

  72. Related to explicit memory: episodic, semantic, declarative mem

  73. Related to implicit memory: procedural, nondeclarative

  74. Episodic: retention of info about where, when, and what of life happens

  75. The hippocampus, the temporal lobes, and other areas of the limbic system play an active role in explicit memories.

  76. brain structure most involved during the activation of implicit memories: cerebellum

  77. tendency to recall items at the beginning and the end of a list more readily than other places: serial position effect

  78. Recency effect: better recall for items at the end

  79. Jeremy tries to associate the new work colleagues with the color of the shirt they wore on their first day. Jeremey uses the color information, which assists in remembering well, as a(n: retrieval cue

  80. What does retrieval failure represent: clear example of forgetting info

  81. Primacy effect:: recall of items at beginning of list

  82. Context-dependent mem: remember better when they try to recall info in same context in which they learned in

  83. Encoding failure: info never enters into long term mem

  84. Proactive interference: material that was learned earlier disrupts the recall of material learned later.

  85. Retrieval failure: information was placed in memory, but the rememberer cannot get the information back out of memory.

  86. Retroactive interference: new material disrupts retrieval of older info

  87. Interference theory: mem for on thing fails because mem for something else gets in the way

  88. Tip-of-tongue phenomenon: confident that we know something but cannot pull it out of mem

  89. You have an old friend named James. Last night at the bar, you were talking to this guy named Joe. However, you kept making the mistake of calling him James. This best illustrates: proactive interference

  90. The way in which information is processed and manipulated in remembering, thinking, and knowing is known as: cognition

  91. A memory task that only requires someone to identify learned items: recognition

  92. Which field of psychology includes the study of consciousness, memory, and neuroscience? cognitive

  93. After years of taking French, you study Spanish. When the word for "red" in Spanish is required, you correctly say "rojo." But you can't remember the French word for red.: retroactive interference

  94. Mental categories that are used to group objects, events, and characteristics are known as: concepts

  95. Purpose of concepts: concepts allow us to generalize, aid memory, and provide clues about how to react to a particular experience.

  96. What does the prototype model of concepts emphasize: that when people evaluate whether an item reflects a concept, they compare the item with the most typical item in that category

  97. Your best friend Suzanne got married and uses her husband's last name. Last night, you couldn't remember her maiden last name; you could only remember her new, married last name: retroactive interference

  98. finding an appropriate way to attain a goal when the goal is not readily available.: problem solving

  99. Steps of problem-solving in order: find/frame problem, developed good problem-solving strategies, evaluate solutions, & rethink/redefine problems over time

  100. Subgoals: Intermediate steps that can break down a larger problem and put one in a better position to reach

  101. Algorithms: trategies that guarantee a solution to a problem.

  102. Heuristics: A strategy used in problem solving that informs or suggests a possible solution such as past experience or advise from a friend

  103. Functional fixedness: individuals fail to solve a problem because they will only consider a thing's usual uses.

  104. What is reasoning? the mental activity of transforming information to reach conclusions

  105. Inductive reasoning: reasoning from the specific to the general, incoming info helps us draw conclusions

  106. Little Joey has only ever met two dogs, and both were dark brown. Based on this, Joey has concluded that all dogs are dark brown. This is an example of: inductive reasoning

  107. Deductive reasoning: reasoning from the general to the specific, draw conclusions based on facts forming a hypothesis

  108. Loss aversion: tendency to prefer avoiding losses compared to acquiring gains

  109. Confirmation bias: tendency to search for and use information that supports, rather than refutes, our ideas

  110. Hindsight bias: "I knew it all along" effect in which you say to someone once you already know the results or conclusion, that you "knew that" even if you really weren't sure

  111. Availability heuristic: Predicting the likelihood of an event based on how recent or accessible it is in your thoughts.

  112. Representative heuristic: Predicting or making judgments about others based on how likely they match to a stereotype that you may have.

  113. Base rate neglect: tendency to ignore information about general principles in favor of very specific but vivid information is known as

  114. Critical thinking involves: thinking reflectively, evaluating evidence, & thinking productively

  115. In the Langer study, where as many as 90% of people would give up their place in line for a copy machine when someone asked "Can I go first? I need to make copies," this behavior was an example of a lack of: mindfulness

  116. Open mindedness:receptive to the possibility of other ways of looking at things.

  117. Although a democrat, Tracy is willing to listen to Republican friends and explain the political beliefs and to consider the viewpoint of the speech: active open-mindedness

  118. Creativity: ability to think about something in novel and unusual ways and come up with unconventional solutions to problems

  119. Brainstorming is an example of ______ thinking: divergent

  120. When answering this multiple choice question, you are utilizing what type of thinking to determine the one correct answer? convergent thinking

  121. intelligence: Problem-solving skills and the ability to adapt to and learn from life's everyday experiences

  122. A new view of intelligence suggested that general intelligence underlies performance in a variety of areas. This view of intelligence is: Spearman’s g

  123. Who developed the first intelligence test: Binet

  124. Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence states that intelligence comes in three forms: analytical, creative, and practical.

  125. Analytical intelligence: ability to judge, evaluate, compare, and contrast

  126. Creative intelligence: Skills such as designing, inventing and imagination are strengths of this type of intelligence.

  127. Practical intelligence: Skills such as putting ideas into practice, applying your knowledge, and making things work are strengths of this type of intelligence.

  128. Divergent thinking occurs when one is engaged in: brainstorming

  129. Person perceptionthe process by which impressions of others are formed by social stimuli.

  130. According to Gardner, what are the types of intelligence? intrapersonal, spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, verbal

  131. Spatial intelligence: ability to think three-dimensional

  132. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence: ability to manipulate objects and be physically adept

  133. Who suggested there are 9 types of intelligence": Gardner

  134. existentialist intelligence: ability to grapple with the big questions of human existence, with special sensitivity to issues of spirituality

  135. musical intelligence: sensitivity to pitch, melody, rhythm, and tone'

  136. frequent criticism of multiple intelligence theories?: Research does not support the existence of multiple intelligences

  137. The study of how people think about, influence, and relate to other people: social psychology

  138. Social cognition: area of social psychology that studies how individuals think within social situations.

  139. Sternberg’s triarchic theory: 3 main types of intelligence, creative/practical intelligences, analytical intelligence

  140. Self-fulfilling prophecy: when expectations about a future event or behavior act to increase the likelihood that the event or behavior will occur.

  141. Fundamental attribution error: tendency of observers to overestimate important of internal traits and underestimate important of external factors

  142. Gardner’s Multiple intelligence theory: Musical/verbal/naturalist type of intelligence, 9 frames of mind, and intrapersonal/interpersonal type of intelligence

  143. Attribution theory: explains how we decide, on the basis of samples of an individual's behavior, what are the specific underlying causes of that person's behavior.

  144. False consensus effect: type of heuristic wherein we overestimate the degree to which everybody else thinks or acts the way we do.

  145. Cognitive dissonance: conflict that occurs when a person holds two contradictory attitudes or thoughts.

  146. You are leaving a ball game with your empty water bottles in tow. Upon passing the trash can, you decide to pitch the plastic bottles in the large barrel outside the gate. After you toss the bottles, you feel guilty about not recycling. In an effort to relieve your guilt, you look at the overflowing trash barrel containing paper, plastic, and various other disposables and ask yourself, "Why should I feel guilty when nobody else is recycling?" This illustrates: cognitive dissonance

  147. _____are most likely to predict____ when attitudes are strong, and when the person has a vested interest: attitudes, behavior

  148. When asked about your attitude about a vegan diet, you think "I must not be in favor of it, because I eat meat, dairy, and eggs." This illustrates the Blank______ theory.: self perception

  149. Social comparison: construct that aids in identifying one’s distinctive features from the rest and contributes to their identity is known as social

  150. When are attitudes most likely to predict behavior: when the person’s attitudes are strong and they have a vested interest

  151. What has aggressive behavior been linked to: frontal lobes of the brain and the limbic system

  152. Twin studies suggest that a tendency to show unprovoked aggression may be influenced more by genes, whereas reactive aggression is more susceptible to environmental effects.

  153. True or false: twin studies suggest that a tendency to show unprovoked aggression may be influenced more by genes, whereas reactive aggression is more susceptible to environmental effects: true

  154. Low levels of agreeableness, low levels of conscientiousness, and high levels of neuroticism , are associated with aggression.

  155. Watching others engage in aggressive actions: evokes aggression

  156. Situation where individual is more likely to be persuaded by message: weak attitudes, feels similarity with person delivering message, and is delivered through tv/video rather than print

  157. hormone that is typically implicated in aggressive behavior.: testosterone

  158. conformity: a change in behavior brought about in order to follow the standards of others

  159. Aggression, like other social behaviors, has ___ determinant(s).: multiple

  160. Obedience: behavior that complies with the explicit demands of the individual in authority.

  161. In Milgram's classic obedience study, what percent of participants eventually used the highest setting on the shock generator to shock the learner?: 65 percent

  162. Which of the following is true about the Stanford Prison Experiment as per Zimbardo’s account? The prisoners became docile and lost their sense of self.Ā 

  163. A resident observed that all dogs that were adopted by residents living in the gated community were of the same breed, and other residents are showing renewed interest in adopting dogs from the same breed. This is an example of: social contagion

  164. In Solomon Asch's experiment in which participants sat in a group and evaluated drawings that they were shown, the researcher was examining the power of: obedience

  165. Rick has been distressed over a long period of time. He has had problems coping with life and relating to people. He tries to avoid meeting people, as he thinks his breathing can be dangerous for others. He also believes that washing his face seven times an hour will keep him healthy. Rick meets all the criteria for abnormal behavior, which is defined as involving: personal distress, maladaptive behavior, and deviance

  166. Social contagion: Imitative behavior involving the spread of actions, emotions, and ideas.

  167. What is meant by the definition of abnormality as deviation? When the behavior does not conform to accepted social standards.Ā 

  168. Abnormal behavior involves ___ ___ over a long period of time, meaning the person finds it troubling: personal distress

  169. Abnormal behavior is: an illness that begins in a person’s brain and can affect the way the individual thinks, behaves, and interacts with others

  170. individuals with ADHD are often first treated using ______ medications: stimulant

  171. How many anxiety disorders are there according to DSM-5? 4 common

  172. Although obsessive-compulsive disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder both involve excessive worry, neither is categorized as anxiety disorder.

  173. True or false: Obsessive-compulsive disorder and post-traumatic disorder both involved anxiety, but they are not classified as anxiety disorders in DSM-5.: false

  174. Generalized anxiety disorder: long-term, persistent anxiety, and uncontrollable worry

  175. Statements about ADHD: ADHD predicts lower academic performance and poorer peer relations, Symptoms for ADHD must occur before age 12 and appear across a variety of settings, and United States, ADHD is one of the most common psychological disorders of childhood

  176. Having harsh (or even impossible) self-standards would be considered what type of risk factor for generalized anxiety disorder? psychological

  177. A deficiency in the neurotransmitter ___ is among the biological factors for generalized anxiety disorder: GABA

  178. Factors that may explain specific phobias? learned associations, memories, experiences

  179. Specific phobia: nxiety disorder in which the individual has an irrational, overwhelming, persistent fear of a particular object or situation.

  180. caleb has disturbing, recurring thoughts and then he finds that he must act upon them. Acting upon these disturbing thoughts are: compulsions

  181. In ___ -____ disorder, there is a genetic component, and there is a depletion of the neurotransmitters serotonin and dopamine.: obsessive compulsive

  182. A situation in which a person suffers from an unrelenting lack of pleasure in life is a(n) ______ disorder.: depressive

  183. For the past three weeks, Amin has felt lethargic, had problems sleeping and making decisions, lost pleasure and interest in activities he previously enjoyed, and has had feelings of worthlessness. The most likely diagnosis for Amin is: major depressive disorder

  184. Bipolar disorder: mood disorder characterized by extreme mood swings that include one or more episodes of mania is known as:

  185. Categorized as depressive disorders are: persistent depressive disorder, major depressive disorder

  186. Symptoms of major depression: trouble sleeping, weight loss, feeling worthless

  187. Bipolar II disorder: milder version in which the individual may experience a less extreme level of euphoria

  188. Psychosis: a state in which a person's perceptions and thoughts are fundamentally removed from reality.

  189. Serious psychological disorder, often socially withdrawn and isolated, and characterized by disordered though is what: schizophrenia

  190. What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia: hallucinations, delusions

  191. Delusions: firmly held, unshakable beliefs with no basis in reality or culture and they commonly occur with schizophrenia.

  192. Hallucinations: sensory experiences that occur in the absence of real stimuli

  193. ___is a psychological disorder characterized by lack of guilt, law-breaking, exploitation of others, irresponsibility, and deceit.: antisocial personality disorder

  194. Borderline personality disorder: individuals who are often emotionally unstable, impulsive, unpredictable, irritable, and anxious

  195. A person with schizophrenia can exhibit _____ thinking, which means ascribing personal meaning to a completely random event: referential

  196. ___ is a nonmedical process that helps people recognize and overcome their psychological problems: psychotherapy


  197. Biological therapies: Treatments that reduce or eliminate symptoms of psychological disorders by changing aspects of bodily functioning

  198. Psychoanalysts using the technique of free association: tell clients to say aloud whatever comes to mind, regardless of its apparent irrelevance or senselessness.

  199. Psychodynamic therapy is based on Freud's psychoanalytic approach to personality. The goal is to help the client: become aware of unconscious conflict that underlie their problems.

  200. Who developed psychoanalysis as a technique to analyze the individual’s unconscious thoughts? freud

  201. The term Blank______ describes a process, which may occur in therapy, in which feelings such as love or anger that had originally been directed to a significant person in the patient's life are directed towards the psychoanalyst: transference

  202. True about humanistic psychotherapy: There is an emphasis on a person's ability to self-heal People are encouraged to understand themselves, Therapy emphasizes conscious thoughts.

  203. In psychoanalysis, Freud's technique emphasized the idea that current problems could be traced to which of the following causes? conflicts about sexuality, experiences not available to the conscious mind, early childhood experiences

  204. ______Ā therapy has the underlying rationale that people can make choices about their lives and are essentially able to solve their own problems: humanistic

  205. Client-centered therapy is a humanistic therapy that emphasizes which of the following procedures? helping clients identify and understand their genuine feelings, encouraging clients to gain insight into their problems, and providing a warm, supportive atmosphere

  206. Harold recently received a diagnosis of depression and his medical doctor prescribed him an antidepressant to help reduce his depressive symptoms. This intervention is an example of: biological therapy

  207. In an attempt to help a client identify and understand their own feelings, a therapist using client-centered therapy might use the technique of: reflective speech'

  208. Rogers client centered therapy is based on his belief that we need certain elements to grow. These elements are: unconditional positive regard, empathy, and genuineness.

  209. client-centered therapy: form of humanistic therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, in which the therapist provides a warm, supportive environment for personal growth.

  210. Examples of antianxiety drugs: valium xanax

  211. What is the name of the type of drugs that are used to help treat mental disorders? psychotherapeutic

  212. Benzodiazepines work by: binding to receptor sites that become overactive during a period of anxiety.

  213. Antidepressant: class of medications used to improve the moods of patients.

  214. Tricyclic antidepressant medications work by: increasing the level of norepinephrine and serotonin, decreasing symptoms of depression in about 2 to 4 weeks after starting to take the drug

  215. Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants are more commonly referred to as: tetracyclics

  216. Keeping the same amount or increasing a person's level of important neurotransmitters is what ______ is(are) used for: antidepressants

  217. Which class of antidepressant drugs help regulate mood by allowing certain neurotransmitters to remain in the brain's synapses? MAO inhibitors

  218. The SSRI type of antidepressant drugs act by: interfering with the reabsorption of serotonin in the brain.

  219. What is an abbreviated name for tetracyclics? NaSSAs

  220. The class of antidepressants known as MAO inhibitors are thought to work because they block the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which operates in the synapse by: breaking down serotonin and norepinephrine.

  221. True or false: Antidepressant drugs are only used for depression.": false

  222. In addition to treating mood disorders, antidepressant drugs are often effective for: some anxiety disorder, certain sleep disorders, and some eating disorders

  223. Sometimes associated with the use of lithium? kidney and thyroid complications

  224. Antipsychotic: used to reduce symptoms of severe psychological disorders such as schizophrenia.

  225. Which of the following are true about antipsychotic drugs? very powerful, used to treat symptoms of schizophrenia, and decrease hallucinations

  226. The two types of antipsychotic drugs are: neuroleptic antipsychotic medications, atypical antipsychotic medications.

  227. Which of the following are potentially serious side effects of antipsychotic medications? metabolic syndrome, tardrive dyskinesia


  228. What is the goal of electroconvulsive therapy? to activate a seizure in the brain

  229. What is the name for brain surgery in which the objective is to reduce symptoms of a mental disorder? psychosurgery'

  230. The two types of antipsychotic drugs are: neuroleptic antipsychotic medications, atypical antipsychotic medications.