Quiz on the Historical Highlights and Logistics of the Philippine National Police (PNP)
When was the Philippine Constabulary (PC) inaugurated as an insular police force under the American Regime?
Answer: August 8, 1901
What Organic Act established the Philippine Constabulary on July 18, 1901?
Answer: Organic Act No 175
Who was the first Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary, and when did he assume command?
Answer: Brigadier General Rafael T. Crame, December 17, 1917
When was the Philippine Constabulary/Integrated National Police (PC/INP) established as the country’s national police force?
Answer: August 8, 1975
Which Presidential Decree established the Integrated National Police (INP) with the PC as its nucleus?
Answer: Presidential Decree No. 765
When was Republic Act No. 6975 signed, establishing the Philippine National Police under the Reorganized DILG?
Answer: December 13, 1990
What significant event involving the merging of several security forces happened on January 29, 1991?
Answer: The merging of members of the former Philippine Constabulary/Integrated National Police and selected members of the Philippine Air Force Security Command, Philippine Coast Guard, and Philippine Army.
What does PNP stand for?
Answer: Philippine National Police
What is the PNP's definition of logistics?
Answer: The process of requirement determination (planning), procurement, storage, distribution, maintenance, disposal, and replacement of police equipment and facilities designed to effectively provide material support to police operations.
What does the acronym AC of S for Logistics, C4 stand for within the PNP context?
Answer: Acting Chief of Staff for Logistics, C4
Name the three branches under the AC of S for Logistics, C4.
Answer: The Supply Branch, Plans & Program Branch, and Facilities & Infrastructure Branch
What major change did the Directorate for Logistics undergo on February 17, 1998?
Answer: President Joseph M. Ejercito Estrada signed the PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 8551, leading to many organizational changes.
What is Supply Chain Management?
Answer: The active management of supply chain activities to maximize customer value and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage, covering everything from product development, sourcing, production, logistics, and the information systems needed to coordinate these activities.
Define Velocity Management.
Answer: An Army initiative to automatically improve the performance of logistics processes such as order and ship, repair, storage determination, and financial management.
What is 3rd Party Logistics?
Answer: The outsourcing of ecommerce logistics processes including inventory management, warehousing, and fulfillment, allowing ecommerce merchants to accomplish more with the tools and infrastructure for ultimate retail order fulfillment.
What organizational structure was proposed by the Directorate for Logistics in 2007?
Answer: A revised organizational structure to accommodate the growing personnel of the office, including divisions such as Logistics Plans & Programs Division, Logistics Resource Management Division, Infrastructure & Facilities Management Division, Supply Management Division, Real Estate Management Division, and NHQ BAC Secretariat Division.
What is the role of the Chief, Logistics Plans and Program Division (LPPD)?
Answer: The principal staff of the Director for Logistics responsible for formulating plans and policies, conducting programs and special projects, and interpreting and submitting statistics to concerned agencies.
What functions does the Supply Management Division (SMD) perform?
Answer: Planning, supervising, programming, and distribution of logistical supplies, monitoring the implementation of logistics policies, supervising management of logistical resources, and managing warehousing activities.
What is the role of the Infrastructure and Facilities Management Division (IFMD)?
Answer: Coordinating and supervising plans and programs relative to infrastructure and facilities management, including construction, repair, maintenance, and acquisition of engineering equipment.
What responsibilities does the Real Estate Management Division (REMD) have?
Answer: The preservation, administration, and disposition of all PNP-owned, occupied, administered, managed, or controlled real estate properties and reservation areas.
Describe the purpose of the NHQ BAC Secretariat Division.
Answer: Managing the procurement process of the NHQ PNP, consolidating and integrating submitted PNP Procurement Management Plans, developing the Annual Procurement Plan, and overseeing procurement activities.
What are "Just-in-Time" (JIT) and "Just-in-Case" inventory strategies?
Answer: JIT is an inventory strategy to increase efficiency and decrease waste by receiving goods only as needed in the production process, while Just-in-Case is an older strategy where producers carry large inventories to meet higher demand.
What is the significance of the PNP Logistics Cycle?
Answer: It represents the framework of the PNP Logistics Operation, encompassing planning/budgeting, procurement, storage/recording, distribution, maintenance, and disposal of police equipment and facilities.
What are some key core values of the PNP Directorate for Logistics?
Answer: God-centered, responsive, innovative, and service-oriented.
What is the vision and mission of the PNP Directorate for Logistics?
Answer: Vision: A dynamic directorate that serves the logistical requirements of a modernizing PNP. Mission: To assist the Chief, PNP in the administration and management of logistics and its functional areas in support of the successful accomplishment of the PNP mission.
Which memorandum circular prescribes the rules and regulations on the issuance of sidearms to PNP members?
Answer: c) NAPOLCOM Memorandum Circular No. 93-015
The doctrine of command responsibility in property accountability primarily holds which personnel liable for property loss?
Answer: c) The immediate superiors
What is the main purpose of the Board of Survey?
Answer: c) To investigate and evaluate the facts and circumstances about the loss or damage of the property
In case of death of the person responsible for the lost property, who is authorized to file the request for relief from property accountability?
Answer: c) The Supply Accountable Officer (SAO)
What is required by Section 101 of PD 1445 for designated Supply Accountable Personnel?
Answer: b) To be bonded
True or False Questions
The Chief of Office/Unit is subsidiarily liable with the person primarily accountable for any loss of government property.
Answer: True
The procedure to file a request for relief from property accountability must be initiated within 60 days of the noted loss.
Answer: False
All supporting documents for the request for relief must be submitted directly to the Chairman of COA.
Answer: False
The Board of Survey must complete their investigation and evaluation within 20 days of convening.
Answer: False
In cases of loss due to fire or natural calamities, a certification from PAGASA or a similar government agency is required as supporting evidence.
Answer: True
Short Answer Questions
What is the purpose of the Inventory and Inspection Report of Unserviceable Property (IIRUP)?
Answer: To document the condition of property that is no longer serviceable and ensure its proper disposal.
List three types of evidence required if the loss or damage of properties was caused by theft or robbery.
Answer: Incident/Progress and/or Final Police Report, List or Inventory of Lost or Damaged/Destroyed properties, Joint affidavit of two disinterested persons.
Explain what joint liability means in the context of property accountability.
Answer: Joint liability means that the accountable officer has the right to enlist the Chief of Office as a co-defendant in case of liability.
Who approves the relief from property accountability for lost property valued more than 500,000 pesos?
Answer: The Commission Proper of COA
What actions are taken against PNP personnel found guilty of malversation of public funds or property?
Answer: Appropriate charges are filed against them in relation to Article 217 of the Revised Penal Code.
1. What is the basic function of the Commission on Audit?
- The Commission on Audit shall have the power, authority, and duty to examine, audit, settle all accounts pertaining to the revenue and receipts of, and expenditures or uses of funds and property, owned or held in trust by or pertaining to the Government.
2. What does "Audit Disallowance" refer to?
- Audit Disallowance refers to the disapproval in audit of a transaction, either in whole or in part, and it applies to the audit of disbursement.
3. What does "Suspension" mean in the context of COA?
- Suspension refers to a temporary disallowance pending further justification or until the requirements raised in the course of the audit are submitted or complied with.
4. What are the main causes of Disallowances and Charges?
- Illegal, Unnecessary, Extravagant, Excessive, or Unconscionable Expenditure (IUEEU).
5. Give an example of an irregular expenditure of government properties.
- Replacement of serviceable structure/equipment.
6. True or False: The Commission on Audit's function is solely to promote government spending.
- False
7. True or False: The Notice of Disallowance is served only to the agency head.
- False
8. True or False: Suspension refers to a temporary disallowance that doesn't require further justification.
- False
9. True or False: The Board of Survey must complete their investigation and evaluation within 20 days of convening.
- True
10. True or False: In cases of loss due to fire or natural calamities, no certification from a government agency is required as supporting evidence.
- False
11. What are the objectives of the lecture on COA Disallowance?
- The objectives include understanding COA's function, defining audit disallowance, identifying causes of disallowances, discussing rules and regulations, and applying means to avoid COA disallowance.
12. Define "Irregular Expenditure".
- Irregular expenditure refers to expenses incurred without adhering to established rules, regulations, or procedural guidelines.
13. What is meant by "Excessive Expenditure"?
- Excessive expenditure leads to unreasonably high expenses or spending beyond reasonable limits.
14. Who are the persons liable according to COA for disallowed transactions?
- Persons liable include public officers who handle government funds, certify the necessity of funds, approve expenditures, and those involved in transactions disadvantageous to the government.
15. What does the Notice of Disallowance contain?
- The Notice of Disallowance informs the responsible parties about disallowed transactions, including the amount, laws violated, and persons liable.
Quiz: Disposal of PNP Property, Plant, and Equipment (PPE)
What is the purpose of PNP Memorandum Circular No. 2023-026?
Answer: b) To establish guidelines for the disposal of PNP Property, Plant, and Equipment (PPE)
What are "Abandoned Properties" in the context of PNP disposal procedures?
Answer: b) Properties without known owners or claimants
What is Controlled Cannibalization concerning unserviceable equipment?
Answer: b) Transferring unserviceable parts to repair other equipment
Which of the following is considered a method of disposal of PNP property?
Answer: c) Donating
What are "Excess Properties" in PNP disposal classification?
Answer: c) Properties in good condition but no longer used due to excess
Who approves the disposal of PNP properties at the NHQ and PRO levels?
Answer: b) CPNP
What is the primary responsibility of the Chairman of the NHQ Disposal Committee?
Answer: b) Dropping disposed properties from the PNP Book of Accounts
During disposal proceedings, what is the role of the Auditor or their authorized representative?
Answer: b) Act as an intelligent, responsible, and articulate witness
How are proceeds from the disposal of PNP properties handled?
Answer: b) Remitted to the National Treasury
Which of the following is NOT a required report form in PNP property disposal?
Answer: c) Employee Performance Evaluation
Quiz: DL Clearance and Property Accountability
1. What is DL Clearance in the context of the PNP?
Answer: b) Document attesting whether personnel have accountabilities
2. What does PAC stand for?
Answer: b) Property Accountability Clearance
3. What is the purpose of the Certificate of Property Accountability (CPA)?
Answer: c) Certifying existing property accountabilities
4. What does PNP LDIMS stand for?
Answer: b) Property and Logistics Data Information Management System
5. What is the role of DL in the issuance of DL Clearance?
Answer: b) Uploading clearance documents to LDIMS
6. Which document is required for DL Clearance processing according to the timeline?
Answer: a) Retirement order
7. What is the timeline for processing DL Clearance for a retiree without property accountability?
Answer: d) 9 months
8. What is the procedure for units with property accountability regarding DL Clearance processing?
Answer: b) Uploading Unit Property Accountability Document (UPAD) first
9. What is the purpose of the Affidavit of Willingness to Pay?
Answer: b) Indicating willingness to clear property accountabilities
10. Who is responsible for uploading the DL Clearance to LDIMS?
Answer: b) DL
Quiz: PNP Warehouse Management Guidelines
1. What is the purpose of PNP MC No. 2017-070?
Answer: b) To provide guidelines for warehouse management
2. What does "warehousing" entail according to the provided information?
Answer: b) Storing goods systematically and orderly
3. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the failure of PNP warehousing?
Answer: c) Excessive budget allocation
4. According to the guidelines, where should PNP warehouses ideally be located?
Answer: b) Near highways, railway stations, airports, and seaports
5. What is the responsibility of the SAO and RSPNCO in warehouse management?
Answer: b) Handling security measures
6. What is one of the requirements for physical safety and security of PNP warehouses?
Answer: d) Installation of CCTV cameras
7. What should be done in case of loose or damaged flooring in the warehouse?
Answer: b) Report it to the warehouse manager
8. How should gates and guarding systems be managed in PNP warehouses?
Answer: b) Manned and monitored strategically
9. What is the purpose of the anti-intrusion alarm system and CCTV cameras?
Answer: c) To deter unauthorized access
10. What is the recommended method for storing firearms in PNP warehouses?
Answer: c) In locked containers made of solid steel or timber
11. How should ammunition be stored according to guidelines?
Answer: b) In airtight and watertight containers
12. What is one of the key requirements during the receiving of property and equipment in the warehouse?
Answer: d) Warehouse keys should be handed properly
13. What is the procedure for emergency issuances of supplies and equipment?
Answer: c) Supply directives and proper RIS/PTR must follow
14. Who is responsible for the inspection of warehouses/storage rooms according to the guidelines?
Answer: b) Directorate for Logistics and other designated teams
15. What is the purpose of the Warehouse Database Management System?
Answer: b) To maintain inventory records
Multiple Choice Test:
Section 1: Inventory Management
1. What is the primary objective of inventory management?
c) Optimizing inventory levels (Correct)
2. Which of the following is NOT a type of inventory system?
d) Just-in-time inventory system (Correct)
3. What is the purpose of periodic inventory counts?
c) To reconcile discrepancies between actual and recorded inventory (Correct)
4. What does a perpetual inventory system do?
c) Tracks inventory levels in real-time (Correct)
Section 2: Inventory Counting Systems
5. What is a characteristic of a periodic inventory system?
c) It requires physical counts at regular intervals. (Correct)
6. What is the main advantage of a perpetual inventory system?
c) Real-time tracking (Correct)
7. Which inventory counting system continuously updates inventory records?
a) Perpetual inventory system (Correct)
Section 3: Property, Plant, and Equipment (PPE)
8. What is the threshold for capitalization of PPE according to IPSAS 17?
c) Php 50,000.00 (Correct)
9. How are items classified when their cost is below Php 50,000.00 but meet the definition of PPE?
b) Semi-expendable property (Correct)
Section 4: Records and Reports
10. What is the purpose of the PNP Property Book?
c) To keep track of property issued/donated to PNP offices/units (Correct)
11. Which form is used to report on the physical count of semi-expendable property?
b) RPCSP (Correct)
Section 5: Inventory Taking
12. What is the purpose of physical inventory taking?
b) To verify the accuracy of inventory records (Correct)
13. Who is responsible for the care, custody, and control of the property?
b) Property custodian (Correct)
PNP Logistic Data Information and Management System Quiz
Instructions:
- Read each question carefully.
- Choose the correct answer based on the information provided in the PNP Logistic Data Information and Management System manual.
- Select the most appropriate answer.
- Let's begin!
1. How do you access the PNP Logistic Data Information and Management System (LDIMS) website?
Answer:
b) Type https://pldims.pnp.gov.ph in the browser's address bar
2. What is the purpose of the Dashboard in LDIMS?
Answer:
a) To view statistical reports on firearm issuance
3. Where can you find the statistics of short firearms and long firearms within your Area of Responsibility (AOR)?
Answer:
a) SAO Records > Firearms Dashboard
4. What does SAO stand for in LDIMS?
Answer:
c) Supply and Operations
5. What is the purpose of the "Issuance (Old Record)" section in SAO Records?
Answer:
b) To search for old firearm records issued to personnel
6. How can you perform the encoding of total firearms on hand in the Local Inventory section?
Answer:
c) By clicking on "SAO Records" > "Firearms Local Inventory" and entering details
7. What is the purpose of the "Lost Firearms" section in SAO Records?
Answer:
c) To update lost firearm records
8. Where can you perform the issuance of firearms to end-users?
Answer:
b) SAO Records > New Issuance
9. How can you print Firearms Property Acknowledgement Receipt (PAR)?
Answer:
c) SAO Records > Firearms > PAR
10. What is the purpose of the "Renewal" section in SAO Records?
Answer:
c) To renew Property Acknowledgement Receipts (PAR)
Workshop on APP and PPMP Quiz
Instructions:
- Read each question carefully.
- Choose the correct answer based on the information provided in the Workshop schedule and content.
- Select the most appropriate answer.
- Let's get started!
1. Who is the Assistant Head of NHQ BAC Secretariat for the workshop on APP and PPMP?
Answer: a) PLTCOL LALAINE M BAÑARES
2. What is the duration of the workshop session on Lecture?
Answer: b) 10:00 AM to 2:00 PM
3. Which activity follows the Workshop session during the schedule?
Answer: a) Presentation by Group
4. What is the purpose of the PMC (Procurement Management Committee)?
Answer: c) Reviewing and consolidating PPMP
5. What does BAC stand for in the context of procurement?
Answer: b) Bids and Awards Committee
6. Who is considered as the Head of the Procuring Entity (HoPE)?
Answer: c) CPNP (Chief of the PNP)
7. What is the purpose of EPA (Early Procurement Activity)?
Answer: c) Initiating procurement before the budget cycle
8. Which document is NOT required for the preparation of the APP (Annual Procurement Plan)?
Answer: d) BAC Secretariat Report
9. Who is responsible for the consolidation of PPMPs into an APP?
Answer: a) PMC Secretariat
10. What is the main purpose of the PPMP (Project Procurement Management Plan)?
Answer: b) To manage the expectations for procurement needs fulfillment
Maintenance of Communications Equipment (Webinar) Quiz
Instructions:
- Read each question carefully.
- Choose the correct answer based on the information provided in the Maintenance of Communications Equipment webinar content.
- Select the most appropriate answer.
- Let's test your knowledge!
1. Who is the Acting Assistant Chief of RCEU 4A for the Maintenance of Communications Equipment webinar?
a) PMAJ ALEXANDER V ABUEL, REE
2. What are the objectives of the Maintenance of Communications Equipment webinar?
c) To learn the basic maintenance of communications equipment in the PNP
3. What are the types of maintenance discussed in the webinar?
b) Preventive maintenance, routine maintenance, troubleshooting
4. What are the potential hazards of not maintaining communication systems?
a) Personal injury, equipment damage, communication loss
5. According to PNP MC 41-13, what are the proper usage, care, and maintenance of transceiver radios and accessories?
b) Avoid airing obscene, indecent, and profane languages; observe strict COMSEC
6. What is the purpose of the NATO phonetic alphabet in radio communication?
c) To ensure clarity and avoid misunderstandings
7. What is the main advantage of using a DMR (Digital Mobile Radio) system?
a) Increased spectral efficiency
8. Which frequency band is typically used for Very High Frequency (VHF) communications?
b) 30 - 300 MHz
9. What is the main difference between trunked radios and conventional radios?
c) Trunked radios offer more features like private call and voice encryption.
10. What is the importance of a proper antenna in radio communication?
a) It ensures effective transmission and reception of signals.
11. What precaution should be taken when using radio transceivers under direct sunlight?
b) Do not overexpose the transceiver to direct sunlight.
12. According to the webinar content, what should you do if you encounter a problem with your radio?
d) Inform immediately your Technical Group for immediate technical solution.
13. Which document contains PNP policies on the proper utilization of DMR (Digital Mobile Radio)?
a) PNP MC 2020-04
14. What is the primary objective of the Communications & Electronics Service?
b) To establish a reliable, modern & secured Communications Network & Infrastructure
15. What is the purpose of conducting radio checks before passing a message?
c) To establish comms with another station and ensure message clarity
That's the end of the quiz! How did you do? Let's review your answers.
"Guidelines on the Issuance, Utilization, Maintenance, & Proper Disposition of PNP Mobility Assets" Quiz
Instructions:
Read each question carefully and select the correct answer based on the information provided in the presentation.
1. Who presented the guidelines outlined in PNP MC No. 2015-002?
a) PMAJ Steve C Juanico
2. What is the sequence of presentation according to the guidelines?
b) Planning, Budgeting, Price Determination, Procurement, Issuance and Distribution, Utilization and Maintenance, Disposal
3. What is Operational Needs Assessment in the context of the guidelines?
b) Periodic evaluation of materiel and logistical capabilities to identify deficiencies and address operational tasks
4. Which factors are considered during Operational Needs Assessment?
d) Current Inventory of Personnel and Equipment, Projected requirements for the next 5-10 years, Functionality/Purpose of Equipment, etc.
5. How is the price determination of mobility assets typically done?
a) Average of at least 3 supplier quotations
6. Which document specifies the technical specifications for mobility assets?
c) PNP MC No. 2021-003
7. What is the order of priority for the issuance of land vehicles?
b) PNP units with no issued Land Vehicles and/or for exigency of the service, criticality of the area, and the vastness of required supervision
8. What is the responsibility of drivers regarding PNP mobility assets?
c) They shall be primarily responsible for the serviceability and road worthiness of their issued vehicle.
9. When is the use of PNP mobility assets not allowed?
b) Saturdays, Sundays, and Holidays, except when dispatched for official function/use
10. What is the procedure before equipment is subjected to repair?
a) Identification of Equipment, approval of repair request, assessment of repair cost, Technical Inspection Report (TIR)
11. What is the primary method of disposal of PNP properties according to the guidelines?
a) Sale through public bidding
12. Who is the approving authority for the distribution of PNP mobility assets?
c) C,PNP as recommended by the Director for Logistics
13. What is the abbreviation used for "Beyond Economic Repair" in the guidelines?
b) BER
14. What is the purpose of the Technical Working Group for Planning on Transportations?
a) Support the PMC in performing technical functions during the formulation of the PPMP
15. Who acts as an oversight body in the formulation of the PPMP of the PNP?
b) Procurement Management Committee
That's the end of the quiz! How did you do?
Logistics Management Course: "Demand Forecasting" Quiz
Instructions:
Read each question carefully and choose the correct answer from the options provided based on the information given in the presentation.
1. Who said, "Forecasting is very difficult especially if it’s about the future"?
a) Nils Bohr
2. Why is demand forecasting important in supply chain management?
b) It's the driver for almost all supply chain-related decisions.
3. What processes does demand forecasting help to ensure?
c) Ensure delivery of the product and satisfy customer demands
4. Which negotiation style prioritizes maintaining the relationship between negotiating parties?
a) Accommodating
5. How does demand forecasting impact supplier relations and purchasing terms?
a) Improved Supplier relations and Purchasing Terms
6. What is the purpose of safety stock in inventory management?
c) To mitigate the risk of stock-outs caused by fluctuations in supply and demand
7. What is a lead time in the context of supply chain management?
a) The time from the moment the customer places an order to the moment it is ready for delivery
8. Which forecasting method involves subjective judgment and opinion?
b) Qualitative Method
9. What is the formula for calculating safety stock?
a) Safety Stock = (Max daily usage x Max Lead-time) - (Ave. daily usage x Ave. Lead-time)
10. What is the purpose of the Delphi Method in demand forecasting?
b) A panel of experts is questioned individually about their perceptions of future events.
11. Which forecasting method involves historical data and mathematical models?
c) Quantitative Method
12. Which inventory management term refers to the unit quantity on hand that triggers the purchase of replenishment inventory?
c) Reorder point
13. What is the primary advantage of using the Simple Moving Average (SMA) method for demand forecasting?
b) Responds quickly to changes in demand for short-term forecasting
14. What are the steps involved in demand forecasting?
d) Specifying the Objective, Determining the Time Perspective, Choice of method, Collection of Data, Estimation and Interpretation of Results
15. What is the purpose of using the Weighted Moving Average (WMA) method in demand forecasting?
c) Reacts more quickly to price changes and can be used for short-medium term forecasting
That's the end of the quiz! How did you do?
Internal Control in Supply Chain Management Quiz
Instructions:
Read each question carefully and choose the correct answer from the options provided based on the information given in the presentation.
1. What are internal controls in a business?
a) Mechanisms, processes, and procedures to ensure data validity and accuracy
2. Why are internal controls important in supply chain management?
c) Maintain confidence in the accounting data presented
3. Which of the following is not one of the seven internal control procedures mentioned?
d) Budget allocation
4. What is the purpose of separation of duties in internal control?
b) To reduce the chance of fraudulent acts by ensuring critical tasks are reviewed by co-workers
5. What is the purpose of access controls in internal control?
a) Controlling access to different parts of an accounting system to safeguard data and physical assets
6. What is the goal of physical security audits in internal control?
b) To identify gaps and loopholes in a system and evaluate security policies
7. Which internal control procedure ensures that supplier invoices are matched to the purchase order and goods/services receipt before payments are authorized?
a) 3 Way Matching
8. Why is segregation of duties important in procurement?
c) To ensure the person who creates the transaction is not the same person who approves it
9. What is the purpose of conducting cycle counts in inventory management?
d) To gradually improve inventory record accuracy by conducting small, frequent counts of a portion of the inventory
10. What is the purpose of standardized financial documents in internal control?
c) To make it easier to review past records when searching for the source of a discrepancy in the system
11. What is the primary reason for implementing internal controls for shipping and receiving?
a) To minimize the risk of internal theft and fraud
12. What does the term "cycle count" refer to in inventory management?
b) A detailed physical count of a small subset of inventory on a specified day
13. Which of the following is NOT a best practice for internal control in inventory management?
d) Trusting the word of the supplier without verifying incoming inventory
14. What should be done if inventory records show a negative balance?
c) Investigate the transaction flaw that caused the negative balance
15. What is the purpose of periodic reconciliations in internal control?
b) To provide regular insight into the state of the system and discover discrepancies as early as possible
That's the end of the quiz! How did you do?
Supply Chain Management Overview Quiz
Instructions:
Read each question carefully and select the best answer from the options provided based on the information given in the presentation.
1. What is a supply chain?
a) A system of organizations, people, technology, activities, information, and resources involved in moving a product or service from the supplier to the customer.
2. What is the main goal of supply chain management in a manufacturing business?
b) To procure raw materials, transform them into final products, and ensure timely distribution to intended recipients.
3. According to the Philippine Institute of Supply Management (PISM), what are the four pillars of Supply Management?
d) Purchasing, Demand and Replenishment, Logistics Management, Customer Service
4. What is the purpose of logistics in supply chain management?
c) To plan and execute efficient transportation or shipment and storage of goods from the point of origin to the point of consumption.
5. What are the main elements of logistics operations?
a) Warehousing, Handling and Storage, Inventory Management, Transportation and Delivery
6. What are the Seven Rs of Logistics?
b) A set of ideals and principles used by organizations to be successful in the trucking and logistics industry.
7. What is the purpose of a warehouse in logistics?
a) It serves as a shipment hub and facilitates the storage of goods.
8. What is one of the top challenges in warehouse management?
a) Inventory Accuracy
9. What is the role of pallets in material handling?
c) They reduce loading and unloading time and improve worker safety.
10. What is the function of a warehouse management system (WMS)?
d) To support the day-to-day operations in a warehouse, including tracking inventory levels and stock locations.
11. What does ABC classification in warehouse management refer to?
a) Categorizing items based on their importance, with fast-moving items as category A.
12. What is the purpose of calculating Days in Inventory?
c) To determine the average time a company keeps its inventory before it is sold.
13. How is the Inventory Turnover Ratio calculated?
b) Cost of Goods Sold divided by Average Inventory
14. What is the primary role of transportation within the supply chain?
a) To move goods from one location to another and facilitate all major operations within a supply chain.
15. What are some problems affecting transportation in the Philippines?
a) Poor quality of roads, traffic congestion, and fluctuating fuel prices
16. What is intermodal transportation?
b) The use of two or more modes or carriers to transport goods from shipper to consignee.
17. How is palletized loading different from manual loading?
c) Palletized loading allows for more efficient loading and unloading compared to manual loading.
18. What is the capacity of a regular 10W truck for palletized loading?
a) 16 pallets
19. What is the purpose of distribution in supply chain management?
b) To ensure products reach customers on time and in the right condition.
20. How is the number of pallets calculated for palletized delivery?
d) Number of boxes divided by boxes per pallet
That's the end of the quiz! How did you do?
Quiz: Test Your Knowledge on PNP Logistics Information and Management System (LDIMS)
1. What is the main purpose of the PNP Logistics Data Information and Management System (LDIMS)?
c) To collect, store, and manage data/information on PNP equipment and assets
Answer: c) To collect, store, and manage data/information on PNP equipment and assets
2. Who is responsible for supervising and monitoring the implementation of PNP MC 2020-036?
Answer: c) The Directorate for Logistics (DL)
3. What does LDIMS stand for?
Answer: c) Logistics Data Information and Management System
4. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of LDIMS as stated in the guidelines?
Answer: b) To provide entertainment services to PNP personnel
5. Who approves the changes in modules and sub-modules in the PNP LDIMS?
Answer: c) The Directorate for Logistics (DL)
6. What is the penalty for any violation of the provisions of PNP MC 2020-036?
Answer: c) Administrative charge or appropriate criminal/civil cases
7. When does PNP MC 2020-036 take effect?
Answer: c) After 15 days from filing at the UP Law Center
8. Who is responsible for ensuring that only designated LDIMS users access the system?
Answer: c) Logistics Officers
9. What is the purpose of LDIMS Administration Team?
Answer: d) To provide technical support and system administration
10. Which module of LDIMS deals with Property Accountability Clearance?
Answer: b) Accountability Clearance
How did you do?
Quiz: Test Your Knowledge on PNP Warehousing Guidelines and Procedures
1. What is the main purpose of the PNP MC No. 2017-070?
Answer: c) To protect items stored in PNP warehouses from pilferage and damage
2. What is the definition of warehousing according to the provided information?
Answer: b) Storing goods in an orderly manner for convenient access
3. Which of the following is NOT listed as a reason for the failure of PNP warehousing to meet proper standards?
Answer: c) Efficient warehouse security measures
4. What are the policies outlined regarding Warehouse Design Requirements and Budget Allocation?
Answer: c) General Policy, Location, and Design
5. According to the guidelines, where should PNP warehouses be located for easy access?
Answer: c) Near highways, railway stations, airports, and seaports
6. What is the responsibility of the SAO and RSPNCO in terms of warehouse management?
Answer: d) Serving as Warehouse Administrator and Warehouseman
7. What measures should be in place for Physical Safety and Security according to the guidelines?
Answer: b) Locking devices and perimeter fencing
8. What is the purpose of the Anti-Intrusion Alarm System, CCTV Cameras, and Biometric Fingerprint Door Lock System?
Answer: b) To deter unauthorized access
9. What should be practiced in storage management according to the guidelines?
nswer: c) First In, First Out (FIFO) principle
10. What are the responsibilities outlined for the Receiving of Property and Equipment?
Answer: c) Checking documents, quantity, and condition of received items
How did you do?
Quiz: Test Your Knowledge on Preventive Maintenance Service (PMS) for Vehicles
1. What does PMS stand for in vehicle maintenance?
Answer: b) Preventive Maintenance Service
2. What is the purpose of Preventive Maintenance Service (PMS)?
Answer: c) To maintain the vehicle's serviceability and operational readiness
3. How often should engine oil be replaced for light vehicles according to the presentation?
Answer: c) Every 5,000 km or 6 months
4. Which of the following is NOT listed as a basic tool that drivers should have at all times?
Answer: d) Vacuum cleaner
5. What are the two types of cooling systems mentioned in the presentation?
Answer: b) Direct Cooling System and Indirect Cooling System
6. What does "BLOWBAGETS" stand for?
Answer: c) An acronym for vehicle maintenance checks
7. What does "FITCAL" stand for?
Answer: d) An acronym for various maintenance procedures
8. What precautionary measures are suggested for DIY vehicle service?
Answer: c) Using a fuse with a higher amperage rating
9. What should be used to check tire pressure during DIY service?
Answer: c) Tire gauge
10. What is the last item in the "BLOWBAGETS" checklist referring to?
Answer: c) Self
How did you do?
Quiz: Understanding Government Procurement and RA 9184
1. What does RA 9184 stand for?
Answer: b) Republic Act No. 9184
2. What is the main objective of RA 9184?
Answer: c) To ensure transparency and accountability in government procurement
3. What is the role of the Bids and Awards Committee (BAC)?
Answer: b) To conduct procurement activities from advertisement to recommendation for award
4. Which of the following is NOT covered under RA 9184?
Answer: d) Direct financial assistance given to beneficiaries
5. Who is considered the Head of the Procuring Entity (HoPE)?
Answer: c) Head of the agency or body, or his duly authorized official
**6. What does the Technical Working Group (TWG) do?*
Answer: b) Conducts eligibility screening of bidders
7. What does the term "Total Cost of Ownership" refer to in procurement planning?
Answer: b) The true cost of an item, including purchase price, fixed, variable, and overhead cost
8. What is NOT a responsibility of the Bids and Awards Committee (BAC)?
Answer: c) Approval of the Annual Procurement Plan (APP)
**9. Can the BAC Secretariat be a member of the BAC at the same time?*
Answer: a) Yes, it is allowed
10. What is the purpose of the Technical Specifications, Scope of Work, or Terms of Reference in procurement?
Answer: c) To provide a detailed description of the deliverables
How did you do?
Quiz: Disposal of PNP Property, Plant, and Equipment (PPE)
1. What is the purpose of the Revised Manual On The Disposal Of Government Properties according to COA-DBM Joint Circular No. 2024-01?
Answer: b) To dispose of unserviceable, obsolete, or excess PNP Property, Plant, and Equipment (PPE)
2. What does "Beyond Economic Repair" refer to in the context of PNP property disposal?
Answer: c) Properties that are damaged beyond 50% of their current market value
3. Who approves the disposal of PNP building according to PNP MC No. 2023-026?
Answer: d) Engineering Service (ES)
4. What is the role of COA during the disposal of government property?
Answer: d) To act as an intelligent, responsible, and articulate witness
5. How are the proceeds from the disposal of PNP disposable properties utilized?
Answer: b) Remitted to the National Treasury
6. What is the primary responsibility of the Director for Logistics (DL) in the disposal process?
Answer: c) Chairing the NHQ Disposal Committee
7. Which document is NOT required for disposal according to PNP MC No. 2023-026?
Answer: d) Purchase Order (PO)
8. What does the term "Sensitive Properties" refer to in the context of disposal?
Answer: b) Properties with potential danger to public safety if lost or stolen
9. In what circumstances can properties be considered disposable according to NHQ Disposal Committee Resolution No. 2010-01?
Answer: b) When they are beyond economical repair
10. What is the minimum price set by the Disposal Committee for disposal of properties?
Answer: d) Floor price
Quiz on the Historical Highlights and Logistics of the Philippine National Police (PNP)
When was the Philippine Constabulary (PC) inaugurated as an insular police force under the American Regime?
Answer: August 8, 1901
What Organic Act established the Philippine Constabulary on July 18, 1901?
Answer: Organic Act No 175
Who was the first Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary, and when did he assume command?
Answer: Brigadier General Rafael T. Crame, December 17, 1917
When was the Philippine Constabulary/Integrated National Police (PC/INP) established as the country’s national police force?
Answer: August 8, 1975
Which Presidential Decree established the Integrated National Police (INP) with the PC as its nucleus?
Answer: Presidential Decree No. 765
When was Republic Act No. 6975 signed, establishing the Philippine National Police under the Reorganized DILG?
Answer: December 13, 1990
What significant event involving the merging of several security forces happened on January 29, 1991?
Answer: The merging of members of the former Philippine Constabulary/Integrated National Police and selected members of the Philippine Air Force Security Command, Philippine Coast Guard, and Philippine Army.
What does PNP stand for?
Answer: Philippine National Police
What is the PNP's definition of logistics?
Answer: The process of requirement determination (planning), procurement, storage, distribution, maintenance, disposal, and replacement of police equipment and facilities designed to effectively provide material support to police operations.
What does the acronym AC of S for Logistics, C4 stand for within the PNP context?
Answer: Acting Chief of Staff for Logistics, C4
Name the three branches under the AC of S for Logistics, C4.
Answer: The Supply Branch, Plans & Program Branch, and Facilities & Infrastructure Branch
What major change did the Directorate for Logistics undergo on February 17, 1998?
Answer: President Joseph M. Ejercito Estrada signed the PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 8551, leading to many organizational changes.
What is Supply Chain Management?
Answer: The active management of supply chain activities to maximize customer value and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage, covering everything from product development, sourcing, production, logistics, and the information systems needed to coordinate these activities.
Define Velocity Management.
Answer: An Army initiative to automatically improve the performance of logistics processes such as order and ship, repair, storage determination, and financial management.
What is 3rd Party Logistics?
Answer: The outsourcing of ecommerce logistics processes including inventory management, warehousing, and fulfillment, allowing ecommerce merchants to accomplish more with the tools and infrastructure for ultimate retail order fulfillment.
What organizational structure was proposed by the Directorate for Logistics in 2007?
Answer: A revised organizational structure to accommodate the growing personnel of the office, including divisions such as Logistics Plans & Programs Division, Logistics Resource Management Division, Infrastructure & Facilities Management Division, Supply Management Division, Real Estate Management Division, and NHQ BAC Secretariat Division.
What is the role of the Chief, Logistics Plans and Program Division (LPPD)?
Answer: The principal staff of the Director for Logistics responsible for formulating plans and policies, conducting programs and special projects, and interpreting and submitting statistics to concerned agencies.
What functions does the Supply Management Division (SMD) perform?
Answer: Planning, supervising, programming, and distribution of logistical supplies, monitoring the implementation of logistics policies, supervising management of logistical resources, and managing warehousing activities.
What is the role of the Infrastructure and Facilities Management Division (IFMD)?
Answer: Coordinating and supervising plans and programs relative to infrastructure and facilities management, including construction, repair, maintenance, and acquisition of engineering equipment.
What responsibilities does the Real Estate Management Division (REMD) have?
Answer: The preservation, administration, and disposition of all PNP-owned, occupied, administered, managed, or controlled real estate properties and reservation areas.
Describe the purpose of the NHQ BAC Secretariat Division.
Answer: Managing the procurement process of the NHQ PNP, consolidating and integrating submitted PNP Procurement Management Plans, developing the Annual Procurement Plan, and overseeing procurement activities.
What are "Just-in-Time" (JIT) and "Just-in-Case" inventory strategies?
Answer: JIT is an inventory strategy to increase efficiency and decrease waste by receiving goods only as needed in the production process, while Just-in-Case is an older strategy where producers carry large inventories to meet higher demand.
What is the significance of the PNP Logistics Cycle?
Answer: It represents the framework of the PNP Logistics Operation, encompassing planning/budgeting, procurement, storage/recording, distribution, maintenance, and disposal of police equipment and facilities.
What are some key core values of the PNP Directorate for Logistics?
Answer: God-centered, responsive, innovative, and service-oriented.
What is the vision and mission of the PNP Directorate for Logistics?
Answer: Vision: A dynamic directorate that serves the logistical requirements of a modernizing PNP. Mission: To assist the Chief, PNP in the administration and management of logistics and its functional areas in support of the successful accomplishment of the PNP mission.
Which memorandum circular prescribes the rules and regulations on the issuance of sidearms to PNP members?
Answer: c) NAPOLCOM Memorandum Circular No. 93-015
The doctrine of command responsibility in property accountability primarily holds which personnel liable for property loss?
Answer: c) The immediate superiors
What is the main purpose of the Board of Survey?
Answer: c) To investigate and evaluate the facts and circumstances about the loss or damage of the property
In case of death of the person responsible for the lost property, who is authorized to file the request for relief from property accountability?
Answer: c) The Supply Accountable Officer (SAO)
What is required by Section 101 of PD 1445 for designated Supply Accountable Personnel?
Answer: b) To be bonded
True or False Questions
The Chief of Office/Unit is subsidiarily liable with the person primarily accountable for any loss of government property.
Answer: True
The procedure to file a request for relief from property accountability must be initiated within 60 days of the noted loss.
Answer: False
All supporting documents for the request for relief must be submitted directly to the Chairman of COA.
Answer: False
The Board of Survey must complete their investigation and evaluation within 20 days of convening.
Answer: False
In cases of loss due to fire or natural calamities, a certification from PAGASA or a similar government agency is required as supporting evidence.
Answer: True
Short Answer Questions
What is the purpose of the Inventory and Inspection Report of Unserviceable Property (IIRUP)?
Answer: To document the condition of property that is no longer serviceable and ensure its proper disposal.
List three types of evidence required if the loss or damage of properties was caused by theft or robbery.
Answer: Incident/Progress and/or Final Police Report, List or Inventory of Lost or Damaged/Destroyed properties, Joint affidavit of two disinterested persons.
Explain what joint liability means in the context of property accountability.
Answer: Joint liability means that the accountable officer has the right to enlist the Chief of Office as a co-defendant in case of liability.
Who approves the relief from property accountability for lost property valued more than 500,000 pesos?
Answer: The Commission Proper of COA
What actions are taken against PNP personnel found guilty of malversation of public funds or property?
Answer: Appropriate charges are filed against them in relation to Article 217 of the Revised Penal Code.
1. What is the basic function of the Commission on Audit?
- The Commission on Audit shall have the power, authority, and duty to examine, audit, settle all accounts pertaining to the revenue and receipts of, and expenditures or uses of funds and property, owned or held in trust by or pertaining to the Government.
2. What does "Audit Disallowance" refer to?
- Audit Disallowance refers to the disapproval in audit of a transaction, either in whole or in part, and it applies to the audit of disbursement.
3. What does "Suspension" mean in the context of COA?
- Suspension refers to a temporary disallowance pending further justification or until the requirements raised in the course of the audit are submitted or complied with.
4. What are the main causes of Disallowances and Charges?
- Illegal, Unnecessary, Extravagant, Excessive, or Unconscionable Expenditure (IUEEU).
5. Give an example of an irregular expenditure of government properties.
- Replacement of serviceable structure/equipment.
6. True or False: The Commission on Audit's function is solely to promote government spending.
- False
7. True or False: The Notice of Disallowance is served only to the agency head.
- False
8. True or False: Suspension refers to a temporary disallowance that doesn't require further justification.
- False
9. True or False: The Board of Survey must complete their investigation and evaluation within 20 days of convening.
- True
10. True or False: In cases of loss due to fire or natural calamities, no certification from a government agency is required as supporting evidence.
- False
11. What are the objectives of the lecture on COA Disallowance?
- The objectives include understanding COA's function, defining audit disallowance, identifying causes of disallowances, discussing rules and regulations, and applying means to avoid COA disallowance.
12. Define "Irregular Expenditure".
- Irregular expenditure refers to expenses incurred without adhering to established rules, regulations, or procedural guidelines.
13. What is meant by "Excessive Expenditure"?
- Excessive expenditure leads to unreasonably high expenses or spending beyond reasonable limits.
14. Who are the persons liable according to COA for disallowed transactions?
- Persons liable include public officers who handle government funds, certify the necessity of funds, approve expenditures, and those involved in transactions disadvantageous to the government.
15. What does the Notice of Disallowance contain?
- The Notice of Disallowance informs the responsible parties about disallowed transactions, including the amount, laws violated, and persons liable.
Quiz: Disposal of PNP Property, Plant, and Equipment (PPE)
What is the purpose of PNP Memorandum Circular No. 2023-026?
Answer: b) To establish guidelines for the disposal of PNP Property, Plant, and Equipment (PPE)
What are "Abandoned Properties" in the context of PNP disposal procedures?
Answer: b) Properties without known owners or claimants
What is Controlled Cannibalization concerning unserviceable equipment?
Answer: b) Transferring unserviceable parts to repair other equipment
Which of the following is considered a method of disposal of PNP property?
Answer: c) Donating
What are "Excess Properties" in PNP disposal classification?
Answer: c) Properties in good condition but no longer used due to excess
Who approves the disposal of PNP properties at the NHQ and PRO levels?
Answer: b) CPNP
What is the primary responsibility of the Chairman of the NHQ Disposal Committee?
Answer: b) Dropping disposed properties from the PNP Book of Accounts
During disposal proceedings, what is the role of the Auditor or their authorized representative?
Answer: b) Act as an intelligent, responsible, and articulate witness
How are proceeds from the disposal of PNP properties handled?
Answer: b) Remitted to the National Treasury
Which of the following is NOT a required report form in PNP property disposal?
Answer: c) Employee Performance Evaluation
Quiz: DL Clearance and Property Accountability
1. What is DL Clearance in the context of the PNP?
Answer: b) Document attesting whether personnel have accountabilities
2. What does PAC stand for?
Answer: b) Property Accountability Clearance
3. What is the purpose of the Certificate of Property Accountability (CPA)?
Answer: c) Certifying existing property accountabilities
4. What does PNP LDIMS stand for?
Answer: b) Property and Logistics Data Information Management System
5. What is the role of DL in the issuance of DL Clearance?
Answer: b) Uploading clearance documents to LDIMS
6. Which document is required for DL Clearance processing according to the timeline?
Answer: a) Retirement order
7. What is the timeline for processing DL Clearance for a retiree without property accountability?
Answer: d) 9 months
8. What is the procedure for units with property accountability regarding DL Clearance processing?
Answer: b) Uploading Unit Property Accountability Document (UPAD) first
9. What is the purpose of the Affidavit of Willingness to Pay?
Answer: b) Indicating willingness to clear property accountabilities
10. Who is responsible for uploading the DL Clearance to LDIMS?
Answer: b) DL
Quiz: PNP Warehouse Management Guidelines
1. What is the purpose of PNP MC No. 2017-070?
Answer: b) To provide guidelines for warehouse management
2. What does "warehousing" entail according to the provided information?
Answer: b) Storing goods systematically and orderly
3. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the failure of PNP warehousing?
Answer: c) Excessive budget allocation
4. According to the guidelines, where should PNP warehouses ideally be located?
Answer: b) Near highways, railway stations, airports, and seaports
5. What is the responsibility of the SAO and RSPNCO in warehouse management?
Answer: b) Handling security measures
6. What is one of the requirements for physical safety and security of PNP warehouses?
Answer: d) Installation of CCTV cameras
7. What should be done in case of loose or damaged flooring in the warehouse?
Answer: b) Report it to the warehouse manager
8. How should gates and guarding systems be managed in PNP warehouses?
Answer: b) Manned and monitored strategically
9. What is the purpose of the anti-intrusion alarm system and CCTV cameras?
Answer: c) To deter unauthorized access
10. What is the recommended method for storing firearms in PNP warehouses?
Answer: c) In locked containers made of solid steel or timber
11. How should ammunition be stored according to guidelines?
Answer: b) In airtight and watertight containers
12. What is one of the key requirements during the receiving of property and equipment in the warehouse?
Answer: d) Warehouse keys should be handed properly
13. What is the procedure for emergency issuances of supplies and equipment?
Answer: c) Supply directives and proper RIS/PTR must follow
14. Who is responsible for the inspection of warehouses/storage rooms according to the guidelines?
Answer: b) Directorate for Logistics and other designated teams
15. What is the purpose of the Warehouse Database Management System?
Answer: b) To maintain inventory records
Multiple Choice Test:
Section 1: Inventory Management
1. What is the primary objective of inventory management?
c) Optimizing inventory levels (Correct)
2. Which of the following is NOT a type of inventory system?
d) Just-in-time inventory system (Correct)
3. What is the purpose of periodic inventory counts?
c) To reconcile discrepancies between actual and recorded inventory (Correct)
4. What does a perpetual inventory system do?
c) Tracks inventory levels in real-time (Correct)
Section 2: Inventory Counting Systems
5. What is a characteristic of a periodic inventory system?
c) It requires physical counts at regular intervals. (Correct)
6. What is the main advantage of a perpetual inventory system?
c) Real-time tracking (Correct)
7. Which inventory counting system continuously updates inventory records?
a) Perpetual inventory system (Correct)
Section 3: Property, Plant, and Equipment (PPE)
8. What is the threshold for capitalization of PPE according to IPSAS 17?
c) Php 50,000.00 (Correct)
9. How are items classified when their cost is below Php 50,000.00 but meet the definition of PPE?
b) Semi-expendable property (Correct)
Section 4: Records and Reports
10. What is the purpose of the PNP Property Book?
c) To keep track of property issued/donated to PNP offices/units (Correct)
11. Which form is used to report on the physical count of semi-expendable property?
b) RPCSP (Correct)
Section 5: Inventory Taking
12. What is the purpose of physical inventory taking?
b) To verify the accuracy of inventory records (Correct)
13. Who is responsible for the care, custody, and control of the property?
b) Property custodian (Correct)
PNP Logistic Data Information and Management System Quiz
Instructions:
- Read each question carefully.
- Choose the correct answer based on the information provided in the PNP Logistic Data Information and Management System manual.
- Select the most appropriate answer.
- Let's begin!
1. How do you access the PNP Logistic Data Information and Management System (LDIMS) website?
Answer:
b) Type https://pldims.pnp.gov.ph in the browser's address bar
2. What is the purpose of the Dashboard in LDIMS?
Answer:
a) To view statistical reports on firearm issuance
3. Where can you find the statistics of short firearms and long firearms within your Area of Responsibility (AOR)?
Answer:
a) SAO Records > Firearms Dashboard
4. What does SAO stand for in LDIMS?
Answer:
c) Supply and Operations
5. What is the purpose of the "Issuance (Old Record)" section in SAO Records?
Answer:
b) To search for old firearm records issued to personnel
6. How can you perform the encoding of total firearms on hand in the Local Inventory section?
Answer:
c) By clicking on "SAO Records" > "Firearms Local Inventory" and entering details
7. What is the purpose of the "Lost Firearms" section in SAO Records?
Answer:
c) To update lost firearm records
8. Where can you perform the issuance of firearms to end-users?
Answer:
b) SAO Records > New Issuance
9. How can you print Firearms Property Acknowledgement Receipt (PAR)?
Answer:
c) SAO Records > Firearms > PAR
10. What is the purpose of the "Renewal" section in SAO Records?
Answer:
c) To renew Property Acknowledgement Receipts (PAR)
Workshop on APP and PPMP Quiz
Instructions:
- Read each question carefully.
- Choose the correct answer based on the information provided in the Workshop schedule and content.
- Select the most appropriate answer.
- Let's get started!
1. Who is the Assistant Head of NHQ BAC Secretariat for the workshop on APP and PPMP?
Answer: a) PLTCOL LALAINE M BAÑARES
2. What is the duration of the workshop session on Lecture?
Answer: b) 10:00 AM to 2:00 PM
3. Which activity follows the Workshop session during the schedule?
Answer: a) Presentation by Group
4. What is the purpose of the PMC (Procurement Management Committee)?
Answer: c) Reviewing and consolidating PPMP
5. What does BAC stand for in the context of procurement?
Answer: b) Bids and Awards Committee
6. Who is considered as the Head of the Procuring Entity (HoPE)?
Answer: c) CPNP (Chief of the PNP)
7. What is the purpose of EPA (Early Procurement Activity)?
Answer: c) Initiating procurement before the budget cycle
8. Which document is NOT required for the preparation of the APP (Annual Procurement Plan)?
Answer: d) BAC Secretariat Report
9. Who is responsible for the consolidation of PPMPs into an APP?
Answer: a) PMC Secretariat
10. What is the main purpose of the PPMP (Project Procurement Management Plan)?
Answer: b) To manage the expectations for procurement needs fulfillment
Maintenance of Communications Equipment (Webinar) Quiz
Instructions:
- Read each question carefully.
- Choose the correct answer based on the information provided in the Maintenance of Communications Equipment webinar content.
- Select the most appropriate answer.
- Let's test your knowledge!
1. Who is the Acting Assistant Chief of RCEU 4A for the Maintenance of Communications Equipment webinar?
a) PMAJ ALEXANDER V ABUEL, REE
2. What are the objectives of the Maintenance of Communications Equipment webinar?
c) To learn the basic maintenance of communications equipment in the PNP
3. What are the types of maintenance discussed in the webinar?
b) Preventive maintenance, routine maintenance, troubleshooting
4. What are the potential hazards of not maintaining communication systems?
a) Personal injury, equipment damage, communication loss
5. According to PNP MC 41-13, what are the proper usage, care, and maintenance of transceiver radios and accessories?
b) Avoid airing obscene, indecent, and profane languages; observe strict COMSEC
6. What is the purpose of the NATO phonetic alphabet in radio communication?
c) To ensure clarity and avoid misunderstandings
7. What is the main advantage of using a DMR (Digital Mobile Radio) system?
a) Increased spectral efficiency
8. Which frequency band is typically used for Very High Frequency (VHF) communications?
b) 30 - 300 MHz
9. What is the main difference between trunked radios and conventional radios?
c) Trunked radios offer more features like private call and voice encryption.
10. What is the importance of a proper antenna in radio communication?
a) It ensures effective transmission and reception of signals.
11. What precaution should be taken when using radio transceivers under direct sunlight?
b) Do not overexpose the transceiver to direct sunlight.
12. According to the webinar content, what should you do if you encounter a problem with your radio?
d) Inform immediately your Technical Group for immediate technical solution.
13. Which document contains PNP policies on the proper utilization of DMR (Digital Mobile Radio)?
a) PNP MC 2020-04
14. What is the primary objective of the Communications & Electronics Service?
b) To establish a reliable, modern & secured Communications Network & Infrastructure
15. What is the purpose of conducting radio checks before passing a message?
c) To establish comms with another station and ensure message clarity
That's the end of the quiz! How did you do? Let's review your answers.
"Guidelines on the Issuance, Utilization, Maintenance, & Proper Disposition of PNP Mobility Assets" Quiz
Instructions:
Read each question carefully and select the correct answer based on the information provided in the presentation.
1. Who presented the guidelines outlined in PNP MC No. 2015-002?
a) PMAJ Steve C Juanico
2. What is the sequence of presentation according to the guidelines?
b) Planning, Budgeting, Price Determination, Procurement, Issuance and Distribution, Utilization and Maintenance, Disposal
3. What is Operational Needs Assessment in the context of the guidelines?
b) Periodic evaluation of materiel and logistical capabilities to identify deficiencies and address operational tasks
4. Which factors are considered during Operational Needs Assessment?
d) Current Inventory of Personnel and Equipment, Projected requirements for the next 5-10 years, Functionality/Purpose of Equipment, etc.
5. How is the price determination of mobility assets typically done?
a) Average of at least 3 supplier quotations
6. Which document specifies the technical specifications for mobility assets?
c) PNP MC No. 2021-003
7. What is the order of priority for the issuance of land vehicles?
b) PNP units with no issued Land Vehicles and/or for exigency of the service, criticality of the area, and the vastness of required supervision
8. What is the responsibility of drivers regarding PNP mobility assets?
c) They shall be primarily responsible for the serviceability and road worthiness of their issued vehicle.
9. When is the use of PNP mobility assets not allowed?
b) Saturdays, Sundays, and Holidays, except when dispatched for official function/use
10. What is the procedure before equipment is subjected to repair?
a) Identification of Equipment, approval of repair request, assessment of repair cost, Technical Inspection Report (TIR)
11. What is the primary method of disposal of PNP properties according to the guidelines?
a) Sale through public bidding
12. Who is the approving authority for the distribution of PNP mobility assets?
c) C,PNP as recommended by the Director for Logistics
13. What is the abbreviation used for "Beyond Economic Repair" in the guidelines?
b) BER
14. What is the purpose of the Technical Working Group for Planning on Transportations?
a) Support the PMC in performing technical functions during the formulation of the PPMP
15. Who acts as an oversight body in the formulation of the PPMP of the PNP?
b) Procurement Management Committee
That's the end of the quiz! How did you do?
Logistics Management Course: "Demand Forecasting" Quiz
Instructions:
Read each question carefully and choose the correct answer from the options provided based on the information given in the presentation.
1. Who said, "Forecasting is very difficult especially if it’s about the future"?
a) Nils Bohr
2. Why is demand forecasting important in supply chain management?
b) It's the driver for almost all supply chain-related decisions.
3. What processes does demand forecasting help to ensure?
c) Ensure delivery of the product and satisfy customer demands
4. Which negotiation style prioritizes maintaining the relationship between negotiating parties?
a) Accommodating
5. How does demand forecasting impact supplier relations and purchasing terms?
a) Improved Supplier relations and Purchasing Terms
6. What is the purpose of safety stock in inventory management?
c) To mitigate the risk of stock-outs caused by fluctuations in supply and demand
7. What is a lead time in the context of supply chain management?
a) The time from the moment the customer places an order to the moment it is ready for delivery
8. Which forecasting method involves subjective judgment and opinion?
b) Qualitative Method
9. What is the formula for calculating safety stock?
a) Safety Stock = (Max daily usage x Max Lead-time) - (Ave. daily usage x Ave. Lead-time)
10. What is the purpose of the Delphi Method in demand forecasting?
b) A panel of experts is questioned individually about their perceptions of future events.
11. Which forecasting method involves historical data and mathematical models?
c) Quantitative Method
12. Which inventory management term refers to the unit quantity on hand that triggers the purchase of replenishment inventory?
c) Reorder point
13. What is the primary advantage of using the Simple Moving Average (SMA) method for demand forecasting?
b) Responds quickly to changes in demand for short-term forecasting
14. What are the steps involved in demand forecasting?
d) Specifying the Objective, Determining the Time Perspective, Choice of method, Collection of Data, Estimation and Interpretation of Results
15. What is the purpose of using the Weighted Moving Average (WMA) method in demand forecasting?
c) Reacts more quickly to price changes and can be used for short-medium term forecasting
That's the end of the quiz! How did you do?
Internal Control in Supply Chain Management Quiz
Instructions:
Read each question carefully and choose the correct answer from the options provided based on the information given in the presentation.
1. What are internal controls in a business?
a) Mechanisms, processes, and procedures to ensure data validity and accuracy
2. Why are internal controls important in supply chain management?
c) Maintain confidence in the accounting data presented
3. Which of the following is not one of the seven internal control procedures mentioned?
d) Budget allocation
4. What is the purpose of separation of duties in internal control?
b) To reduce the chance of fraudulent acts by ensuring critical tasks are reviewed by co-workers
5. What is the purpose of access controls in internal control?
a) Controlling access to different parts of an accounting system to safeguard data and physical assets
6. What is the goal of physical security audits in internal control?
b) To identify gaps and loopholes in a system and evaluate security policies
7. Which internal control procedure ensures that supplier invoices are matched to the purchase order and goods/services receipt before payments are authorized?
a) 3 Way Matching
8. Why is segregation of duties important in procurement?
c) To ensure the person who creates the transaction is not the same person who approves it
9. What is the purpose of conducting cycle counts in inventory management?
d) To gradually improve inventory record accuracy by conducting small, frequent counts of a portion of the inventory
10. What is the purpose of standardized financial documents in internal control?
c) To make it easier to review past records when searching for the source of a discrepancy in the system
11. What is the primary reason for implementing internal controls for shipping and receiving?
a) To minimize the risk of internal theft and fraud
12. What does the term "cycle count" refer to in inventory management?
b) A detailed physical count of a small subset of inventory on a specified day
13. Which of the following is NOT a best practice for internal control in inventory management?
d) Trusting the word of the supplier without verifying incoming inventory
14. What should be done if inventory records show a negative balance?
c) Investigate the transaction flaw that caused the negative balance
15. What is the purpose of periodic reconciliations in internal control?
b) To provide regular insight into the state of the system and discover discrepancies as early as possible
That's the end of the quiz! How did you do?
Supply Chain Management Overview Quiz
Instructions:
Read each question carefully and select the best answer from the options provided based on the information given in the presentation.
1. What is a supply chain?
a) A system of organizations, people, technology, activities, information, and resources involved in moving a product or service from the supplier to the customer.
2. What is the main goal of supply chain management in a manufacturing business?
b) To procure raw materials, transform them into final products, and ensure timely distribution to intended recipients.
3. According to the Philippine Institute of Supply Management (PISM), what are the four pillars of Supply Management?
d) Purchasing, Demand and Replenishment, Logistics Management, Customer Service
4. What is the purpose of logistics in supply chain management?
c) To plan and execute efficient transportation or shipment and storage of goods from the point of origin to the point of consumption.
5. What are the main elements of logistics operations?
a) Warehousing, Handling and Storage, Inventory Management, Transportation and Delivery
6. What are the Seven Rs of Logistics?
b) A set of ideals and principles used by organizations to be successful in the trucking and logistics industry.
7. What is the purpose of a warehouse in logistics?
a) It serves as a shipment hub and facilitates the storage of goods.
8. What is one of the top challenges in warehouse management?
a) Inventory Accuracy
9. What is the role of pallets in material handling?
c) They reduce loading and unloading time and improve worker safety.
10. What is the function of a warehouse management system (WMS)?
d) To support the day-to-day operations in a warehouse, including tracking inventory levels and stock locations.
11. What does ABC classification in warehouse management refer to?
a) Categorizing items based on their importance, with fast-moving items as category A.
12. What is the purpose of calculating Days in Inventory?
c) To determine the average time a company keeps its inventory before it is sold.
13. How is the Inventory Turnover Ratio calculated?
b) Cost of Goods Sold divided by Average Inventory
14. What is the primary role of transportation within the supply chain?
a) To move goods from one location to another and facilitate all major operations within a supply chain.
15. What are some problems affecting transportation in the Philippines?
a) Poor quality of roads, traffic congestion, and fluctuating fuel prices
16. What is intermodal transportation?
b) The use of two or more modes or carriers to transport goods from shipper to consignee.
17. How is palletized loading different from manual loading?
c) Palletized loading allows for more efficient loading and unloading compared to manual loading.
18. What is the capacity of a regular 10W truck for palletized loading?
a) 16 pallets
19. What is the purpose of distribution in supply chain management?
b) To ensure products reach customers on time and in the right condition.
20. How is the number of pallets calculated for palletized delivery?
d) Number of boxes divided by boxes per pallet
That's the end of the quiz! How did you do?
Quiz: Test Your Knowledge on PNP Logistics Information and Management System (LDIMS)
1. What is the main purpose of the PNP Logistics Data Information and Management System (LDIMS)?
c) To collect, store, and manage data/information on PNP equipment and assets
Answer: c) To collect, store, and manage data/information on PNP equipment and assets
2. Who is responsible for supervising and monitoring the implementation of PNP MC 2020-036?
Answer: c) The Directorate for Logistics (DL)
3. What does LDIMS stand for?
Answer: c) Logistics Data Information and Management System
4. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of LDIMS as stated in the guidelines?
Answer: b) To provide entertainment services to PNP personnel
5. Who approves the changes in modules and sub-modules in the PNP LDIMS?
Answer: c) The Directorate for Logistics (DL)
6. What is the penalty for any violation of the provisions of PNP MC 2020-036?
Answer: c) Administrative charge or appropriate criminal/civil cases
7. When does PNP MC 2020-036 take effect?
Answer: c) After 15 days from filing at the UP Law Center
8. Who is responsible for ensuring that only designated LDIMS users access the system?
Answer: c) Logistics Officers
9. What is the purpose of LDIMS Administration Team?
Answer: d) To provide technical support and system administration
10. Which module of LDIMS deals with Property Accountability Clearance?
Answer: b) Accountability Clearance
How did you do?
Quiz: Test Your Knowledge on PNP Warehousing Guidelines and Procedures
1. What is the main purpose of the PNP MC No. 2017-070?
Answer: c) To protect items stored in PNP warehouses from pilferage and damage
2. What is the definition of warehousing according to the provided information?
Answer: b) Storing goods in an orderly manner for convenient access
3. Which of the following is NOT listed as a reason for the failure of PNP warehousing to meet proper standards?
Answer: c) Efficient warehouse security measures
4. What are the policies outlined regarding Warehouse Design Requirements and Budget Allocation?
Answer: c) General Policy, Location, and Design
5. According to the guidelines, where should PNP warehouses be located for easy access?
Answer: c) Near highways, railway stations, airports, and seaports
6. What is the responsibility of the SAO and RSPNCO in terms of warehouse management?
Answer: d) Serving as Warehouse Administrator and Warehouseman
7. What measures should be in place for Physical Safety and Security according to the guidelines?
Answer: b) Locking devices and perimeter fencing
8. What is the purpose of the Anti-Intrusion Alarm System, CCTV Cameras, and Biometric Fingerprint Door Lock System?
Answer: b) To deter unauthorized access
9. What should be practiced in storage management according to the guidelines?
nswer: c) First In, First Out (FIFO) principle
10. What are the responsibilities outlined for the Receiving of Property and Equipment?
Answer: c) Checking documents, quantity, and condition of received items
How did you do?
Quiz: Test Your Knowledge on Preventive Maintenance Service (PMS) for Vehicles
1. What does PMS stand for in vehicle maintenance?
Answer: b) Preventive Maintenance Service
2. What is the purpose of Preventive Maintenance Service (PMS)?
Answer: c) To maintain the vehicle's serviceability and operational readiness
3. How often should engine oil be replaced for light vehicles according to the presentation?
Answer: c) Every 5,000 km or 6 months
4. Which of the following is NOT listed as a basic tool that drivers should have at all times?
Answer: d) Vacuum cleaner
5. What are the two types of cooling systems mentioned in the presentation?
Answer: b) Direct Cooling System and Indirect Cooling System
6. What does "BLOWBAGETS" stand for?
Answer: c) An acronym for vehicle maintenance checks
7. What does "FITCAL" stand for?
Answer: d) An acronym for various maintenance procedures
8. What precautionary measures are suggested for DIY vehicle service?
Answer: c) Using a fuse with a higher amperage rating
9. What should be used to check tire pressure during DIY service?
Answer: c) Tire gauge
10. What is the last item in the "BLOWBAGETS" checklist referring to?
Answer: c) Self
How did you do?
Quiz: Understanding Government Procurement and RA 9184
1. What does RA 9184 stand for?
Answer: b) Republic Act No. 9184
2. What is the main objective of RA 9184?
Answer: c) To ensure transparency and accountability in government procurement
3. What is the role of the Bids and Awards Committee (BAC)?
Answer: b) To conduct procurement activities from advertisement to recommendation for award
4. Which of the following is NOT covered under RA 9184?
Answer: d) Direct financial assistance given to beneficiaries
5. Who is considered the Head of the Procuring Entity (HoPE)?
Answer: c) Head of the agency or body, or his duly authorized official
**6. What does the Technical Working Group (TWG) do?*
Answer: b) Conducts eligibility screening of bidders
7. What does the term "Total Cost of Ownership" refer to in procurement planning?
Answer: b) The true cost of an item, including purchase price, fixed, variable, and overhead cost
8. What is NOT a responsibility of the Bids and Awards Committee (BAC)?
Answer: c) Approval of the Annual Procurement Plan (APP)
**9. Can the BAC Secretariat be a member of the BAC at the same time?*
Answer: a) Yes, it is allowed
10. What is the purpose of the Technical Specifications, Scope of Work, or Terms of Reference in procurement?
Answer: c) To provide a detailed description of the deliverables
How did you do?
Quiz: Disposal of PNP Property, Plant, and Equipment (PPE)
1. What is the purpose of the Revised Manual On The Disposal Of Government Properties according to COA-DBM Joint Circular No. 2024-01?
Answer: b) To dispose of unserviceable, obsolete, or excess PNP Property, Plant, and Equipment (PPE)
2. What does "Beyond Economic Repair" refer to in the context of PNP property disposal?
Answer: c) Properties that are damaged beyond 50% of their current market value
3. Who approves the disposal of PNP building according to PNP MC No. 2023-026?
Answer: d) Engineering Service (ES)
4. What is the role of COA during the disposal of government property?
Answer: d) To act as an intelligent, responsible, and articulate witness
5. How are the proceeds from the disposal of PNP disposable properties utilized?
Answer: b) Remitted to the National Treasury
6. What is the primary responsibility of the Director for Logistics (DL) in the disposal process?
Answer: c) Chairing the NHQ Disposal Committee
7. Which document is NOT required for disposal according to PNP MC No. 2023-026?
Answer: d) Purchase Order (PO)
8. What does the term "Sensitive Properties" refer to in the context of disposal?
Answer: b) Properties with potential danger to public safety if lost or stolen
9. In what circumstances can properties be considered disposable according to NHQ Disposal Committee Resolution No. 2010-01?
Answer: b) When they are beyond economical repair
10. What is the minimum price set by the Disposal Committee for disposal of properties?
Answer: d) Floor price
