Q: Aspiration
A: Inhaling vomit, food, or saliva into the lungs
Q: NPO
A: Nothing by mouth
Q: Hematuria
A: Presence of blood in a person's urine
Q: PRN
A: As needed ('pro re nata,’ means the admin of meds is not scheduled)
Q: Dysphagia
A: Difficulty swallowing
Q: Apnea
A: Absence of respirations or breathing
Q: C-diff (Clostridioides difficile)
A: Bacterium that causes severe diarrhea and colitis
Q: QD
A: Every day
Q: QHS
A: Every night at bedtime
Q: Q4h
A: Every 4 hours
Q: BID
A: Two times a day
Q: TID
A: Three times a day
Q: QID
A: Four times a day
Q: Contractures
A: A physical shortening of the joint ligaments
Q: Bradycardia
A: Low heart rate (< 60 beats per minute)
Q: Tachycardia
A: High heart rate (> 100 beats per minute)
Q: Syncope
A: Fainting; sudden, temporary loss of consciousness due to decreased oxygen
Q: Diaphoresis
A: Excessive sweating
Q: Supine
A: Lying face upward
Q: Lateral
A: Lying on one side
Q: Fowler's Position
A: Sitting position (45-60 degrees)
Q: Prone
A: Lying on the abdomen
Q: Sims
A: Left side-lying position
Q: MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)
A: Antibiotic-resistant staph infection
Q: VRE (Vancomycin-resistant enterococci)
A: Bacterial strain resistant to vancomycin
Q: Standard Precaution
A: Infection control practices to prevent transmission of diseases via blood/body fluids
Q: Contact Precaution
A: Prevents spread of infectious agents via direct or indirect contact
Q: Droplet Precaution
A: Prevents spread of respiratory pathogens via large droplets from coughing, sneezing, or talking
Q: Airborne Precaution
A: Protects against airborne transmission of infectious agents
Q: DVT (Deep vein thrombosis)
A: Blood clot in a deep vein, usually in the legs
Q: ADL (Activities of daily living)
A: Basic self-care tasks like bathing, dressing, and eating
Q: PROM (Passive range of motion)
A: Movement of joints by an external force (e.g., caregiver assisting patient)
Q: Stage 1 Pressure Ulcer
A: Intact skin with redness
Q: Stage 2 Pressure Ulcer
A: Partial thickness skin loss; blister or shallow ulcer; epidermis and dermis exposed
Q: Stage 3 Pressure Ulcer
A: Full thickness tissue loss; subcutaneous fat may be exposed
Q: Stage 4 Pressure Ulcer
A: Full thickness tissue loss with muscle, tendon, and bone exposure
These should help reinforce key concepts for your exam. Let me know if you need any modifications!
Can on the chapters 4,7,9,11,15,17
ChatGPT said:
Here are flashcards based on Chapters 4, 7, 9, 11, 15, and 17 from CNA: Nursing Assistant Certification (CA Edition) by Carrie L. Jarosinski.
Q: What are the three key elements of effective communication?
A: Sender, message, receiver
Q: Why is active listening important in healthcare?
A: It ensures understanding, builds trust, and improves patient care.
Q: What is subjective vs. objective information?
A: Subjective: Based on what the patient reports (e.g., "I feel dizzy").
Objective: Observed/measurable data (e.g., vital signs).
Q: What are some barriers to communication?
A: Language differences, hearing impairments, cognitive disorders, cultural differences
Q: Why is cultural competency important in nursing care?
A: It helps provide respectful and effective care by understanding a patient’s cultural background.
Q: What is the purpose of body mechanics?
A: To prevent injury by using proper posture and techniques when lifting or moving patients.
Q: What is the safest way to lift an object?
A: Bend at the knees, keep the back straight, and lift using the legs.
Q: Why should a patient be repositioned every two hours?
A: To prevent pressure ulcers and improve circulation.
Q: What is the correct way to assist a patient with a fall?
A: Guide them to the floor while protecting their head and call for help.
Q: What does RACE stand for in fire safety?
A: Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish
Q: What are the CNA’s responsibilities during patient admission?
A: Assist with paperwork, take vital signs, show the patient their room, and ensure comfort.
Q: Why is proper documentation important during transfers?
A: To ensure continuity of care and prevent medical errors.
Q: What should a CNA do when discharging a patient?
A: Gather belongings, ensure patient understanding of discharge instructions, and assist as needed.
Q: How should a CNA support a patient’s emotional well-being during admission?
A: Be welcoming, answer questions, and provide reassurance.
Q: What is the Fowler's position used for?
A: It helps with breathing and digestion; often used for patients with respiratory issues.
Q: What is the best way to prevent contractures in bedbound patients?
A: Perform range of motion (ROM) exercises regularly.
Q: What is a gait belt used for?
A: To assist patients in standing, walking, or transferring safely.
Q: When using a mechanical lift, what should a CNA ensure first?
A: That the patient is secure and the lift is in proper working condition.
Q: Which side should a CNA stand on when assisting a patient with weakness?
A: The weaker side for support.
Q: What is NPO and when is it used?
A: Nothing by mouth; used before surgery or certain procedures.
Q: What are signs of dehydration?
A: Dry mouth, dark urine, dizziness, confusion, sunken eyes
Q: What is a clear liquid diet?
A: A diet including broth, clear juices, and gelatin—often used post-surgery.
Q: Why is thickened liquid used for dysphagia patients?
A: It reduces the risk of aspiration.
Q: What are the six essential nutrients?
A: Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, water
Q: What is constipation?
A: Difficulty passing stool due to hard, dry bowel movements.
Q: What can help prevent constipation?
A: High-fiber diet, adequate fluid intake, regular exercise.
Q: What is C-diff?
A: A bacterial infection causing severe diarrhea and colitis.
Q: How should a CNA assist with bowel training?
A: Encourage a routine schedule, adequate hydration, and fiber intake.
Q: What is the proper way to collect a stool sample?
A: Use a sterile container and avoid contamination with urine.